Chapter 3 Flashcards
1.Which statement about driver/operator training is accurate? (80)
A.All firefighters must be qualified as driver/operators.
B.Driver/operators do not need to have firefighter certification.
C.All fire departments must select driver/operators in the same manner.
D.All fire departments must establish and maintain a thorough training program.
D.All fire departments must establish and maintain a thorough training program.
2.Which ability or skill is necessary to understand maps, dispatch instructions, and preincident plans? (80)
A.Reading skills
B.Computer skills
C.Physical fitness
D.Mathematical skills
A.Reading skills
3.Driver/operators must have basic computer skills in order to: (81)
A.complete maintenance forms.
B.solve mathematical equations.
C.comprehend fire service manuals and periodicals.
D.access and operate online mapping software and dispatch instructions.
D.access and operate online mapping software and dispatch instructions.
4.Which skill or ability is needed to connect an intake hose to a hydrant? (82)
A.Visual acuity
B.Reading skills
C.Physical fitness
D.Adequate hearing
C.Physical fitness
5.What agency in the United States establishes basic requirements for licensing a driver? (82)
A.National Fire Academy (NFA)
B.Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
C.Federal Department of Transportation (DOT)
D.Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
C.Federal Department of Transportation (DOT)
6.Which statement about states/provinces and driver/operator regulations is MOST accurate? (83)
A.States or provinces must vote to change federal regulations.
B.State or province requirements must be similar within regions.
C.States or provinces cannot alter basic federal requirements.
D.States or provinces have latitude to alter federal requirements as necessary.
D.States or provinces have latitude to alter federal requirements as necessary.
7.Driver/operators are subject to any statute, rule, regulation, or ordinance that governs any other vehicle operator: (83)
A.unless specifically exempt.
B.and no exemptions can be made.
C.for the first year of employment as a driver/operator.
D.for the first two years of employment as a driver/operator.
A.unless specifically exempt.
8.Which would MOST likely be exempt when emergency vehicles have their audible and visual warning lights on? (84)
A.Speed limits
B.Use of seat belts
C.Use of turn signals
D.Yielding to pedestrians
A.Speed limits
9.Which statement about the driver/operator and organization in civil or criminal cases is MOST accurate? (84)
A.Only the organization can be held responsible.
B.Only the driver/operator can be held responsible.
C.Neither the driver/operator nor organization can be held responsible.
D.Both the driver/operator and organization can be held responsible.
D.Both the driver/operator and organization can be held responsible.
10.Which of the following is the most common place for accidents to occur? (85)
A.Parking lots
B.Intersections
C.Undivided highways
D.Bridges or overpasses
B.Intersections
11.What generally accounts for a significant percentage of all damage repair costs for a fire department? (86)
A.Parking accidents
B.Backing accidents
C.Dumping operations
D.Maintenance mishaps
B.Backing accidents
12.Which action would MOST likely be considered reckless when driving an apparatus? (86)
A.Driving while talking to a passenger
B.Using both visual and auditory warnings
C.Taking short cuts to the emergency incident scene
D.Failing to yield to other responding emergency vehicles
D.Failing to yield to other responding emergency vehicles
- Which statement about excessive speed and braking is MOST accurate? (87)
A.Excessive speed affects reaction time, not braking.
B.Excessive speed can cause difficulties when braking.
C.Excessive speed is dangerous but has no effect on braking.
D.Excessive speed affects braking only when brakes are pumped.
B.Excessive speed can cause difficulties when braking.
14.What must driver/operators complete before being allowed to drive under emergency conditions? (87)
A.A thorough training program
B.A six-month observation period
C.A twelve-month observation period
D.A commercial emergency apparatus certificate
A.A thorough training program
15.Because apparatus of similar function and manufacturer may handle differently or have differing controls, driver/operators must be: (87)
A.assigned to only one apparatus.
B.assigned no more than two apparatus.
C.trained or qualified to drive all assigned vehicles.
D.trained or qualified on apparatus with the most features.
C.trained or qualified to drive all assigned vehicles.
16.What is the primary reason for daily pretrip inspections? (89)
A.Minimize mechanical failure
B.Justify additional shift hours
C.Keep warranties from lapsing
D.Maintain discipline in the department
A.Minimize mechanical failure
17.Which apparatus are MOST likely to have design problems? (89)
A.Apparatus built before 2002
B.Apparatus designs that have been discontinued
C.Apparatus built by smaller commercial companies
D.Apparatus built on government surplus or other used vehicle chassis
D.Apparatus built on government surplus or other used vehicle chassis
18.Who should advise a driver/operator who may be mentally or physically impaired to seek appropriate assistance? (89)
A.Any firefighter
B.Shift supervisor
C.Union representative
D.Human resources personnel
A.Any firefighter
19.In most fire departments, it is standard operating procedure (SOP) for firefighters to don protective gear: (90)
A.after getting into apparatus.
B.before getting into apparatus.
C.after initial incident survey has occurred.
D.after arrival at the site of the emergency.
B.before getting into apparatus.
20.What must all riders be doing, in addition to being seated within the cab or body, before the apparatus is put into motion? (90)
A.Wearing helmets
B.Wearing seat belts
C.Wearing universal precaution equipment
D.Carrying extra personal protective clothing
B.Wearing seat belts
21.When loading fire hose while driving the apparatus, the safety observer to the operation: (91)
A.can be the driver/operator.
B.must be the first firefighter loading hose.
C.can be any member of the hose loading team.
D.must be a member, other than driver/operator and the firefighters loading the hose.
D.must be a member, other than driver/operator and the firefighters loading the hose.
22.What is a guideline for loading hose while driving an apparatus? (91)
A.Drive apparatus only in a forward direction.
B.Drive apparatus only forward or backward; do not turn.
C.Put out caution cones for other traffic driving in the area.
D.Members may stand on apparatus only to reposition themselves.
A.Drive apparatus only in a forward direction.
23.Which is a guideline for apparatus rider safety? (92)
A.Firefighters riding in jump seats must wear reflective vests.
B.Every firefighter riding on the apparatus must have an individual radio.
C.Stop any operation involving apparatus every 15 minutes for a safety check.
D.Never allow firefighters to ride on the tailboard, front bumper, or running boards of any moving apparatus.
D.Never allow firefighters to ride on the tailboard, front bumper, or running boards of any moving apparatus.
24.Which statement about training for tiller operations is MOST correct? (93)
A.The tiller instructor must train operators remotely.
B.The tiller instructor can stand beside the operator.
C.A detachable seat may be placed next to tiller operator’s position.
D.A built-in harness may be placed next to the tiller operator’s position.
C.A detachable seat may be placed next to tiller operator’s position.
25.When preparing to start the apparatus, whether for emergency response or a routine trip, the driver/operator must first know the destination and: (94)
A.route of travel.
B.number of victims.
C.travel time to incident.
D.parking options at the incident.
A.route of travel.
26.Why should diesel engines NOT be idled unnecessarily? (94)
A.May interfere with communications systems
B.May cause hearing damage to those in the cab
C.May cause damage to internal engine components and emission systems
D.May cause the electrical system components to turn on and off intermittently
C.May cause damage to internal engine components and emission systems
27.On apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF), which of the following lights up when the exhaust system is very hot, usually due to an active regeneration in process? (94)
A.DPF indicator
B.Regeneration inhibit switch
C.Manual regeneration switch
D.High Exhaust System Temperature indicator
D.High Exhaust System Temperature indicator
28.On apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF), which of the following lights up to indicate that the DPF is loading up with soot? (94)
A.DPF indicator
B.Regeneration Inhibit Switch
C.Manual Regeneration Switch
D.High Exhaust System Temperature indicator
A.DPF indicator
29.Apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF) will have: (95)
A.very clean exhaust emissions and no black smoke.
B.the same exhaust emissions as all other apparatus.
C.exhaust emissions 25% cleaner than most apparatus.
D.exhaust emissions 30% cleaner than most apparatus.
A.very clean exhaust emissions and no black smoke.
30.An apparatus equipped with Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR) will have a tank in addition to a fuel tank that must be filled with Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) and the DEF tank should be: (95)
A.topped off every time the apparatus is fueled.
B.topped off every other time the apparatus is fueled.
C.filled every time the apparatus undergoes a weekly inspection.
D.filled every time the apparatus undergoes a monthly inspection.
A.topped off every time the apparatus is fueled.
31.Which statement about shutting down a hot engine is MOST accurate? (95)
A.Hot engines should immediately be shut down.
B.Allow the engine to idle for one minute before shutting down.
C.Usually an idling time of three to five minutes is sufficient before shutting down.
D.Allow the engine to idle for ten to fifteen minutes before shutting down.
C.Usually an idling time of three to five minutes is sufficient before shutting down.
32.When should the mirrors be adjusted on an apparatus? (96)
A.During weekly inspections
B.During monthly inspections
C.Whenever it changes from day to night
D.Any time driving responsibility changes from one individual to another
D.Any time driving responsibility changes from one individual to another
33.On an aerial apparatus, what refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus? (97)
A.Breakover angle
B.Angle of approach
C.Angle of departure
D.Angle of culmination
B.Angle of approach
34.On an aerial apparatus, what refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at wheelbase midpoint? (97)
A.Breakover angle
B.Angle of approach
C.Angle of departure
D.Angle of culmination
A.Breakover angle
35.Weight carried on most apparatus can contribute to: (98)
A.problems with the apparatus brakes.
B.skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer.
C.increased road traction, causing decreased ability for speed.
D.inability of the apparatus to navigate normal road conditions.
B.skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer.
36.What is a guideline for keeping weight transfer to a minimum? (98)
A.Speed should be ten miles below posted limits.
B.Speed should be intermittently slow and then fast.
C.Steering should be accomplished in a series of quick motions.
D.Steering should be accomplished in a smooth and fluid motion.
D.Steering should be accomplished in a smooth and fluid motion.
37.What can cause poor traction? (98)
A.Under-loaded front axles
B.Too little weight on driving axles
C.Too much weight on steering axle
D.Either too much or too little weight on steering axles
B.Too little weight on driving axles
38.Apparatus should be weighed after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that axle loading is balanced: (98)
A.within 2 percent from side to side.
B.within 7 percent from side to side.
C.within 15 percent from side to side.
D.within 21 percent from side to side.
B.within 7 percent from side to side.
39.When driving downhill, which of the following should be done to prevent engine damage? (98)
A.Allow the vehicle to coast out of gear downhill.
B.Limit downhill speed to lower than minimum rpm.
C.Limit downhill speed to lower than maximum rpm.
D.Stop apparatus frequently to avoid speed buildup.
C.Limit downhill speed to lower than maximum rpm.
40.NFPA® 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, requires a placard in every apparatus, listing: (99)
A.vehicle height and weight in feet and tons.
B.the year apparatus was initially put into service.
C.vehicle width and the distance from undercarriage to roadway.
D.maximum allowed combined passenger and equipment weight.
A.vehicle height and weight in feet and to
41.In order for apparatus to come to a complete stop on snow and ice, it may take: (99)
A.15% more distance than it does on dry pavement.
B.25% more distance than it does on dry pavement.
C.3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
D.6 to 25 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
C.3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
42.In most jurisdictions, when civilian drivers encounter emergency vehicles responding with warning lights activated and audible devices sounding, they must: (100)
A.continue driving, but at much reduced speeds.
B.continue driving as normal so as not to disrupt traffic.
C.pull to the left, stop, continue through intersections, and remain motionless.
D.pull to the right, stop, clear intersections, and remain motionless.
D.pull to the right, stop, clear intersections, and remain motionless.
43.Which statement about warning devices is MOST accurate? (100)
A.Visual warning devices should be used before audible devices.
B.Audible warning devices should be used before visible devices.
C.Warning devices should be used whenever fire apparatus are on streets.
D.Use of warning devices should be limited to response to true emergencies.
D.Use of warning devices should be limited to response to true emergencies.
44.When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel: (101)
A.at least 50 to 150 feet (15 to 45 m) apart.
B.at least 100 to 300 feet (30 to 90 m) apart.
C.at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150 m) apart.
D.at least 700 to 900 feet (210 to 270 m) apart.
C.at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150 m) apart.
45.At intersections with a red light, apparatus should: (101)
A.slow down and then proceed.
B.sound the horn and then proceed.
C.drive through as quickly as possible.
D.be brought to a complete stop before proceeding.
D.be brought to a complete stop before proceeding.
46.When responding to emergencies, apparatus should: (101)
A.leave headlights off unless it is night time.
B.flash headlights as the apparatus is moving.
C.drive with high beam headlights on constantly.
D.turn on headlights as part of the emergency response
D.turn on headlights as part of the emergency response
47.When traffic lights along routes heavily used by fire apparatus are controlled, signals should be controlled by a dispatcher, from the fire station, or by: (102)
A.police units.
B.utility personnel.
C.remote control on apparatus.
D.remote control carried by shift supervisor.
C.remote control on apparatus.
48.When strobe lights (emitters) mounted on apparatus are used to activate sensors in traffic lights, the signal: (102)
A.causes a red light in all directions.
B.causes either a red or green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel.
C.causes a red light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a green light in all other directions.
D.causes a green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a red light in all other directions.
D.causes a green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a red light in all other directions.
49.What transmits data to a radio receiver on a traffic light in order to preempt a signal at the intersection and will operate automatically as long as the apparatus is in range and the transmitter is turned on? (103)
A.Traffic Signals at Stations
B.Voice-Activated Preemption Devices
C.GPS Based Traffic Signal Preemption
D.Strobe Light Activated Preemption Devices
C.GPS Based Traffic Signal Preemption
50.How do drivers establish visual lead time? (105)
A.By dividing speed by travel distance
B.By counting the seconds it takes to travel between landmarks
C.By scanning the path of travel far enough ahead based upon their speed
D.By watching the vehicle directly in front of the apparatus and estimating stop time
C.By scanning the path of travel far enough ahead based upon their speed
51.Which term refers to the distance that the vehicle travels from the time brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop? (105)
A.Braking distance
B.Reaction distance
C.Total stopping distance
D.Complete stopping distance
A.Braking distance
52.After the driver/operator perceives the need to stop the vehicle, the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal is: (105)
A.braking distance.
B.reaction distance.
C.total stopping distance.
D.complete stopping distance.
B.reaction distance.
53.To maintain control when in an acceleration skid, the driver/operator should not apply brakes, but should instead ease off the accelerator, and: (108)
A.then apply the brakes forcefully.
B.straighten out the front wheels as vehicle begins to respond.
C.turn the front wheels in the same direction as the skid.
D.turn the front wheels in the opposite direction from the skid.
B.straighten out the front wheels as vehicle begins to respond.
54.What is the MOST likely reason for a locked wheel skid? (108)
A.Braking too hard at high speed
B.Braking intermittently at low speed
C.Braking while turning the wheels more than twenty degrees
D.Braking while turning the wheels more than forty-five degrees
A.Braking too hard at high speed
55.While driving a vehicle equipped with anti-lock brakes: (109)
A.push the pedal to the floor.
B.intermittently pump the pedal and apply pressure.
C.pump the pedal repeatedly until apparatus comes to a complete stop.
D.maintain a steady pressure on the brake pedal until apparatus comes to a complete stop.
D.maintain a steady pressure on the brake pedal until apparatus comes to a complete stop.
56.Which auxiliary brake device uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates back pressure that adds to the engine’s inherent braking ability? (110)
A.Exhaust brake
B.Electromagnetic retarder
C.Engine compression brake
D.Transmission output retarder
A.Exhaust brake
57.What automatically reduces engine torque and applies brakes to wheels that have lost traction and have begun to spin? (111)
A.Antilock braking system (ABS)
B.Automatic traction control (ATC)
C.Inclement weather control (IWC)
D.Secondary braking control system (SBC)
B.Automatic traction control (ATC)
58.What is the purpose of the Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)? (111)
A.Improve traction and handling
B.Decrease time for total stopping
C.Increase the amount of weight carried
D.Improve visual lead time of the driver/operator
A.Improve traction and handling
59.Which stability control system becomes active when the antilock braking system computer senses an imminent roll over condition? (112)
A.Roll stability control
B.Electronic stability control
C.Axle differential stability control
D.Automatic sensor stability control
A.Roll stability control
60.Which stability control system applies brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction the operator positions the steering wheel? (112)
A.Roll stability control
B.Electronic stability control
C.Axle differential stability control
D.Automatic sensor stability control
B.Electronic stability control
61.Which action is recommended by IFSTA when backing apparatus? (113)
A.Use one or more spotters.
B.Use radios or hand signals, but not both.
C.Back the apparatus as quickly as possible.
D.Avoid using the backup camera at incidents.
A.Use one or more spotters.
62.Which is a guideline IFSTA recommends when backing apparatus? (113)
A.Sound horn in a series with as many blasts as possible in thirty seconds
B.Sound one long blast of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus
C.Sound two short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus
D.Sound four short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus
C.Sound two short blasts of vehicle’s horn immediately before backing apparatus
63.What should firefighters be wearing when performing spotting duties? (114)
A.Reflective vests
B.Standard turnout clothing
C.International orange jumpsuits
D.Standard station wear clothing
A.Reflective vests
64.What should the driver/operator do if he or she loses sight of the spotter during backing? (114)
A.Stop and set the parking brake.
B.Continue backing the apparatus slowly.
C.Sound the horn twice then continue backing.
D.Call for additional spotters for the backing operation.
A.Stop and set the parking brake.
65.When giving hand signals for backing apparatus, hand signals should be: (115)
A.repeated twice.
B.repeated three times.
C.done in a fast, exaggerated motion.
D.done in a slow, exaggerated motion.
D.done in a slow, exaggerated motion.
66.When giving a hand signal and the spotter crosses both forearms into a large X, this means: (116)
A.stop the apparatus.
B.continue backing slowly.
C.slow down the apparatus.
D.pull forward and reestablish backing.
A.stop the apparatus.
67.Tiller operators must be particularly aware of: (117)
A.poor gas mileage.
B.proper overhead clearance.
C.excessive wear on apparatus tires.
D.improper storage of items on apparatus.
B.proper overhead clearance.
68.What is a factor in tiller operation that officers and instructors should stress in training? (117)
A.Overcorrecting rather than undercorrecting
B.Keeping only one hand on the wheel at all times
C.Focusing on overhead obstructions rather than side and rear obstructions
D.Bringing the trailer quickly into line again as soon as a turn is completed
D.Bringing the trailer quickly into line again as soon as a turn is completed
69.Driver/operator candidates should be evaluated: (118)
A.using only one method.
B.by multiple departments to ensure objectivity.
C.before being allowed to operate apparatus under emergency conditions.
D.after being given the opportunity to operate apparatus under emergency conditions.
C.before being allowed to operate apparatus under emergency conditions.
70.Which statement about the written test for driver/operators is MOST accurate? (118)
A.Written tests must have a computer option.
B.Written tests must always be closed book tests.
C.The style of questions may vary according to local needs.
D.Questions used in the test must be verified by an independent agency.
C.The style of questions may vary according to local needs.
71.Driver/operators must perform practical driving exercises: (118)
A.by driving at least two different apparatus.
B.with the most common apparatus in the department.
C.with each type of apparatus they are expected to drive.
D.by driving one apparatus they are familiar with and one they are not familiar with.
C.with each type of apparatus they are expected to drive.
72.Which is a guideline when working on, around, or under apparatus? (119)
A.Always carry a hand-held radio.
B.Always have a second person present.
C.Always let at least one person know where you are.
D.Work on apparatus only when maintenance personnel are present.
B.Always have a second person present.
73.Before placing apparatus in motion, the driver/operator should ensure any hose carried on apparatus: (120)
A.will not come loose during travel.
B.are tied down in at least two different places.
C.are tied down in at least five different places.
D.take up a minimum of 60% of the apparatus storage space.
A.will not come loose during travel.
74.Any equipment not needed while driving to the scene must be: (120)
A.placed underneath the seats or to the side of the seats.
B.secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet.
C.placed in storage compartments on the outside of the apparatus.
D.held in place by rope, webbing, or another secure means.
B.secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet.
75.Why should firefighters open the bleeder valve or drain valve between the control valve and cap? (122)
A.To prevent loss of water pressure
B.To ensure tasks are done in order
C.To ensure any trapped pressure is released
D.To prevent valves from threading incorrectly
C.To ensure any trapped pressure is released
1.In the United States, basic requirements for licensing a driver are established by the: (82)
A.Bureau of Highways.
B.Department of Transportation.
C.Federal Emergency Management Agency.
D.Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
B.Department of Transportation.
2.When driving fire department apparatus, driver/operators are: (83)
A.subject to city, but not state, traffic regulations.
B.subject to federal, but not local, traffic regulations.
C.subject to all traffic regulations under nonemergency conditions.
D.exempt from all driving regulations whether emergency or nonemergency conditions.
C.subject to all traffic regulations under nonemergency conditions.
3.The most common place for a vehicle collision to occur is: (85)
A.at an intersection.
B.on a two-lane highway.
C.in unattended parking garages.
D.on ramps on major interstates.
A.at an intersection.
4.Which statement about mechanical failure during travel is MOST accurate? (89)
A.It may be an immediate occurrence and give no warning.
B.Some type of warning will always accompany a mechanical failure.
C.Driver/operators have typically 3-5 minutes notice for mechanical failures.
D.Mechanical failure is so rare that it is not a concern for driver/operators of modern apparatus.
A.It may be an immediate occurrence and give no warning.
5.Before the apparatus is put into motion, all riders must be seated within the cab or body and: (90)
A.wearing their seat belts.
B.wearing hearing protection.
C.must have checked in with the accountability officer.
D.must be carrying a hand-held radio and back-up SCBA.
A.wearing their seat belts.
6.Which statement about a diesel particulate filter (DPF) is MOST accurate? (95)
A.A DPF system is found only on apparatus manufactured before 2000.
B.A DPF allows larger particulates to stream through the exhaust system.
C.A DPF collects particulates from the exhaust stream and burns them more completely.
D.Apparatus equipped with a DPF system emit more black smoke than older diesel engines.
C.A DPF collects particulates from the exhaust stream and burns them more completely.
7.What is MOST likely a concern for weight transfer when driving an apparatus? (98)
A.Passengers not distributing weight
B.Wind gusts that can cause apparatus to tilt to one side
C.Water tanks improperly baffled and partially filled with liquid
D.Additional materials such as cribbing and shoring materials that add weight
C.Water tanks improperly baffled and partially filled with liquid
8.What can make steering axle weight too light to steer safely? (98)
A.Over-loaded front axles
B.Under-loaded front axles
C.Adequate weight distribution
D.Too little weight on driving axles
B.Under-loaded front axles
9.When determining a route to take, driver/operators should plot routes that avoid: (99)
A.low overpasses.
B.four-way intersections.
C.cloverleaf interchanges.
D.residential housing areas.
A.low overpasses.
10.Which area is likely to become slippery MORE easily? (99)
A.Bridges
B.Parking lots
C.Intersections
D.Major streets
A.Bridges
11.When in an acceleration skid, the driver/operator should: (108)
A.apply brakes intermittently and turn away from the skid.
B.apply brakes as quickly as possible and turn wheels into the skid.
C.slowly push down on the accelerator to allow the vehicle to come out of the skid.
D.not apply brakes, ease off accelerator, and straighten out front wheels as vehicle begins to respond.
D.not apply brakes, ease off accelerator, and straighten out front wheels as vehicle begins to respond.
12.Which is a hand signal for stopping? (116)
A.Cross both forearms into a large X
B.Hold both arms vertically over the head
C.Hold both arms horizontally out to the side
D.Have hands in a fist, waving in front of the chest
A.Cross both forearms into a large X
13.Tiller operators must be particularly aware of: (117)
A.undercorrecting.
B.keeping the trailer in a turn.
C.keeping one hand on the wheel and one on the radio.
D.the distance of the trailer from the base of the building.
D.the distance of the trailer from the base of the building.
14.Which statement about road tests is MOST accurate? (119)
A.Road tests must be simulated for all weather conditions.
B.Road tests can be completed by using a virtual simulation program.
C.All jurisdictions within a particular state must have the same road test.
D.Local jurisdictions may develop a road test route that will traverse any conditions particular to the area.
D.Local jurisdictions may develop a road test route that will traverse any conditions particular to the area.
15.Which statement about operating on top of apparatus is MOST accurate? (119)
A.Always have a second person present.
B.Wear a minimum of PPE for freedom of movement.
C.Leave all apparatus doors open when working on top.
D.Always kneel or crawl when working on top of apparatus.
A.Always have a second person present.
16.Which statement about hydraulic fluids is MOST accurate? (121)
A.Hydraulic fluids are dangerous only when hot.
B.All hydraulic fluids pose little known risk to humans.
C.Some hydraulic fluids are known to be toxic to human tissue.
D.Synthetic hydraulic fluids are much more toxic to human tissue.
C.Some hydraulic fluids are known to be toxic to human tissue.
17.In most jurisdictions, what should civilian drivers do when they encounter emergency vehicles responding with warning lights activated and audible devices sounding? (100)
• Pull to the right
• Stop
• Clear intersections
• Remain motionless
18.What are three factors, other than braking distance and reaction distance, that affect the driver/operator’s ability to stop the apparatus? (105)
• Road conditions (wet, dry, snow, ice) and slope of driving surface
• Speed of apparatus
• Weight of the vehicle
• Type and condition of vehicle’s tires and braking system
