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DE STUDY > Chapter 3 > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

1.​Which statement about driver/operator training is accurate? (80)
​A.​All firefighters must be qualified as driver/operators.
​B.​Driver/operators do not need to have firefighter certification.
​C.​All fire departments must select driver/operators in the same manner.
​D.​All fire departments must establish and maintain a thorough training program.

A

​D.​All fire departments must establish and maintain a thorough training program.

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2
Q

2.​Which ability or skill is necessary to understand maps, dispatch instructions, and preincident plans? (80)
​A.​Reading skills
​B.​Computer skills
​C.​Physical fitness
​D.​Mathematical skills

A

​​A.​Reading skills

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3
Q

3.​Driver/operators must have basic computer skills in order to: (81)
​A.​complete maintenance forms.
​B.​solve mathematical equations.
​C.​comprehend fire service manuals and periodicals.
​D.​access and operate online mapping software and dispatch instructions.

A

​D.​access and operate online mapping software and dispatch instructions.

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4
Q

4.​Which skill or ability is needed to connect an intake hose to a hydrant? (82)
​A.​Visual acuity
​B.​Reading skills
​C.​Physical fitness
​D.​Adequate hearing

A

​C.​Physical fitness

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5
Q

5.​What agency in the United States establishes basic requirements for licensing a driver? (82)
​A.​National Fire Academy (NFA)
​B.​Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
​C.​Federal Department of Transportation (DOT)​
​D.​Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

​C.​Federal Department of Transportation (DOT)​

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6
Q

6.​Which statement about states/provinces and driver/operator regulations is MOST accurate? (83)
​A.​States or provinces must vote to change federal regulations.
​B.​State or province requirements must be similar within regions.
​C.​States or provinces cannot alter basic federal requirements.
​D.​States or provinces have latitude to alter federal requirements as necessary.

A

​​D.​States or provinces have latitude to alter federal requirements as necessary.

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7
Q

​7.​Driver/operators are subject to any statute, rule, regulation, or ordinance that governs any other vehicle operator: (83)
​A.​unless specifically exempt.
​B.​and no exemptions can be made.
​C.​for the first year of employment as a driver/operator.
​D.​for the first two years of employment as a driver/operator.

A

​A.​unless specifically exempt.

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8
Q

8.​Which would MOST likely be exempt when emergency vehicles have their audible and visual warning lights on? (84)
​A.​Speed limits
​B.​Use of seat belts
​C.​Use of turn signals
​D.​Yielding to pedestrians

A

​A.​Speed limits

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9
Q

9.​Which statement about the driver/operator and organization in civil or criminal cases is MOST accurate? (84)
​A.​Only the organization can be held responsible.
​B.​Only the driver/operator can be held responsible.
​C.​Neither the driver/operator nor organization can be held responsible.
​D.​Both the driver/operator and organization can be held responsible.

A

​D.​Both the driver/operator and organization can be held responsible.

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10
Q

10.​Which of the following is the most common place for accidents to occur? (85)
​A.​Parking lots
​B.​Intersections
​C.​Undivided highways
​D.​Bridges or overpasses

A

​B.​Intersections

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11
Q

​11.​What generally accounts for a significant percentage of all damage repair costs for a fire department? (86)
​A.​Parking accidents
​B.​Backing accidents
​C.​Dumping operations
​D.​Maintenance mishaps

A

​B.​Backing accidents

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12
Q

12.​Which action would MOST likely be considered reckless when driving an apparatus? (86)
​A.​Driving while talking to a passenger
​B.​Using both visual and auditory warnings
​C.​Taking short cuts to the emergency incident scene
​D.​Failing to yield to other responding emergency vehicles

A

​D.​Failing to yield to other responding emergency vehicles

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13
Q
  1. Which statement about excessive speed and braking is MOST accurate? (87)
    ​A.​Excessive speed affects reaction time, not braking.
    ​B.​Excessive speed can cause difficulties when braking.
    ​C.​Excessive speed is dangerous but has no effect on braking.
    ​D.​Excessive speed affects braking only when brakes are pumped.
A

​B.​Excessive speed can cause difficulties when braking.

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14
Q

14.​What must driver/operators complete before being allowed to drive under emergency conditions? (87)
​A.​A thorough training program
​B.​A six-month observation period
​C.​A twelve-month observation period
​D.​A commercial emergency apparatus certificate

A

​A.​A thorough training program

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15
Q

15.​Because apparatus of similar function and manufacturer may handle differently or have differing controls, driver/operators must be: (87)
​A.​assigned to only one apparatus.
​B.​assigned no more than two apparatus.
​C.​trained or qualified to drive all assigned vehicles.
​D.​trained or qualified on apparatus with the most features.

A

​C.​trained or qualified to drive all assigned vehicles.

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16
Q

16.​What is the primary reason for daily pretrip inspections? (89)
​A.​Minimize mechanical failure
​B.​Justify additional shift hours
​C.​Keep warranties from lapsing
​D.​Maintain discipline in the department

A

​A.​Minimize mechanical failure

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17
Q

17.​Which apparatus are MOST likely to have design problems? (89)
​A.​Apparatus built before 2002
​B.​Apparatus designs that have been discontinued
​C.​Apparatus built by smaller commercial companies
​D.​Apparatus built on government surplus or other used vehicle chassis

A

​D.​Apparatus built on government surplus or other used vehicle chassis

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18
Q

18.​Who should advise a driver/operator who may be mentally or physically impaired to seek appropriate assistance? (89)
​A.​Any firefighter
​B.​Shift supervisor
​C.​Union representative
​D.​Human resources personnel

A

​A.​Any firefighter

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19
Q

19.​In most fire departments, it is standard operating procedure (SOP) for firefighters to don protective gear: (90)
​A.​after getting into apparatus.
​B.​before getting into apparatus.
​C.​after initial incident survey has occurred.
​D.​after arrival at the site of the emergency.

A

​B.​before getting into apparatus.

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20
Q

20.​What must all riders be doing, in addition to being seated within the cab or body, before the apparatus is put into motion? (90)
​A.​Wearing helmets
​B.​Wearing seat belts
​C.​Wearing universal precaution equipment
​D.​Carrying extra personal protective clothing

A

​B.​Wearing seat belts

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21
Q

21.​When loading fire hose while driving the apparatus, the safety observer to the operation: (91)
​A.​can be the driver/operator.
​B.​must be the first firefighter loading hose.
​C.​can be any member of the hose loading team.
​D.​must be a member, other than driver/operator and the firefighters loading the hose.

A

​D.​must be a member, other than driver/operator and the firefighters loading the hose.

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22
Q

22.​What is a guideline for loading hose while driving an apparatus? (91)
​A.​Drive apparatus only in a forward direction.
​B.​Drive apparatus only forward or backward; do not turn.
​C.​Put out caution cones for other traffic driving in the area.
​D.​Members may stand on apparatus only to reposition themselves.

A

​A.​Drive apparatus only in a forward direction.

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23
Q

​23.​Which is a guideline for apparatus rider safety? (92)
​A.​Firefighters riding in jump seats must wear reflective vests.
​B.​Every firefighter riding on the apparatus must have an individual radio.
​C.​Stop any operation involving apparatus every 15 minutes for a safety check.
​D.​Never allow firefighters to ride on the tailboard, front bumper, or running boards of any moving apparatus.

A

D.​Never allow firefighters to ride on the tailboard, front bumper, or running boards of any moving apparatus.

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24
Q

24.​Which statement about training for tiller operations is MOST correct? (93)
​A.​The tiller instructor must train operators remotely.
​B.​The tiller instructor can stand beside the operator.
​C.​A detachable seat may be placed next to tiller operator’s position.
​D.​A built-in harness may be placed next to the tiller operator’s position.

A

​C.​A detachable seat may be placed next to tiller operator’s position.

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25
Q

25.​When preparing to start the apparatus, whether for emergency response or a routine trip, the driver/operator must first know the destination and: (94)
​A.​route of travel.
​B.​number of victims.
​C.​travel time to incident.
​D.​parking options at the incident.

A

​A.​route of travel.

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26
Q

​26.​Why should diesel engines NOT be idled unnecessarily? (94)
​A.​May interfere with communications systems
​B.​May cause hearing damage to those in the cab
​C.​May cause damage to internal engine components and emission systems
​D.​May cause the electrical system components to turn on and off intermittently

A

​C.​May cause damage to internal engine components and emission systems

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27
Q

27.​On apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF), which of the following lights up when the exhaust system is very hot, usually due to an active regeneration in process? (94)
​A.​DPF indicator
​B.​Regeneration inhibit switch
​C.​Manual regeneration switch
​D.​High Exhaust System Temperature indicator

A

​D.​High Exhaust System Temperature indicator

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28
Q

28.​On apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF), which of the following lights up to indicate that the DPF is loading up with soot? (94)
​A.​DPF indicator
​B.​Regeneration Inhibit Switch
​C.​Manual Regeneration Switch
​D.​High Exhaust System Temperature indicator

A

​A.​DPF indicator

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29
Q

29.​Apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF) will have: (95)
​A.​very clean exhaust emissions and no black smoke.
​B.​the same exhaust emissions as all other apparatus.
​C.​exhaust emissions 25% cleaner than most apparatus.
​D.​exhaust emissions 30% cleaner than most apparatus.

A

​A.​very clean exhaust emissions and no black smoke.

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30
Q

​30.​An apparatus equipped with Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR) will have a tank in addition to a fuel tank that must be filled with Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) and the DEF tank should be: (95)
​A.​topped off every time the apparatus is fueled.
​B.​topped off every other time the apparatus is fueled.
​C.​filled every time the apparatus undergoes a weekly inspection.
​D.​filled every time the apparatus undergoes a monthly inspection.

A

​A.​topped off every time the apparatus is fueled.

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31
Q

31.​Which statement about shutting down a hot engine is MOST accurate? (95)
​A.​Hot engines should immediately be shut down.
​B.​Allow the engine to idle for one minute before shutting down.
​C.​Usually an idling time of three to five minutes is sufficient before shutting down.
​D.​Allow the engine to idle for ten to fifteen minutes before shutting down.

A

​C.​Usually an idling time of three to five minutes is sufficient before shutting down.

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32
Q

​32.​When should the mirrors be adjusted on an apparatus? (96)
​A.​During weekly inspections
​B.​During monthly inspections
​C.​Whenever it changes from day to night
​D.​Any time driving responsibility changes from one individual to another

A

​D.​Any time driving responsibility changes from one individual to another

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33
Q

​33.​On an aerial apparatus, what refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus? (97)
​A.​Breakover angle
​B.​Angle of approach
​C.​Angle of departure
​D.​Angle of culmination

A

​B.​Angle of approach

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34
Q

34.​On an aerial apparatus, what refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at wheelbase midpoint? (97)
​A.​Breakover angle
​B.​Angle of approach
​C.​Angle of departure
​D.​Angle of culmination

A

​A.​Breakover angle

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35
Q

35.​Weight carried on most apparatus can contribute to: (98)
​A.​problems with the apparatus brakes.
​B.​skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer.
​C.​increased road traction, causing decreased ability for speed.
​D.​inability of the apparatus to navigate normal road conditions.

A

B.​skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer.

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36
Q

36.​What is a guideline for keeping weight transfer to a minimum? (98)
​A.​Speed should be ten miles below posted limits.
​B.​Speed should be intermittently slow and then fast.
​C.​Steering should be accomplished in a series of quick motions.
​D.​Steering should be accomplished in a smooth and fluid motion.

A

​D.​Steering should be accomplished in a smooth and fluid motion.

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37
Q

37.​What can cause poor traction? (98)
​A.​Under-loaded front axles
​B.​Too little weight on driving axles
​C.​Too much weight on steering axle
​D.​Either too much or too little weight on steering axles

A

​B.​Too little weight on driving axles

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38
Q

​38.​Apparatus should be weighed after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that axle loading is balanced: (98)
​A.​within 2 percent from side to side.
​B.​within 7 percent from side to side.
​C.​within 15 percent from side to side.
​D.​within 21 percent from side to side.

A

​B.​within 7 percent from side to side.

39
Q

​39.​When driving downhill, which of the following should be done to prevent engine damage? (98)
​A.​Allow the vehicle to coast out of gear downhill.
​B.​Limit downhill speed to lower than minimum rpm.
​C.​Limit downhill speed to lower than maximum rpm.
​D.​Stop apparatus frequently to avoid speed buildup.

A

​C.​Limit downhill speed to lower than maximum rpm.

40
Q

​40.​NFPA® 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, requires a placard in every apparatus, listing: (99)
​A.​vehicle height and weight in feet and tons.
​B.​the year apparatus was initially put into service.
​C.​vehicle width and the distance from undercarriage to roadway.
​D.​maximum allowed combined passenger and equipment weight.

A

​A.​vehicle height and weight in feet and to

41
Q

​41.​In order for apparatus to come to a complete stop on snow and ice, it may take: (99)
​A.​15% more distance than it does on dry pavement.
​B.​25% more distance than it does on dry pavement.
​C.​3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
​D.​6 to 25 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.

A

​C.​3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.

42
Q

​42.​In most jurisdictions, when civilian drivers encounter emergency vehicles responding with warning lights activated and audible devices sounding, they must: (100)
​A.​continue driving, but at much reduced speeds.
​B.​continue driving as normal so as not to disrupt traffic.
​C.​pull to the left, stop, continue through intersections, and remain motionless.
​D.​pull to the right, stop, clear intersections, and remain motionless.

A

D.​pull to the right, stop, clear intersections, and remain motionless.

43
Q

​43.​Which statement about warning devices is MOST accurate? (100)
​A.​Visual warning devices should be used before audible devices.
​B.​Audible warning devices should be used before visible devices.
​C.​Warning devices should be used whenever fire apparatus are on streets.
​D.​Use of warning devices should be limited to response to true emergencies.

A

​D.​Use of warning devices should be limited to response to true emergencies.

44
Q

​44.​When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel: (101)
​A.​at least 50 to 150 feet (15 to 45 m) apart.
​B.​at least 100 to 300 feet (30 to 90 m) apart.
​C.​at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150 m) apart.
​D.​at least 700 to 900 feet (210 to 270 m) apart.

A

​C.​at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150 m) apart.

45
Q

​45.​At intersections with a red light, apparatus should: (101)
​A.​slow down and then proceed.
​B.​sound the horn and then proceed.
​C.​drive through as quickly as possible.
​D.​be brought to a complete stop before proceeding.

A

​D.​be brought to a complete stop before proceeding.

46
Q

​46.​When responding to emergencies, apparatus should: (101)
​A.​leave headlights off unless it is night time.
​B.​flash headlights as the apparatus is moving.
​C.​drive with high beam headlights on constantly.
​D.​turn on headlights as part of the emergency response

A

D.​turn on headlights as part of the emergency response

47
Q

​47.​When traffic lights along routes heavily used by fire apparatus are controlled, signals should be controlled by a dispatcher, from the fire station, or by: (102)
​A.​police units.
​B.​utility personnel.
​C.​remote control on apparatus.
​D.​remote control carried by shift supervisor.

A

​C.​remote control on apparatus.

48
Q

​48.​When strobe lights (emitters) mounted on apparatus are used to activate sensors in traffic lights, the signal: (102)
​A.​causes a red light in all directions.
​B.​causes either a red or green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel.
​C.​causes a red light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a green light in all other directions.
​D.​causes a green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a red light in all other directions.

A

​D.​causes a green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a red light in all other directions.

49
Q

​49.​What transmits data to a radio receiver on a traffic light in order to preempt a signal at the intersection and will operate automatically as long as the apparatus is in range and the transmitter is turned on? (103)
​A.​Traffic Signals at Stations
​B.​Voice-Activated Preemption Devices
​C.​GPS Based Traffic Signal Preemption
​D.​Strobe Light Activated Preemption Devices

A

C.​GPS Based Traffic Signal Preemption

50
Q

​50.​How do drivers establish visual lead time? (105)
​A.​By dividing speed by travel distance
​B.​By counting the seconds it takes to travel between landmarks
​C.​By scanning the path of travel far enough ahead based upon their speed
​D.​By watching the vehicle directly in front of the apparatus and estimating stop time

A

​C.​By scanning the path of travel far enough ahead based upon their speed

51
Q

​51.​Which term refers to the distance that the vehicle travels from the time brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop? (105)
​A.​Braking distance
​B.​Reaction distance
​C.​Total stopping distance
​D.​Complete stopping distance

A

​A.​Braking distance

52
Q

​52.​After the driver/operator perceives the need to stop the vehicle, the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal is: (105)
​A.​braking distance.
​B.​reaction distance.
​C.​total stopping distance.
​D.​complete stopping distance.

A

​B.​reaction distance.

53
Q

​53.​To maintain control when in an acceleration skid, the driver/operator should not apply brakes, but should instead ease off the accelerator, and: (108)
​A.​then apply the brakes forcefully.
​B.​straighten out the front wheels as vehicle begins to respond.
​C.​turn the front wheels in the same direction as the skid.
​D.​turn the front wheels in the opposite direction from the skid.

A

​B.​straighten out the front wheels as vehicle begins to respond.

54
Q

​54.​What is the MOST likely reason for a locked wheel skid? (108)
​A.​Braking too hard at high speed
​B.​Braking intermittently at low speed
​C.​Braking while turning the wheels more than twenty degrees
​D.​Braking while turning the wheels more than forty-five degrees

A

​A.​Braking too hard at high speed

55
Q

​55.​While driving a vehicle equipped with anti-lock brakes: (109)
​A.​push the pedal to the floor.
​B.​intermittently pump the pedal and apply pressure.
​C.​pump the pedal repeatedly until apparatus comes to a complete stop.
​D.​maintain a steady pressure on the brake pedal until apparatus comes to a complete stop.

A

​D.​maintain a steady pressure on the brake pedal until apparatus comes to a complete stop.

56
Q

​56.​Which auxiliary brake device uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates back pressure that adds to the engine’s inherent braking ability? (110)
​A.​Exhaust brake
​B.​Electromagnetic retarder
​C.​Engine compression brake
​D.​Transmission output retarder

A

​A.​Exhaust brake

57
Q

​57.​What automatically reduces engine torque and applies brakes to wheels that have lost traction and have begun to spin? (111)
​A.​Antilock braking system (ABS)
​B.​Automatic traction control (ATC)
​C.​Inclement weather control (IWC)
​D.​Secondary braking control system (SBC)

A

​B.​Automatic traction control (ATC)

58
Q

​58.​What is the purpose of the Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)? (111)
​A.​Improve traction and handling
​B.​Decrease time for total stopping
​C.​Increase the amount of weight carried
​D.​Improve visual lead time of the driver/operator

A

​A.​Improve traction and handling

59
Q

​59.​Which stability control system becomes active when the antilock braking system computer senses an imminent roll over condition? (112)
​A.​Roll stability control
​B.​Electronic stability control
​C.​Axle differential stability control
​D.​Automatic sensor stability control

A

​A.​Roll stability control

60
Q

​60.​Which stability control system applies brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction the operator positions the steering wheel? (112)
​A.​Roll stability control
​B.​Electronic stability control
​C.​Axle differential stability control
​D.​Automatic sensor stability control

A

​B.​Electronic stability control

61
Q

​61.​Which action is recommended by IFSTA when backing apparatus? (113)
​A.​Use one or more spotters.
​B.​Use radios or hand signals, but not both.
​C.​Back the apparatus as quickly as possible.
​D.​Avoid using the backup camera at incidents.

A

​A.​Use one or more spotters.

62
Q

​62.​Which is a guideline IFSTA recommends when backing apparatus? (113)
​A.​Sound horn in a series with as many blasts as possible in thirty seconds
​B.​Sound one long blast of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus
​C.​Sound two short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus
​D.​Sound four short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus

A

​C.​Sound two short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus

63
Q

​63.​What should firefighters be wearing when performing spotting duties? (114)
​A.​Reflective vests
​B.​Standard turnout clothing
​C.​International orange jumpsuits
​D.​Standard station wear clothing

A

​A.​Reflective vests

64
Q

64.​What should the driver/operator do if he or she loses sight of the spotter during backing? (114)
​A.​Stop and set the parking brake.
​B.​Continue backing the apparatus slowly.
​C.​Sound the horn twice then continue backing.
​D.​Call for additional spotters for the backing operation.

A

​A.​Stop and set the parking brake.

65
Q

​65.​When giving hand signals for backing apparatus, hand signals should be: (115)
​A.​repeated twice.
​B.​repeated three times.
​C.​done in a fast, exaggerated motion.
​D.​done in a slow, exaggerated motion.

A

​D.​done in a slow, exaggerated motion.

66
Q

66.​When giving a hand signal and the spotter crosses both forearms into a large X, this means: (116)
​A.​stop the apparatus.
​B.​continue backing slowly.
​C.​slow down the apparatus.
​D.​pull forward and reestablish backing.

A

​A.​stop the apparatus.

67
Q

​67.​Tiller operators must be particularly aware of: (117)
​A.​poor gas mileage.
​B.​proper overhead clearance.
​C.​excessive wear on apparatus tires.
​D.​improper storage of items on apparatus.

A

​B.​proper overhead clearance.

68
Q

​68.​What is a factor in tiller operation that officers and instructors should stress in training? (117)
​A.​Overcorrecting rather than undercorrecting
​B.​Keeping only one hand on the wheel at all times
​C.​Focusing on overhead obstructions rather than side and rear obstructions
​D.​Bringing the trailer quickly into line again as soon as a turn is completed

A

​D.​Bringing the trailer quickly into line again as soon as a turn is completed

69
Q

​69.​Driver/operator candidates should be evaluated: (118)
​A.​using only one method.
​B.​by multiple departments to ensure objectivity.
​C.​before being allowed to operate apparatus under emergency conditions.
​D.​after being given the opportunity to operate apparatus under emergency conditions.

A

​C.​before being allowed to operate apparatus under emergency conditions.

70
Q

​70.​Which statement about the written test for driver/operators is MOST accurate? (118)
​A.​Written tests must have a computer option.
​B.​Written tests must always be closed book tests.
​C.​The style of questions may vary according to local needs.
​D.​Questions used in the test must be verified by an independent agency.

A

​C.​The style of questions may vary according to local needs.

71
Q

​71.​Driver/operators must perform practical driving exercises: (118)
​A.​by driving at least two different apparatus.
​B.​with the most common apparatus in the department.
​C.​with each type of apparatus they are expected to drive.
​D.​by driving one apparatus they are familiar with and one they are not familiar with.

A

​C.​with each type of apparatus they are expected to drive.

72
Q

​72.​Which is a guideline when working on, around, or under apparatus? (119)
​A.​Always carry a hand-held radio.
​B.​Always have a second person present.
​C.​Always let at least one person know where you are.
​D.​Work on apparatus only when maintenance personnel are present.

A

​B.​Always have a second person present.

73
Q

73.​Before placing apparatus in motion, the driver/operator should ensure any hose carried on apparatus: (120)
​A.​will not come loose during travel.
​B.​are tied down in at least two different places.
​C.​are tied down in at least five different places.
​D.​take up a minimum of 60% of the apparatus storage space.

A

​A.​will not come loose during travel.

74
Q

​74.​Any equipment not needed while driving to the scene must be: (120)
​A.​placed underneath the seats or to the side of the seats.
​B.​secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet.
​C.​placed in storage compartments on the outside of the apparatus.
​D.​held in place by rope, webbing, or another secure means.

A

​B.​secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet.

75
Q

75.​Why should firefighters open the bleeder valve or drain valve between the control valve and cap? (122)
​A.​To prevent loss of water pressure
​B.​To ensure tasks are done in order
​C.​To ensure any trapped pressure is released
​D.​To prevent valves from threading incorrectly

A

​C.​To ensure any trapped pressure is released

76
Q

​1.​In the United States, basic requirements for licensing a driver are established by the: (82)
​A.​Bureau of Highways.
​B.​Department of Transportation.
​C.​Federal Emergency Management Agency.
​D.​Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

A

​B.​Department of Transportation.

77
Q

​2.​When driving fire department apparatus, driver/operators are: (83)
​A.​subject to city, but not state, traffic regulations.
​B.​subject to federal, but not local, traffic regulations.
​C.​subject to all traffic regulations under nonemergency conditions.
​D.​exempt from all driving regulations whether emergency or nonemergency conditions.

A

​C.​subject to all traffic regulations under nonemergency conditions.

78
Q

3.​The most common place for a vehicle collision to occur is: (85)
​A.​at an intersection.
​B.​on a two-lane highway.
​C.​in unattended parking garages.
​D.​on ramps on major interstates.

A

​A.​at an intersection.

79
Q

​4.​Which statement about mechanical failure during travel is MOST accurate? (89)
​A.​It may be an immediate occurrence and give no warning.
​B.​Some type of warning will always accompany a mechanical failure.
​C.​Driver/operators have typically 3-5 minutes notice for mechanical failures.
​D.​Mechanical failure is so rare that it is not a concern for driver/operators of modern apparatus.

A

​A.​It may be an immediate occurrence and give no warning.

80
Q

5.​Before the apparatus is put into motion, all riders must be seated within the cab or body and: (90)
​A.​wearing their seat belts.
​B.​wearing hearing protection.
​C.​must have checked in with the accountability officer.
​D.​must be carrying a hand-held radio and back-up SCBA.

A

A.​wearing their seat belts.

81
Q

6.​Which statement about a diesel particulate filter (DPF) is MOST accurate? (95)
​A.​A DPF system is found only on apparatus manufactured before 2000.
​B.​A DPF allows larger particulates to stream through the exhaust system.
​C.​A DPF collects particulates from the exhaust stream and burns them more completely.
​D.​Apparatus equipped with a DPF system emit more black smoke than older diesel engines.

A

​C.​A DPF collects particulates from the exhaust stream and burns them more completely.

82
Q

7.​What is MOST likely a concern for weight transfer when driving an apparatus? (98)
​A.​Passengers not distributing weight
​B.​Wind gusts that can cause apparatus to tilt to one side
​C.​Water tanks improperly baffled and partially filled with liquid
​D.​Additional materials such as cribbing and shoring materials that add weight

A

C.​Water tanks improperly baffled and partially filled with liquid

83
Q

8.​What can make steering axle weight too light to steer safely? (98)
​A.​Over-loaded front axles
​B.​Under-loaded front axles
​C.​Adequate weight distribution
​D.​Too little weight on driving axles

A

​B.​Under-loaded front axles

84
Q

9.​When determining a route to take, driver/operators should plot routes that avoid: (99)
​A.​low overpasses.
​B.​four-way intersections.
​C.​cloverleaf interchanges.
​D.​residential housing areas.

A

​A.​low overpasses.

85
Q

10.​Which area is likely to become slippery MORE easily? (99)
​A.​Bridges
​B.​Parking lots
​C.​Intersections
​D.​Major streets

A

​A.​Bridges

86
Q

11.​When in an acceleration skid, the driver/operator should: (108)
​A.​apply brakes intermittently and turn away from the skid.
​B.​apply brakes as quickly as possible and turn wheels into the skid.
​C.​slowly push down on the accelerator to allow the vehicle to come out of the skid.
​D.​not apply brakes, ease off accelerator, and straighten out front wheels as vehicle begins to respond.

A

​D.​not apply brakes, ease off accelerator, and straighten out front wheels as vehicle begins to respond.

87
Q

​12.​Which is a hand signal for stopping? (116)
​A.​Cross both forearms into a large X
​B.​Hold both arms vertically over the head
​C.​Hold both arms horizontally out to the side
​D.​Have hands in a fist, waving in front of the chest

A

​A.​Cross both forearms into a large X

88
Q

13.​Tiller operators must be particularly aware of: (117)
​A.​undercorrecting.
​B.​keeping the trailer in a turn.
​C.​keeping one hand on the wheel and one on the radio.
​D.​the distance of the trailer from the base of the building.

A

​D.​the distance of the trailer from the base of the building.

89
Q

14.​Which statement about road tests is MOST accurate? (119)
​A.​Road tests must be simulated for all weather conditions.
​B.​Road tests can be completed by using a virtual simulation program.
​C.​All jurisdictions within a particular state must have the same road test.
​D.​Local jurisdictions may develop a road test route that will traverse any conditions particular to the area.

A

​D.​Local jurisdictions may develop a road test route that will traverse any conditions particular to the area.

90
Q

15.​Which statement about operating on top of apparatus is MOST accurate? (119)
​A.​Always have a second person present.
​B.​Wear a minimum of PPE for freedom of movement.
​C.​Leave all apparatus doors open when working on top.
​D.​Always kneel or crawl when working on top of apparatus.

A

​A.​Always have a second person present.

91
Q

16.​Which statement about hydraulic fluids is MOST accurate? (121)
​A.​Hydraulic fluids are dangerous only when hot.
​B.​All hydraulic fluids pose little known risk to humans.
​C.​Some hydraulic fluids are known to be toxic to human tissue.
​D.​Synthetic hydraulic fluids are much more toxic to human tissue.

A

​C.​Some hydraulic fluids are known to be toxic to human tissue.

92
Q

17.​​In most jurisdictions, what should civilian drivers do when they encounter emergency vehicles responding with warning lights activated and audible devices sounding? (100)

A

• Pull to the right
• Stop
• Clear intersections
• Remain motionless

93
Q

18.​​What are three factors, other than braking distance and reaction distance, that affect the driver/operator’s ability to stop the apparatus? (105)

A

• Road conditions (wet, dry, snow, ice) and slope of driving surface
• Speed of apparatus
• Weight of the vehicle
• Type and condition of vehicle’s tires and braking system

DE STUDY (22 decks)

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