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Chapter One Intro To Medical Terminology > Chapter 3: Medical Terminology - The Skeletal System > Flashcards

Chapter 3: Medical Terminology - The Skeletal System Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

consists of bones, bone marrow, cartilage, joints, ligaments, synovial membrane, synovial fluid, and bursae

A

skeletal system

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2
Q

cells break down old or damaged bone

A

osteoclast

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3
Q

cells help rebuild the bone

A

osteblast

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4
Q

repairs minor damage to the skeletal system

A

ossification

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5
Q

act as the framework of the body, protect the internal organs, and store calcium

A

bone

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6
Q

is tough, fibrous tissue that forms the outermost covering of bone

A

periosteum

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7
Q

word root: means bone

A

oste

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8
Q

aka cortical bone. is dense, hard, and very strong bone that forms the protective outer layer of bones accounts for more than 75% of the bodys bone matter

A

compact bone

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9
Q

aka cancellous one. porous (sponge-like) which makes it lighter and weaker than compact bone.

red bone marrow is located within and commonly found in the ends and inner portions of long bones as well as the pelvic bones

A

spongy bone

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10
Q

femur and hummerus

A

long bones

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11
Q

include bones of the wrist and ankle. they are cube-shaped and made up spongy bone covered with layer of compact bone

A

short bones

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12
Q

true or false: bones with a large percentage of spongy one are weaker and more susceptible to fractures

A

true

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13
Q

the central cavity located in the shaft of long bones where it is surrounded by compact bone

red and yellow bone marrow are stored

A

medullary cavity

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14
Q

pertaining to the inner section

A

medullary

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15
Q

the tissue that lines the medullary cavity

A

endosteum

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16
Q

prefix: means within

A

end-

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17
Q

located within the spongy bone a hematopoietic tissue that manufactures red blood cells, hemoglobin, white blood cells, and thrombocytes

A

red bone marrow

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18
Q

pertaining to the formation of blood cells

A

hematopoietic

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19
Q

combining form: means blood

A

hemat/o

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20
Q

suffix: means pertaining to formation

A

-poietic

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21
Q

functions as a fat storage area. composed chiefly of fat cells and is located in the medullary cavity of long bones

A

yellow bone marrow

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22
Q

true or false: most bone marrow is red from birth through early adolescence, after which about half is gradually replaced by yellow bone marrow

A

true

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23
Q

the smooth rubbery blue-white connective tissue that acts as a shock absorber between bones

A

cartilage

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24
Q

true or false: cartilage is more elastic than bone, also makes up the flexible parts of the skeleton such as outer ear and tip of the nose

A

true

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25
Q

covers the surfaces of bones where they articulate or come together to form joints

makes smooth joint movement possible and protects bones from rubbing each other

A

articular cartilage

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26
Q

the curved fibrous cartilage found in some joints such as the knee and temporomandibular joint of the jaw

A

meniscus

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27
Q

shaft of a long bone

A

diaphysis

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28
Q

wider ends of long bones

singular-epiphysis

A

epiphyses

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29
Q

true or false: each epiphysis is covered with articular cartilage to protect it

A

true

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30
Q

the end of the bone located nearest to the midline of the body

A

proximal epiphysis

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31
Q

the end of the bone located farthest away from the midline of the body

A

distal epiphysis

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32
Q

an opening in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass

plural-foramina

A

foramen

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33
Q

spinal cord passes through the _______ of the occipital bone at the base of the skull

A

foramen magnum

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34
Q

normal projection on the surface of a bone that most commonly serve as an attachment for a muscle or tendon

A

process

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35
Q

the bony projection located on the temporal bones behind the ears

A

mastoid process

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36
Q

the place of union between two or more bones

aka articulations

A

joints

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37
Q

______ are classified according to their construction or based on degree of movement they allow

A

joints

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38
Q

consisting of inflexible layers of dense connective tissue, hold bones tightly together

A

fibrous joints

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39
Q

in adults allow little or no movement

A

sutures

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40
Q

in newborns and young children, some _______ joints are moveable before they have solidified

A

fibrous

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41
Q

aka soft spots, normally present on the skull of newborns

A

fontanelles

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42
Q

facilitate the passage of the infant through the birth canal

allows for growth of skull during the first year

A

fontanelles

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43
Q

allow only slight movement and consists of bones connected entirely by cartilage

A

cartilaginous joints

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44
Q

the ribs connect to the _______ (breast bone), these joints allow movement during breathing

A

sternum

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45
Q

allows some movement to facilitate child birth

this joint located between pubic bones in the anterior of the pelvis

A

pubic symphysis

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46
Q

created where two bones articulate to permit a variety of motions

A

synovial joint

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47
Q

_________ joints describe their type of motion

A

synovial

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48
Q

hips and shoulders allow wide range of movement in many directions

A

ball-and-socket joints

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49
Q

knees and elbows, allow movement primarily in one direction or plane

A

hinge jonts

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50
Q

_______________ consists of several components that make complex movements possible

A

synovial joints

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51
Q

the outermost layer of strong fibrous tissue that resembles a sleeve as it surrounds the joint

A

synovial capsule

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52
Q

lines the capsule and secretes synovial fluid

A

synovial membrane

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53
Q

flows within the synovial cavity, acts as a lubricant to make smooth movement possible

A

synovial fluid

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54
Q

bands of fibrous tissue that form joints by connecting one bone to another or by joining a bone to cartilage

A

ligaments

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55
Q

_____________ such as the knee are made up of a series of ligaments that permit movement in different directions

A

complex hinge joints

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56
Q

a fibrous sac that acts as a cushion to ease movement in areas that are subject to friction

plural-bursae

A

bursa

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57
Q

typical adult human skeleton consists of about ______ bones. Depending on the age of the individual, exact number of bones range from ________

A

206
206-350

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58
Q

skeleton is divided into _______ and _______ skeletal systems

A

axial and appendicular

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59
Q

protects the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems. consists of 80 bones of the head and body organized into five parts

A

axial skeleton

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60
Q

1) the bones of the skull
2) the ossicles (bones) of the middle ear
3) they hyoid bone located on the throat between the chin and thyroid
4) the rib cage
5) the vertebral column

A

five parts of the axial skeleton

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61
Q

makes body movements possible and protects the organs of digestion, excretion and reproduction
consists of 126 bones organized into upper and lower extremities

A

appendicular skeleton

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62
Q

shoulders, arms, forearms, wrists, and hands

A

upper extremities

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63
Q

hips, thighs, legs, ankles, and feet

A

lower extremities

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64
Q

anything attached to a major part of the body

A

appendage

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65
Q

referring to an appendage

A

appendicular

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66
Q

terminal end of a body part

A

extremity

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67
Q

consists of 8 bones that form the cranium, 14 bones that form the fact, 6 bones in the middle ear

A

skull

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68
Q

made up of 8 bones, the portion of the skull that encloses and protects the brain

A

cranium

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69
Q

__________ are joined by jagged fibrous joints that often referred to as sutures

A

cranial bones

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70
Q

anterior portion of the cranium that forms the forehead. houses the frontal sinuses and forms the roof of the ethmoid sinuses, the nose and part of the socket that protects the eyeball

A

frontal bone

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71
Q

two of the largest bones of the skull. form most of the roof and upper sides of cranium

A

parietal bone

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72
Q

forms the back part of the skull and the base of the cranium

A

occipital bone

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73
Q

form the sides and base of the cranium there are two of them

A

temporal bones

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74
Q

opening of the external auditory canal of the outer ear. located within the temporal bone on each side of the skull

A

external auditory meatus

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75
Q

external opening of a canal

A

meatus

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76
Q

irregular, wedge-shaped bone at the base of the skull

A

sphenoid bone

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77
Q

connects with all of the the cranial bones and helps form the base of the cranium, sides of the skull, and floor and sides of the eye sockets

A

sphenoid bone

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78
Q

light, spongy bone located at the roof and sides of the nose

A

ethmoid bones

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79
Q

separates the nasal cavity from the brain and it forms a portion of each orbit

A

ethmoid bone

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80
Q

the bony socket that surrounds and protects each eyeball

A

orbit

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81
Q

three tiny bones located in each middle ear. known as the malleus, incus, and stapes

A

auditory ossicles

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82
Q

malleus, incus and stapes

A

bones located in the middle ear

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83
Q

made up of 14 bones, contain air-filled cavities known as sinuses, purpose is to lighten the weight of the skull

A

bones of the face

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84
Q

form the upper part of the bridge 2

A

nasal bones

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85
Q

aka cheek bone, articulate the frontal bone that makes up the forehead 2

A

zygomatic bones

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86
Q

form the upper jaw aka maxillae 2
singular-maxilla

A

maxillary bone

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87
Q

form anterior part of palate of the mouth and floor of the nose 2

A

palatine bones

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88
Q

makes up the orbit 2

A

lacrimal bones

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89
Q

thin, scroll-like bones that form part of the interior of the nose 2
singular-concha

A

inferior conchae

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90
Q

forms the nasal septum

A

vomer bone

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91
Q

cartilage divides the two nasal cavities

A

nasal septum

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92
Q

aka jawbone, only moveable bone of the skull attached to the skull at the temporomandibular joint

A

mandible

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93
Q

attached to the mandible abbreviated by TMJ

A

temporomandibular joint

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94
Q

aka rib cage, bony structure that protects the heart and lungs

A

thoracic cavity

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95
Q

____________ consists of ribs, sternum, upper portion of the spinal column extending from the neck to the diaphragm not including the arms

A

thoracic cavity

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96
Q

12 pairs - 24 total

A

ribs

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97
Q

aka costals, attach posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae

A

ribs

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98
Q

word root: means ribs

A

cost

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99
Q

first seven pairs that attach anteriorly to the sternum
1-7

A

true ribs

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100
Q

3 pairs attach anteriorly to cartilage that connects them to the sternum
8-10

A

false ribs

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101
Q

last 2 pairs, only attached posteriorly to the vertebrae but are not attached anteriorly
11-12

A

floating ribs

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102
Q

aka breast bone, a flat daggered-shaped bone located in the middle of the chest
divided into three parts: manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

A

sternum

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103
Q

by joining with the ribs, the ___________ forms the front of the rib cage

A

sternum

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104
Q

bony structure that forms the upper portion of the sternum

A

manubrium

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105
Q

aka gladiolus, bony structure that forms the middle portion of the sternum

A

body of the sternum

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106
Q

structure made of cartilage that forms the lower portion of the sternum

A

xiphoid process

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107
Q

forms the pectoral girdle

A

shoulders

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108
Q

supports arms and hands aka shoulder girdle

A

pectoral girdle

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109
Q

refers to a structure that encircles the body

A

girdle

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110
Q

aka collar bone, a slender bone that connects the manubrium of the sternum to the scapula

A

clavicle

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111
Q

aka shoulder blade

A

scapula

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112
Q

an extension of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder

A

acromion

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113
Q

bone of the upper arm

A

hummerus

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114
Q

the smaller and shorter bone in the forearm runs up the thumb side of the forarm
think shorter distance in a circle

A

radius

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115
Q

larger and longer bone of the forarm. proximal end articulates with the distal end of the humerus to form the elbow joint
uLna-L means longer/larger

A

ulna

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116
Q

commonly known as funny bone, large proximal tip of the ulna, forms the point of the elbow and exposes a nerve that tingles when struck

A

olecranon

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117
Q

bones that form the wrist. form a narrow bony passage known as carpal tunnel. 8 of them
singular-carpal

A

carpals

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118
Q

five bones that form the palms of the hands

A

metacarpals

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119
Q

14 bones of the fingers
singluar-phalanx

A

phalanges

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120
Q

each of the four fingers has these three bones

A

distal, middle, and proximal

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121
Q

the ______ has 2 bones, distal and proximal phalanges

A

thumb

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122
Q

aka vertebral column, protects the spinal cord and supports the head of the body

A

spinal column

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123
Q

the __________ consists of 26 vertebrae, each of these is known as a vertebra

A

spinal column

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124
Q

pertaining to the vertebra

A

vertebrals

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125
Q

anterior portion is solid to provide strength

A

body of the vertebrae

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126
Q

posterior portion of the vertebrae. transverse and spinous processes extend from this area and serve as attachments for muscles and tendons

A

lamina

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127
Q

made up of cartilage and pads for tissue, separate and cushion the vertebra from each other and allow movement of the spinal column

A

intervertebral disks

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128
Q

inner core made up of soft gelatinous material that allows intervertebral disks to act as shock absorbers

A

nucleus pulposus

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129
Q

first 7 vertebra, they form the neck.
C1-C7

A

cervical vertebrae

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130
Q

pertaining to the neck

A

cervical

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131
Q

known as T1-T12, second set of 12 vertebra. each vertebra has a pair of ribs attached to it, forming the outward curve of the spine

A

thoracic vertebra

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132
Q

pertaining to the thoracic cavity

A

thoracic

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133
Q

known as L1-L5, third set of vertebra, and form the inward curve of the lower spine. these are the largest and strongest and bear the most of the bodys weight

A

lumbar vertebrae

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134
Q

relating to the part of the back and sides between the ribs and the pelvis

A

lumbar

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135
Q

the remaining two vertebra

A

sacrum and coccyx

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136
Q

slightly curved triangular-shaped bone near the base of the spine that forms the lower portion of the back

A

sacrum

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137
Q

true or false: at birth, the sacrum is composed of five separate bones but in young children they fuse together to form a single bone

A

true

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138
Q

aka tailbone, the end of the spine and is actually made up four small vertebra that are entirely or partially fused together

A

coccyx

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139
Q

aka bony pelvis, protects internal organs and supports lower extremities

A

pelvis

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140
Q

the _______ and _______ includes the pelvic girdle

A

sacrum and coccyx

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141
Q

cup-shaped ring of bone at the lower end of the trunk consisting of the ilium, ischium, and pubis

A

pelvic girdle

142
Q

broad, blade-shaped bone that forms the back and sides of the pubic bone

A

ilium

143
Q

slightly moveable articulation between the sacrum and posterior portion of the ilium

A

sacroliliac

144
Q

combining form: means sacrum

A

sacr/o

145
Q

word root: means ilium

A

ili

146
Q

lower posterior portion of the pubic bone, bears the weight of the body when sitting

A

ischium

147
Q

anterior portion of the pubic bone, located below the urinary bladder

A

pubis

148
Q

true or false: at birth the ilium, ischium, and pubis are three separate bones

A

true

149
Q

true or false: as a child matures, the ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse and form the left and right pubic bones

A

true

150
Q

held securely together by the pubic symphysis

A

pubic bones

151
Q

where two bones are closely joined

A

symphysis

152
Q

cartilaginous joint that unites the left and right pubic bones

A

pubic symphysis

153
Q

aka hip socket, the large circular cavity in each side of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint

A

acetabulum

154
Q

largest bone in the body aka the thigh bone

A

femur

155
Q

pertaining to the femur

A

femoral

156
Q

articulates with the acetabulum hip socket

A

head of the femur

157
Q

narrow area just below the head of the femur

A

femoral neck

158
Q

aka kneecap, the bony anterior portion of the knee

A

patella

159
Q

posterior space behind the knee where ligaments, vessels, and muscles are located

A

popliteal

160
Q

make possible movements of the knee

A

anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

161
Q

a tear in the anterior cruciate ligament is referred to as an ________

A

ACL injury

162
Q

tibia and fibula

A

lower leg bones

163
Q

aka shin bone, larger anterior weight bearing bone of the lower leg

A

tibia

164
Q

smaller of the two leg bones

A

fibula

165
Q

joints that connect the lower leg and foot and make movements possible

A

ankles

166
Q

each ankle is made up of ________ short tarsal bones

A

seven

167
Q

similar bones of the wrists; however, are much larger in size

A

tarsal bones

168
Q

a rounded bony projection on the tibia and fibula on sides of each ankle joint

A

malleoulus

169
Q

the ankle bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula

A

talus

170
Q

aka the heelbone is the largest of the tarsal bones

A

calcaneus

171
Q

5 of them form part of the foot to which the toes are attached

A

metatarsals

172
Q

bones of the toes

A

phalanges

173
Q

true or false: the great toe only has two phalanges

A

true

174
Q

true or false: the other four toes have three phalanges

A

true

175
Q

specializes in manipulative treatment or disorders originating from misalignment of the spine

A

chiropractor

176
Q

involves manually adjusting positions of the bones

A

manipulative treatment

177
Q

aka orthopedist, is a physician specializing in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles

A

orthopedic surgeon

178
Q

uses traditional forms of medical treatment in addition to specializing in treating health problems by spinal manipulation

A

osteopath

179
Q

combining form: means bone

A

oste/o

180
Q

medical practice known as ________ uses traditional forms of medical treatment in addition to specializing in treating health problems by spinal manipulation but can also be used to mean any bone disease

A

osteopathy

181
Q

specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the foot

A

podiatrist

182
Q

word root: means foot

A

pod

183
Q

suffix: means specialist

A

-iatrist

184
Q

a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of the arthritis and disorders such as osteoporosis, fibromyalgia, and tendinitis, and characterized by inflammation in joints and connective tissue

A

rheumatologist

185
Q

loss or absence of mobility in a joint due to disease, injury, or surgical procedure

A

anklyosis

186
Q

word root: means crooked, bent or stiff

A

ankyl

187
Q

being capable of movement

A

mobility

188
Q

aka frozen shoulder. painful ankylosis of the shoulder

A

adhesive capsulitis

189
Q

word root: means little box

A

capsul

190
Q

adhesive capsulitis cause by ________ forming in synovial capsule surrounding the shoulder, making the joint become thicker and tighter

A

adhesions

191
Q

stiffness of the joints

A

arthrosclerosis

192
Q

aka popliteal cyst, is a fluid sac behind the knee usually results from a condition such as a rheumatoid arthritis triggering production of excess synovial fluid

A

bakers cyst

193
Q

an inflammation of a bursa

A

bursitis

194
Q

word root: means bursa

A

burs

195
Q

abnormal softening of cartilage

A

chondromalacia

196
Q

inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum

A

costochondrititis

197
Q

combining form: means rib

A

cost/o

198
Q

aka bunion, an abnormal enlargement of the joint at the base of the great toe

A

hallux valgus

199
Q

inherited structural defect, arthritis, or footwear that causes stress on the joint are the most common causes of ________

A

bunions

200
Q

blood within a joint

A

hemarthrosis

201
Q

__________ is frequently due to a joint injury. Can occur spontaneously in patients taking blood-thinning medications or have a blood clotting disorder

A

hemarthrosis

202
Q

an inflammation disorder of the muscles and joints characterized by pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, hips and thighs

A

polymyalgia rhuematica

203
Q

prefix: means many

A

poly-

204
Q

an obselete term for arthritis and other disorders causing pain in the joints

A

rheumatism

205
Q

occurs when a ligament that connects bones to a joint is wrenched or torn

A

sprain

206
Q

inflammation of the synovial membrane that results in swelling and pain of the affected joint

A

synovitis

207
Q

word root: means synovial membrane

A

synov

208
Q

________ caused by arthritis, trauma, infection, or irritation produced by damage cartilage

A

synovitis

209
Q

aka luxation, the total displacement of a bone from its joint

A

dislocation

210
Q

partial displacement of a bone from its joint

A

subluxation

211
Q

inflammatory condition of one or more joints

A

arthritis

212
Q

true or false: there are more than 100 types of arthritis and related disorders

A

true

213
Q

aka wear-and-tear arthritis, is most commonly associated with aging

A

osteoarthritis (OA)

214
Q

OA is also known as ________________ because it is characterized by the wearing away of the articular cartilage within joints

A

degenerative joint disease

215
Q

breaking down or impairment of a body part

A

degenerative

216
Q

OA is characterized by hypertrophy of bone and formation of __________ aka bone spurs

A

osteophytes

217
Q

bony projections can cause pain or restrict movement in a joint

A

osteophytes

218
Q

aka spinal osteoarthritis, is a degenerative disorder that can cause loss of normal spinal structure and function

A

sponylosis

219
Q

word root: means vertebra

A

spondyl

220
Q

aka gouty arthritis, an inflammatory arthritis characterized by deposits of urate crystals in the joints

A

gout

221
Q

joints affected by _______ are typically hot, red, and excruciatingly sensitive

A

gout

222
Q

true or false: high levels of uric acid in blood caused by medications, alcohol consumption, diet and/or disease can lead to the formation of urinate

A

true

223
Q

a form of arthritis most commonly affects the knees or wrists and caused by deposits in the joint

A

pseudogout

224
Q

cause of ________ is a build up of calcium pyrophosphate crystals

A

pseudogout

225
Q

chronic autoimmune disorder which the joints and some organs of other body systems are attacked

A

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

226
Q

true or false: RA progressively attacks the synovial membranes, become inflamed and thickened so the joints are increasingly swollen, painful, and immobile

A

true

227
Q

a type of arthritis that primarily causes inflammation of joints between the vertebrae

A

ankylosing spondylitis

228
Q

means the progressive stiffening of a joint of joints

A

ankylosing

229
Q

this inflammatory disease can cause vertebrae in the spine to fuse, limiting mobility and restricting lung capacity

A

ankylosing spondylitis

230
Q

formerly called juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, is an autoimmune disorder that affects children ages 16 years or younger

A

juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)

231
Q

symptoms of ___________ include stiffness, pain, joint swelling, skin rash, fever, slowed growth, and fatigue

A

JIA

232
Q

true or false: many children outgrow JIA

A

true

233
Q

an inflammatory form of arthritis developed by about 20% of all people with the autoimmune skin disease psoriasis

A

psoriatic arthritis

234
Q

aka slipped or ruptured disk, the breaking apart of an intervertebral disk resulting in a bulge that put pressure on the spinal nerve roots

A

herniated disk

235
Q

aka low back pain, the general term for pain in the lumbar region of the spine

A

lumbago

236
Q

suffix: means diseased condition

A

-ago

237
Q

forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebral or sacrum below it

A

spondyloisthesis

238
Q

suffix: means slipping

A

-listhesis

239
Q

congenital defect that occurs early pregnancy when the spinal canal fails to close completely around the spinal cord to protect it

A

spina bifida

240
Q

pertaining to the spine

A

spina

241
Q

split

A

bifida

242
Q

an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine

A

kyphosis

243
Q

word root: means hump

A

kyph

244
Q

associated with weakening of the spinal bones due to aging

A

hunchback

245
Q

an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine

A

lordosis

246
Q

word root: means bent backward

A

lord

247
Q

an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

A

scoliosis

248
Q

word root: means curved

A

scoli

249
Q

aka osteonecrosis, area of bone tissue death caused by insufficient blood flow

A

avascular necrosis

250
Q

word root: means blood vessels

A

vascul

251
Q

an inflammation of a bone

A

osteitis

252
Q

aka adult rickets, abnormal softening of bones in adults

A

osteomalacia

253
Q

______ can be caused by a vitamin D deficiency

A

oseomalacia

254
Q

an inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone

A

osteomyelitis

255
Q

chronic bone disease of unknown cause characterized by abnormal breakdown of bone, usually in the pelvis, skull, spine, and legs followed by abnormal bone formation. new bone often structurally enlarged, misshapen and weak

A

pagets disease

256
Q

an inflammation of the periosteum associated with shin splints

A

periostitis

257
Q

condition caused by compression of a nerve in the spine referred to as a pinched nerve

A

radiculopathy

258
Q

combining form: means root or nerve

A

radicul/o

259
Q

a deficiency disease occurring in children characterized by defective bone growth from a lack of vitamin D necessary for the body to maintain calcium and phosphorous levels in bones

A

rickets

260
Q

narrowing of spaces within the spine, putting pressure on nerves and spinal cord that cause pain

A

spinal stenosis

261
Q

formerly known as dwarfism, a condition resulting from failure of bones of the limbs to grow to an appropriate length compared to size of the head and trunk

A

short stature

262
Q

true or false: there are more than 200 different conditions that can cause short stature and the average height of someone with short stature is 4 feet 10 inches

A

true

263
Q

aka talipes, a congenital deformity of the foot involiving the talus ankle bone

A

clubfoot

264
Q

a relatively rare malignant tumor that originates in a bone

A

primary bone cancer

265
Q

means becoming progressively worse and life-threatening

A

malignant

266
Q

occurs when cancer cells metastasize spread from other organs such as breasts, prostate, or lungs

A

secondary bone cancer or bone metastasis

267
Q

a type of cancer that occurs in blood-making plasma cells found in red bone marrow

A

multiple myeloma

268
Q

a benign bony projection covered with cartilage

A

osteochondroma

269
Q

something not life-threatening and does not recur

A

benign

270
Q

marked loss of bone density and increase in bone porosity, associated with aging

A

osteoporosis

271
Q

word root: means small opening

A

por

272
Q

thinner-than-average bone density

A

osteopenia

273
Q

suffix: means deficiency

A

-penia

274
Q

occurs when bone is pressed together on itself

A

compression fracture

275
Q

aka a broken wrist, occurs at the lower end of the radius, often when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on their hands

A

colles fracture

276
Q

aka broken hip, caused by weakening of the bones due to osteoporosis and can occur either spontaneously or as result of a fall

A

osteoporotic hip fracture

277
Q

means pertaining to or caused by the porus condition of bones

A

osteoporotic

278
Q

described in terms of its complexity

A

fracture or broken bone

279
Q

aka simple fracture or complete fracture is the bone is broken but no open wound in the skin

A

closed fracture

280
Q

aka compound fracture, is the bone is broken and there is an open wound in the skin

A

open fracture

281
Q

bone is splintered or crushed

A

comminute fracture

282
Q

means crushed into small pieces

A

comminute

283
Q

one side of the bone is broken and the other side is only bent

A

an incomplete fracture

284
Q

aka torus fracture, affected side of the bone is compressed and buckles but does not break

A

buckle fracture

285
Q

occurs at an angle across the bone

A

oblique fracture

286
Q

occurs when bone breaks under normal strain due to bones being weakened by osteoporosis or a disease process

A

pathologic fracture

287
Q

an overuse injury, a small crack in the bone often develops from chronic excessive impact

A

stress fracture

288
Q

occurs straight across, perpendicular to the shaft of the bone

A

transverse fracture

289
Q

form when a long bone is fractured due to an accident or surgery, and fat cells form yellow bone marrow are released into the blood

A

fat embolus

290
Q

any foreign matter circulating in the blood that can become lodged and block the blood vessel, also called an embolism

A

embolus

291
Q

aka crepitus, the grating sound heard when ends of a broken bone move together. refers to any unusual crackling sound or sensation within the body

A

crepitation

292
Q

forms as a bulging deposit around the area of the break

A

callus

293
Q

aka radiography, form of electromagnetic radiation to create xrays. helps visualize bone fractures and other abnormalities of hard-tissue internal structures

A

x-ray

294
Q

visual examination of internal structure of a joint using an instrument called an arthroscope

A

arthroscopy

295
Q

use of a syringe to withdraw tissue from the red bone marrow

A

bone marrow aspiration

296
Q

used to image soft tissue structures

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

297
Q

used to determine losses or changes in bone density

A

bone density testing

298
Q

measures amount of mineral in bones

A

bone density

299
Q

a screening test for osteoporosis or other conditions that cause loss of bone mass

A

ultrasonic bone density testing

300
Q

a low exposure radiographic measurement of the spine and hips to measure bone density

A

dual xray absorptiometry (DXA)

301
Q

a class of drugs used to slow loss of bone density reducing risk of broken bones

A

bisphophonates

302
Q

used in short term to maintain bone density

A

low dose hormone replacement therapy

303
Q

stem cell transplant used to treat certain types of cancer

A

bone marrow transplant

304
Q

produced by bone marrow eventually develop into blood cells

A

stem cells

305
Q

aka allogenic stem cell transplant, uses healthy bone marrow cells from compatible donor unless a perfect match there is danger that receipients body will reject the transplant

A

allogenic bone marrow transplant

306
Q

means originating within another

A

allogenic

307
Q

aka autologus stem cell transplant, patient receives his or her own bone marrow cells, been harvested, cleansed, treated, and stored before the remaining bone marrow in patients body undergoes treatment

A

autologus bone marrow transplant

308
Q

means originating within an individual

A

autologus

309
Q

utilizes blood-forming stem cells from bloodstream of patient or donor

A

peripheral blood stem cell transplant

310
Q

a mechanical appliance specially designed to support, control, correct or compensate for impaired limb

A

orthotic

311
Q

a substitute for a diseased or missing body part

A

prosthesis

312
Q

a surgery to replace torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

A

ACL recontstruction

313
Q

aka surgical ankylosis, a surgical fusion of two bones to stiffen a joint

A

arthrodesis

314
Q

suffix: means to bind or tie together

A

-desis

315
Q

a minimally invasive procedure for treatment of interior of joint

A

arthroscopic surgery

316
Q

a surgical procedure using transplanted bone, to repair and rebuild bones damaged by injury or disease

A

bone grafting

317
Q

means the bone or tissue comes from a donor or cadaver

A

allograft

318
Q

means the patients own bone or tissue is used

A

autograft

319
Q

surgical removal of synovial membrane from a joint

A

synovectomy

320
Q

surgical repair of a damaged joint

A

arthroplasty

321
Q

joint replacement part is a prosthesis commonly referred to as an ________

A

implant

322
Q

all parts of knee are replaced. procedure aka total knee arthroplasty

A

total knee replacement (TKR)

323
Q

which only part of the knee is replaced

A

partial knee replacement (PKR)

324
Q

aka total hip arthroscopy performed to restore a damaged hip to full function

A

total hip replacement (THR)

325
Q

alternative to removing head of the femur

A

hip resurfacing arthroplasty

326
Q

repairs injuries by replacing top of the humerus with a metal ball, and the damaged portion of the socket with a plastic prosthesis

A

shoulder replacement surgery

327
Q

replacement of worn or failed implant

A

revision surgery

328
Q

surgical or accidental removal of a limb

A

amputation

329
Q

post amputation phenomenon which there is a sensation of pain from a body part that is no longer there

A

phantom limb pain

330
Q

performed to treat herniated intervertebral disks that does not respond to physical therapy or other treatments

A

percutaneous diskectomy

331
Q

means performed through the skin

A

percutaneous

332
Q

performed to treat osteoporosis -related compression fractures

A

percutaneous vertebroplasty

333
Q

surgical of the lamina of a vertebrae

A

laminectomy

334
Q

word root: means lamina

A

lamin

335
Q

relieves pressure on the spinal cord by enlarging the spinal canal

A

decompression surgery

336
Q

technique to immobilize part of the spine by joining together (fusing) two or more vertebra

A

spinal infusion

337
Q

means join together

A

fusion

338
Q

surgical removal of a portion of the skull

A

decompressive craniectomy

339
Q

amount of pressure inside the skull

A

intracranial pressure

340
Q

a surgical incision or opening into the skull

A

craniotomy

341
Q

surgical cutting and reshaping of a bone

A

osteotomy

342
Q

aka manipulation, attempted non surgical realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation

A

closed reduction

343
Q

completed when a closed reduction is not practical. required to realign the bone parts

A

open reduction

344
Q

aka stabilization, act of holding, suturing, or fastening of the bone in a fixed position with strapping or a cast

A

immobilization

345
Q

a pulling force exerted on a limb in a distal direction in an effort to return the bone or joint to normal alignment

A

traction

346
Q

a fracture treatment procedure which pins are placed through soft tissues and bone so an external appliance can be used to hold pieces of bone in place during healing

A

external fixation

347
Q

aka open reduction internal fixation (ORIF), fracture treatment which a plate or pins are placed directly into the bone to hold broken pieces in place

A

internal fixation

348
Q

combining form: means bone

A

oss/e, oss/i, oste/o, ost/o

349
Q

combining form: means cartilage

A

chondr/o

350
Q

combining form: means ligaments

A

ligament/o

351
Q

combining form: means synovial membrane and fluid

A

synov/o and synovi/o

352
Q

combining form: means bursa

A

burs/o

Chapter One Intro To Medical Terminology (13 decks)

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