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Medical Terminology for Health Professions > Chapter 3 > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Flashcards

The Skeletal System

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What are the 8 main structures of the skeletal system?

A

bones, bone marrow, cartilage, joints, ligaments, synovial membranes, synovial fluid, bursae

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2
Q

The process of bone formation

A

ossification

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3
Q

What is the function of osteoclasts?

A

to break down old or damaged bone

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4
Q

What is the function of osteoblasts?

A

to rebuild bone

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5
Q

What type of tissue makes up bone?

A

connective tissue

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6
Q

oste

A

bone

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7
Q

peri-

A

surrounding

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8
Q

-um

A

noun ending

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9
Q

The tough, fibrous tissue that forms the outermost covering of bone

A

Periosteum

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10
Q

The dense, hard, and very strong bone that forms the protective outer layer of bones.

A

Compact bone (aka cortical bone)

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11
Q

The porous part of bone found in the ends and inner portions of long bones as well as in the pelvic bones, ribs, and vertebrae of the spinal column

A

Spongy bone (aka cancellous bone)

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12
Q

Where is red bone marrow often located?

A

spongy bone

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13
Q

Name 2 examples of long bones

A

Femur, humerus

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14
Q

The central cavity located in the shaft of long bones, where it is surrounded by compact bone.

A

the medullary cavity

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15
Q

Where is red and yellow bone marrow stored?

A

the medullary cavity

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16
Q

What does medullary mean?

A

pertaining to the inner section

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17
Q

end-

A

within

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18
Q

The tissue that lines the medullary cavity

A

the endosteum

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19
Q

What does hemopoietic mean? (aka hematopoietic)

A

pertaining to the formation of red blood cells

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20
Q

hem/o

A

blood

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21
Q

-poietic

A

pertaining to the formation

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22
Q

A hemopoietic tissue that makes red blood cells, hemoglobin, white blood cells, and thrombocytes

A

red bone marrow

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23
Q

A fat storage area

A

yellow bone marrow

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24
Q

The smooth, rubbery, blue-white connective tissue that acts as a shock absorber between bones and makes up flexible parts of the skeleton

A

cartilage

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25
Q

Definition of articulate

A

come together

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26
Q

This covers the surfaces of bones where they come together to make smooth joint movement possible and protects the bones from rubbing against each other

A

Articular cartilage

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27
Q

The curved, fibrous cartilage found in some joints such as the knee and temporomandibular joint of the jaw

A

the meniscus

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28
Q

The shaft of a long bone

A

diaphysis

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29
Q

The wider ends of long bones

A

epiphyses

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30
Q

The end of the bone located nearest to the midline of the body

A

proximal epiphysis

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31
Q

The end of the bone located farthest away from the midine of the body

A

distal epiphysis

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32
Q

An opening in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass

A

foramen

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33
Q

The spinal cord passes through the ___________ of the occipital bone at the base of the skull

A

foramen magnum

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34
Q

A normal projection on the surface of a bone that most commonly serves as an attachment for a muscle or tendon

A

process

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35
Q

The bony projection located on the temporal bones just behind the ears

A

mastoid process

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36
Q

The place of union between 2 or more bones

A

joints (aka articulations)

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37
Q

3 types of joints

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

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38
Q

Consisting of inflexible layers of dense connective tissue, these hold the bones tightly together

A

fibrous joints (aka sutures)

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39
Q

The flexible soft spots that allow the passage of an infant through the birth canal

A

fontanelles (aka soft spots)

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40
Q

What type of tissue are fontanelles?

A

fibrous joints

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41
Q

These types of joints allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage

A

cartilaginous joints

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42
Q

The cartilaginous joint, located in the pelvis, allows some movement to facilitate childbirth

A

pubic symphysis

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43
Q

Type of joint created where 2 bones articulate to permit a variety of motions

A

synovial joint

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44
Q

2 types of synovial joints and the difference between the two

A

BALL-AND-SOCKET joints (hips and shoulders) allow wide range of movement in many directions while HINGE joints allow movement primarily in one direction or plane

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45
Q

The 5 components of synovial joints

A

synovial capsule, synovial membrane, synovial fluid, ligaments, bursae

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46
Q

The outermost layer of strong fibrous tissue that resembles a sleeve as it surrounds the joint

A

synovial capsule

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47
Q

This lines the synovial capsule and secretes synovial fluid

A

synovial membrane

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48
Q

Acts as a lubricant to make the smooth movement of a joint possible

A

synovial fluid

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49
Q

Bands of fibrous tissue that form joints by connecting one bone to another bone or by joining a bone to cartilage

A

ligaments

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50
Q

A fibrous sac that acts as a cushion to ease movement in areas that are subject to friction

A

bursa

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51
Q

The skeleton is divided into what two skeletal systems for descriptive purposes?

A

Axial Skeleton, Appendicular Skeleton

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52
Q

What does the axial skeleton protect?

A

The major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems

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53
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton protect?

A

the organs of digestion, excretion, and reproduction

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54
Q

What are the 2 parts of the appendicular sketeton?

A

The upper and lower extremities

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55
Q

What does the skull consist of?

A

Cranium bones (8), face bones (14), middle ear (6)

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56
Q

crani

A

skull

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57
Q

What is made up of 8 bones and protects the brain?

A

the cranium

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58
Q

The anterior portion of the cranium that forms the forehead.

A

frontal bone

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59
Q

2 of the largest bones of the skull the form most of the roof and upper sides of the cranium

A

parietal bones

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60
Q

Forms the back part of the skull and base of the cranium

A

occipital bone

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61
Q

Form the sides and base of the cranium

A

temporal bones

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62
Q

Define meatus

A

the external opening of a canal

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63
Q

The opening of the external auditory canal of the outer ear

A

external auditory meatus

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64
Q

This , wedge -shaped bone at the base of the skull makes contact with all the other cranial bones

A

sphenoid bone

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65
Q

Light, spongy bone located at the rood and sides of the nose

A

ethmoid bone

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66
Q

orbit

A

the bony socket that surrounds and protects each eyeball

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67
Q

What are the smallest bones in the human body and where are they located?

A

the auditory ossicles located in the middle ear

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68
Q

What are the names of the 3 auditory ossicles?

A

malleus, incus, and stapes

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69
Q

Form the upper part of the bridge of the nose

A

nasal bones

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70
Q

AKA cheekbones, articulate with frontal bone

A

zygomatic bones

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71
Q

form most of the upper jaw

A

maxillary bones (aka maxillae or maxilla-singular)

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72
Q

Form the anterior part of the hard palate of the mouth and floor of the nose

A

palatine bones

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73
Q

Make up part of the orbit at the inner angle

A

lacrimal bones

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74
Q

Thin, scroll-like bones that form part of the interior of the nose

A

interior conchae

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75
Q

Nasal septum

A

the cartilage wall that divides the 2 nasal cavities

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76
Q

Forms the base for the nasal septum

A

the Vomer bone

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77
Q

The only movable bone of the skull

A

mandible (aka jawbone)

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78
Q

How is the mandile attached to the skull?

A

the temporomandibular joint

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79
Q

The bony structure that protects the heart and lungs

A

the thoracic cavity aka ribcage

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80
Q

Costals

A

ribs

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81
Q

How many ribs are there?

A

12 pairs

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82
Q

The 1st seven pairs of ribs that attach anteriorly to the sternum

A

true ribs

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83
Q

Ribs 8-10 that anteriorly to cartilage that connects them to the sternum

A

false ribs

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84
Q

Ribs 11 & 12 that are only attached posteriorly to the vertebrae

A

floating ribs

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85
Q

The 3 parts of the sternum (breastbone)

A

manubrium, body, xiphoid process

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86
Q

The shoulders form the ______ which supports the arms and hands.

A

pectoral girdle (aka shoulder girdle)

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87
Q

A slender bone that connects the manubrium to the scapula

A

clavicle (aka collar bone)

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88
Q

aka shoulder blade

A

scapula

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89
Q

The extension of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder

A

acromion

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90
Q

The bone of the upper arm

A

humerus

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91
Q

The smaller and shorter bone of the forearm that runs up the thumb side.

A

Radius (“rad man”)

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92
Q

The larger and longer bone of the forearm that forms part of the elbow joint

A

ulna

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93
Q

The funny bone

A

the olecranon process

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94
Q

The bones that form the wrist

A

carpals (8)

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95
Q

The carpals form this where nerves and tendons pass through

A

carpal tunnel

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96
Q

The 5 bones that form the palms of the hand

A

metacarpals

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97
Q

The 14 bones of the fingers/toes

A

phalanges

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98
Q

the 3 parts of the four fingers (in to out)

A

proximal phalanx, middle phalanx, distal phalanx

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99
Q

the 2 parts of the thumb (in to out)

A

Proximal phalanx, distal phalanx

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100
Q

This protects the spinal cord and supports the head and body

A

the spinal column (aka vertebral column)

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101
Q

How many vertebrae make up the spinal cord?

A

26

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102
Q

The solid anterior portion of the vertebra

A

the boy of the vertebra

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103
Q

The posterior portion of the vertebra

A

lamina (plural laminae)

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104
Q

The opening in the middle of the vertebra that allows the spinal cord to pass through.

A

vertebral foramen

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105
Q

These are made of cartilage and separate and cushion the vertebrae from each other

A

intervertebral disks

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106
Q

The 5 types of vertebrae and their respective numbers

A

Cervical (C1-C7), Thoracic (T1-T12), Lumbar (L1-L5), Sacrum, Coccyx

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107
Q

What protects the internal organs, supports the lower extremities, and contacts the sacrum, coccyx, and pelvic girdle?

A

the pelvis

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108
Q

The 3 parts of the pelvic girdle

A

ilium, pubis, ischium

109
Q

The broad, blade-shaped bone that formss the back and sides of the pubic bone

A

ilium

110
Q

The slightly movable articulation between the sacrum and posterior portion of the ilium

A

the sacroiliac

111
Q

sacr/o

A

sacrum

112
Q

ili

A

ilium

113
Q

-ac

A

pertaining to

114
Q

Forms the lower posterior portion of the pubic bone, bears the weight when sitting

A

ischium

115
Q

Forms the anterior portion of the pubic bone, located just below the urinary bladder

A

pubis

116
Q

Symphysis

A

a place where 2 bones are closely joined

117
Q

The cartilaginous joint that unites the left and right pubic bones

A

the pubic symphasis

118
Q

What are the pubic bones

A

the ilium, ischium, and pubis fused together by the pubic symphasis after a child matures

119
Q

The large circular cavity in each side of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint

A

the acetabulum (aka hip socket)

120
Q

The largest bones in the body

A

the femur (aka thigh bones)

121
Q

This part of the femur articulates with the acetabulum

A

the head of the femur

122
Q

Narrow area just below the head of the femur

A

femoral neck

123
Q

The bony anterior portion of the knee

A

the patella (aka kneecap)

124
Q

the term used to describe the posterior space behind where the ligaments, vessels, and muscles related to this joint are located

A

popliteal

125
Q

These make movement of the knee possible

A

the cruciate ligaments (anterior and posterior)

126
Q

The larger weight-bearing bone of the lower leg

A

the tibia (aka shinbone)

127
Q

The smaller bone of the lower leg

A

the fibula (“you must be fibbing”)

128
Q

Joints that connect the lower leg and foot and make movements possible

A

ankles

129
Q

Bones that make up the ankes

A

tarsals (7)

130
Q

A round bony projection on each side of the tibia and fibula on the sides of each ankle joint

A

malleolus (pleural malleoli)

131
Q

the ankle bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula

A

the talus

132
Q

the largest of the tarsal bones

A

the calcaneus (aka heel bone)

133
Q

The part of the foot to which toes are attached

A

metatarsals

134
Q

the toes

A

phalanges

135
Q

Holds a DC degree and specializes in the manipulative treatment of disorders originating of the spine

A

Chiropractor

136
Q

Holds a DO and uses traditional forms of medical treatment in addition to specializing in treating health problems by spinal manipulation

A

Osteopath

137
Q

Osteopathy

A

the medical practice done by osteopaths; or any bone disease

138
Q

Specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the foot

A

Podiatrist

139
Q

A physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of arthritis and disorders such as OP, fibromyalgia, and tendinitis that are characterized by inflammation in the joints and connective tissue

A

rheumatologist

140
Q

ankly

A

crooked, bent, or stiff

141
Q

The loss of absence of mobility in a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure

A

Ankylosis

142
Q

capsul

A

little box

143
Q

Painful ankylosis of the shoulder

A

Adhesive capsulitis (aka frozen shoulder)

144
Q

arthr/o

A

joint

145
Q

-sclerosis

A

abnormal hardening

146
Q

Stiffness in the joints

A

Arthrosclerosis

147
Q

a fluid-filled sac behind the knee

A

a Baker’s cyst (aka popliteal cyst). Usually from excess synovial fluid

148
Q

bursitis

A

an inflammation of the bursa

149
Q

chondr/o

A

cartilage

150
Q

-malacia

A

abnormal softening

151
Q

Chondromalacia

A

the abnormal softening of cartilage

152
Q

cost/o

A

rib

153
Q

Costochondritis

A

inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum

154
Q

Hallux valgus

A

(aka bunion) an abnormal enlargement of the joint at the base of the great toe

155
Q

Hemarthrosis

A

blood within a joint

156
Q

poly-

A

many

157
Q

my

A

muscle

158
Q

-algia

A

pain

159
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica

A

an inflammatory disorder of the muscles and joints characterized by pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, hips and thighs.

160
Q

sprain

A

when a ligment that connects bones to a joint is wrenched or torn

161
Q

synovitis

A

inflammation of the synovial membrane that results in swelling and pain of the affected joint

162
Q

synov

A

synovial membrane

163
Q

Dislocation

A

(aka luxation) the TOTAL displacement of a bone from its joint

164
Q

Subluxation

A

the PARTIAL displacement of a bone from its joint

165
Q

Arthritis

A

an inflammatory condition of one or more joints

166
Q

AKA wear-and tear arthritis or DJD, it is characterized by the wearing away of the articular cartilage within the joints and is commonly associated with aging

A

osteoarthritis

167
Q

Osteophytes

A

bone spurs

168
Q

spondyl

A

vertebrae

169
Q

-osis

A

abnormal condition or disease

170
Q

spondylosis

A

(aka spinal osteoarthritis) degenerative d/o where there is loss of normal spinal structure and function

171
Q

Gout

A

a type of arthritis characterized by deposits of uric acid crystals in the joints

172
Q

RA

A

Rheumatoid arthritis- a chronic autoimmune d/o in which the joints and some organs are attacked

173
Q

Ankylosing

A

the progressive stiffening of a joint or joints

174
Q

A form of RA that primarily causes inflammation of the joints between the vertebrae

A

ankylosing spondylitis

175
Q

The breaking apart of an intervertebral disk that results in pressure on spinal nerve roots

A

herniated disk (aka slipped or ruptured disk)

176
Q

Lumb

A

lumbar

177
Q

-ago

A

diseased condition

178
Q

Lumbago

A

(aka low back pain) pain of the lumbar region of the spine

179
Q

-listhesis

A

slipping

180
Q

The forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebra or sacrum below it

A

Spondylolisthesis

181
Q

Spina

A

pertaining to the spine

182
Q

Bifida

A

split

183
Q

A congenital defect that occurs during early pregnancy when the spinal cord canal fails to close completely around the spinal cord.

A

Spina bifida

184
Q

An abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine

A

kyphosis (aka humpback or dowager’s hump)

185
Q

kyph

A

hump

186
Q

An abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine

A

Lordosis (aka swayback)

187
Q

lord

A

bent backward

188
Q

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

A

scoliosis

189
Q

scoli

A

curved

190
Q

An area of bone tissue death caused by insufficient blood flow

A

Avascular necrosis (aka osteonecrosis)

191
Q

A malformation of the skull due to the premature closure of the cranial sutures

A

craniostenosis

192
Q

An inflammation of bone

A

Osteitis (aka ostitis)

193
Q

An abnormal softening of bones in adults usually caused by a defiency in calcium, vit d, or phosphate

A

osteomalacia (aka adult rickets)

194
Q

An inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone

A

osteomyelitis

195
Q

A chronic bone disease of unknown cause characterized by the abnormal breakdown of bone followed by abnormal bone formation

A

Paget’s disease

196
Q

An inflammation of the periosteum

A

periostitis

197
Q

A deficiency dz occurring in children characterized by defective bone growth resulting from lack of vit D

A

Rickets

198
Q

A condition resulting from the failure of the bones of the limbs to grow to appropriate length

A

Short stature (aka dwarfism)

199
Q

A congenital deformity of the foot involving the talus

A

talipes (clubfoot)

200
Q

A malignant tumor that originates in bone

A

Primary bone cancer

201
Q

A tumor that occurs in the bones of the upper arm, legs pevis, or rib that peaks between ages 10-20

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

202
Q

Tumors that have metastasized to bones from other organs

A

Secondary bone cancer

203
Q

A type of cancer that occurs in blood-making cells found in the red bone marrow

A

myeloma

204
Q

A benign bony projection covered with cartilage

A

osteochondroma (aka exostosis)

205
Q

por

A

small opening

206
Q

A loss of bone density and an increase in bone porosity that is associated with aging

A

osteoporosis

207
Q

-penia

A

deficiency

208
Q

Thinner-than-average bone density associated with aging, smoking, drinking, lack of calcium or calories

A

Osteopenia

209
Q

What 3 types of fractures is related to osteoporosis?

A
  1. compression fracture
  2. Colles’ fracture
  3. Osteoporotic hip fracture
210
Q

Occurs when the bone is pressed together on itself and can result in pain, loss of height, and a dowager’s hump.

A

compression fracture (vertebral crush fracture)

211
Q

Fracture that occurs at the lower end of the radius when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on the hand

A

Colles’ fracture (fractured wrist)

212
Q

Fracture

A

broken bone

213
Q

Closed fracture (simple or complete)

A

broken bone with no open wound

214
Q

Open fracture (compound)

A

broken bone and open wound

215
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

bone is splintered or crushed

216
Q

Greenstick fracture (incomplete)

A

bone is bent and only partially broken

217
Q

oblique fracture

A

break is at angle

218
Q

pathologic fracture

A

weakened bone breaks under normal strain

219
Q

spiral fracture

A

bone has been twisted apart

220
Q

stress fracture

A

overuse injury, small crack from chronic excessive impact.

221
Q

transverse fracture

A

break straight across bone

222
Q

Fat embolus

A

can form when a long bone is fractured and fat cells from yellow bone marrow are released into the blood

223
Q

embolus

A

any foreign matter circulating in the blood that can become lodged and block the blood vessel

224
Q

the grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together

A

crepitation (aka crepitus)

225
Q

Callus

A

A bulging deposit around the area of a break of the bone as it heals; also a thickening of the skin caused by repeated rubbing

226
Q

Radiograph

A

x-ray

227
Q

The visual examination of the internal structure of a joint

A

arthroscopy

228
Q

A diagnostic test that may be necessary after abnormal types or numbers of red or while blood cells are found in a CBC

A

a bone marrow biopsy

229
Q

The use of a syringe to withdraw tissue from the red bone marrow

A

bone marrow aspiration

230
Q

Used to image soft tissue structures

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

231
Q

Used to determine losses or changes in bone density

A

bone density testing (BDT)

232
Q

Screening test where sound waves are used to take measurements of the calcaneus

A

ultrasonic bone density testing

233
Q

A low-exposure radiographic measurement of the spine and hips to measure bone density

A

dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)

234
Q

Used to treat certain types of cancers such as leukemia and lymphomas

A

bone marrow transplant (BMT)

235
Q

allogenic

A

originating within another

236
Q

Type of BMT that uses healthy bone marrow cells from a compatible donor

A

Allogenic BMT

237
Q

Type of BMT where patient uses own bone marrow cells that have been treated

A

autologous BMT

238
Q

A mechanical appliance which is designed to correct impaired limb function

A

orthotic

239
Q

A substitute for a diseased or missing body part

A

prosthesis

240
Q

-desis

A

to bind, tie together (“deez nuts”)

241
Q

The surgical fusion of 2 bones to stiffen a joint

A

Arthrodesis (“Deez nuts) aka surgical ankylosis

242
Q

The surgical loosening of an ankylosed joint

A

Arthrolysis

243
Q

-lysis

A

loosening or setting free but can also mean patholgic state or therapeutic procedure)

244
Q

A minimally invasive procedure for the treatment of the interior of a joint

A

arthroscopic surgery

245
Q

The surgical repair of damaged cartilage

A

chondroplasty

246
Q

The surgical removal of a synovial membrane from a joint

A

synovectomy

247
Q

Arthroplasty

A

the surgical repair of a damaged joint or surgical placement of an artifical joint.

248
Q

The prosthesis that is used for a joint replacement

A

implant

249
Q

Describe the difference between a THR and hip resurfacing.

A

In a THR/THA, the head of the femur is removed and replaced with a metal ball while in hip resurfacing, instead of removing the head of the femur, a metal cap is placed over it. In both procedures a lining is fitted in to the acetabulum.

250
Q

The replacement of a worn or failed implant

A

revision surgery

251
Q

percutaneous

A

performed through the skin

252
Q

Performed to treat a herniated intervertebral disk

A

percutaneous diskectomy

253
Q

Performed to treat op-related compression fxs

A

percutaneous vertebroplasty

254
Q

The surgical removal of a lamina or posterior portion of a vertebra

A

laminectomy

255
Q

A technique to immobilize part of the spine by joining together 2 or more vertebrae

A

spinal fusion

256
Q

The surgical removal of a portion of the skull

A

craniectomy

257
Q

A surgical incision or opening into the skull

A

craniotomy

258
Q

Cranioplasty

A

the surgical repair of the skull

259
Q

Osteoclasis

A

the surgical fracture of a bone to correct a deformity

260
Q

Ostectomy

A

the surgical removal of bone

261
Q

Osteorrhaphy

A

the surgical suturing, or wiring together, of bones

262
Q

osteotomy

A

the surgical cutting of a bone

263
Q

Periosteotomy

A

an incision through the periosteum to the bone

264
Q

The attempted realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation

A

(aka manipulation) Closed reduction

265
Q

Surgery used when a closed reduction is not possible

A

open reduction

266
Q

The act of holding, suturing, or fastening the bone in a fixed position with strapping or a cast

A

Immobilization

267
Q

A pulling force exerted on a limb in a distal direction in an effort to return the bone or joint to normal alignment

A

traction

268
Q

A fracture treatment where pins are placed through the skin and bone so an external appliance can hold the bone in place during healing. (removed)

A

external fixation

269
Q

A fracture treatment in which plates or pins are placed directly into the bone to hold broken pieces in place. (not usually removed)

A

internal fixation (aka open reduction internal fixation ORIF)

Medical Terminology for Health Professions (9 decks)

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