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DE STUDY > Chapter 15 > Flashcards

Chapter 15 Flashcards

1
Q

1.​Which standard is commonly used as a basis for most apparatus bid specifications? (516)
​A.​NFPA® 1500
​B.​NFPA® 1521
​C.​NFPA® 1901
​D.​NFPA® 1931

A

​C.​NFPA® 1901

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2
Q

2.​When road tests are conducted as part of manufacturers’ testing, what type of conditions should be present? (516)
​A.​Flat, dry, paved roads in good condition
​B.​Flat, dry, unpaved roads in good condition
​C.​Both flat and hilly roads, regardless of condition
​D.​A mixture of paved and unpaved roads in good condition

A

​A.​Flat, dry, paved roads in good condition

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3
Q

3.​If a jurisdiction seeks special requirements from the manufacturer to ensure that the apparatus will perform as required under local conditions, they may be written into the bid specifications as: (516)
​A.​recommendations.
​B.​policies and procedures.
​C.​engineering specifications.
​D.​performance requirements.

A

​D.​performance requirements.

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4
Q

4.​What is MOST likely to happen if an apparatus fails to comply with bid specifications? (517)
​A.​The apparatus will be rejected by the purchaser.
​B.​The manufacturer will offer the apparatus at a reduced price.
​C.​All apparatus-mounted equipment will be replaced before retesting.
​D.​The failure will be documented and the apparatus will be placed into service.

A

​A.​The apparatus will be rejected by the purchaser.

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5
Q

5.​What is the maximum speed that must be reached by apparatus during road tests? (516)
​A.​40 mph (65 km/h)
​B.​50 mph (80 km/h)
​C.​60 mph (95 km/h)
​D.​70 mph (110 km/h)

A

B.​50 mph (80 km/h)

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6
Q

6.​Which test is performed to ensure that the pumps and associated piping are capable of withstanding high pressure pumping demands? (517)
​A.​Hydrostatic testing
​B.​Hydrophobic testing
​C.​Pumping output testing
​D.​Pumping overload testing

A

​A.​Hydrostatic testing

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7
Q

7.​Who is in charge of performing pump certification tests? (517)
​A.​Driver/operators
​B.​Apparatus mechanics
​C.​Manufacturer representatives
​D.​Independent testing organizations

A

​D.​Independent testing organizations

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8
Q

8.​The engine speed interlock test is part of which category of preperformance tests? (517)
​A.​Acceptance tests
​B.​Manufacturers’ tests
​C.​Pump certification tests
​D.​Engineering system tests

A

​C.​Pump certification tests

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9
Q

9.​What is the purpose of acceptance testing? (517)
​A.​To ensure that driver/operators are well qualified to operate all onboard apparatus equipment​
​B.​To demonstrate to the purchaser that the apparatus conforms to all bid specifications at the time of delivery
​C.​To ensure that pumps and associated piping are capable of withstanding high pressure pumping demands
​D.​To allow purchasers to test multiple apparatus models and accept the model that best suits their jurisdictional needs

A

​B.​To demonstrate to the purchaser that the apparatus conforms to all bid specifications at the time of delivery

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10
Q

10.​Pump testing should be performed: (517)
​A.​only during acceptance testing.
​B.​only during certification testing.
​C.​both certification tests and road tests.
​D.​both acceptance tests and certification tests.

A

​D.​both acceptance tests and certification tests.

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11
Q

11.​Which test is more important for jurisdictions located at least 2,000 ft (600 m) above sea level? (518)
​A.​Onboard tank capacity test
​B.​Onboard tank overload test
​C.​Priming system overload test
​D.​Pumping engine overload test

A

​D.​Pumping engine overload test

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12
Q

12.​In addition to yearly testing as required by NFPA® 1911, when should pumper performance be tested? (518)
​A.​After any major incident involving multiple jurisdictions
​B.​Whenever an oil change or other routine maintenance is done
​C.​If the apparatus operates during extreme temperature conditions
​D.​Whenever the apparatus has undergone major pump or powertrain repair

A

​D.​Whenever the apparatus has undergone major pump or powertrain repair

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13
Q

13.​Which test is included in the minimum requirements of NFPA® 1901 for apparatus performance testing? (518)
​A.​Overload test
​B.​Overdrive test
​C.​Hydrostatic test
​D.​Primer control test

A

​A.​Overload test

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14
Q

14.​When conducting pump performance tests using a static water source, how deep must the water be? (518)
​A.​4 ft (1.2 m)
​B.​6 ft (1.8 m)
​C.​8 ft (2.4 m)
​D.​10 ft (3.0 m)

A

​A.​4 ft (1.2 m)

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15
Q

15.​When conducting pumper performance testing, the air temperature should always be above: (518)
​A.​0°F (-18°C).
​B.​10°F (-12°C).
​C.​25°F (-4°C).
​D.​32°F (0°C).

A

​A.​0°F (-18°C).

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16
Q

16.​Which factor would be MOST important to consider when correcting net pump discharge pressure for apparatus testing? (519)
​A.​Pump capacity
​B.​Age of the apparatus
​C.​Diameter of the intake hose
​D.​Friction loss in the intake hose

A

​D.​Friction loss in the intake hose

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17
Q

17.​According to NFPA® 1911, all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within _____ of testing. (521)
​A.​30 days
​B.​60 days
​C.​6 months
​D.​12 months

A

​B.​60 days

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18
Q

18.​A pitot tube is required if a ___ is not used during performance testing. (522)
​A.​flowmeter
​B.​stop watch
​C.​pitot clamp
​D.​gauge stand

A

A.​flowmeter

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19
Q

19.​If a flowmeter is used during performance testing, what piece of equipment may be used in place of smooth bore nozzles? (522)
​A.​Fog nozzles
​B.​Any handline nozzle
​C.​Master stream nozzles
​D.​Air aspirating foam nozzles

A

​A.​Fog nozzles

20
Q

20.​A flowmeter might be used instead of a pitot gauge during a pump performance test, because flowmeters are: (522)
​A.​more efficient.
​B.​more accurate.
​C.​less expensive.
​D.​easier to operate.

A

​A.​more efficient.

21
Q

21.​During service testing, personnel should operate the engine throttle slowly in order to help prevent which potentially dangerous situation from occurring? (523)
​A.​Sudden speed changes
​B.​Gradual speed changes
​C.​Sudden pressure changes
​D.​Gradual pressure changes

A

​D.​Gradual pressure changes

22
Q

22.​Which dangerous substance should be monitored for during service testing? (523)
​A.​Sulfur dioxide
​B.​Carbon dioxide
​C.​Hydrogen sulfide
​D.​Carbon monoxide

A

​D.​Carbon monoxide

23
Q

23.​What piece of equipment is used to determine engine speed during performance testing? (523)
​A.​Flow meter
​B.​Pitot gauge
​C.​Tachometer
​D.​Speedometer

A

C.​Tachometer

24
Q

24.​Which pieces of equipment are evaluated for air leaks using a vacuum test? (523)
​A.​Priming device, pump, and intake hose
​B.​Priming device, pump, and output hose
​C.​Onboard water tank seals and intake hose
​D.​Onboard water tank seals and priming device

A

A.​Priming device, pump, and intake hose

25
Q

25.​What should be done if the pump fails to reach 22 inches of mercury (-75 kPa) during the vacuum test? (523)
​A.​Immediately retest the apparatus a second time.
​B.​Document the test results and retest within two weeks.
​C.​Immediately contact the manufacturer’s representative.
​D.​Remove the apparatus from service until repairs can be made.

A

​D.​Remove the apparatus from service until repairs can be made.

26
Q

26.​For a pumper with a 1,250 gpm (5 000 L/min) capacity, how quickly must it achieve prime during the priming system performance test? (524)
​A.​15 seconds or less
​B.​30 seconds or less
​C.​1 minute or less
​D.​2 minutes or less

A

​B.​30 seconds or less

27
Q

27.​Which test is performed in a three-part sequence and may be completed while the pump is still set up after the pumping test? (525)
​A.​Priming system test
​B.​Pressure control test
​C.​Tank-to-pump flow test
​D.​Flowmeter operational test

A

​B.​Pressure control test

28
Q

28.​When conducting discharge pressure gauge and flowmeter operational tests, a difference in readings between the flowmeter and pitot gauge must not be more than: (525)
​A.​10 percent.
​B.​20 percent.
​C.​30 percent.
​D.​40 percent.

A

​A.​10 percent.

29
Q

29.​Which test verifies that the piping between the onboard tank and pump is sufficient to supply the minimum amount of water as specified by NFPA® 1901 and the design of the manufacturer? (525)
​A.​Priming system test
​B.​Pressure control test
​C.​Tank-to-pump flow test
​D.​Discharge pressure gauge test

A

​C.​Tank-to-pump flow test

30
Q

30.​During the tank-to-pump flow test, pumpers with an onboard capacity of greater than 500 gallons (2 000 L) must be capable of flowing at least: (526)
​A.​100 gpm (400 L/min).
​B.​200 gpm (800 L/min).
​C.​300 gpm (1 200 L/min).
​D.​500 gpm (2 000 L/min).

A

​D.​500 gpm (2 000 L/min).

31
Q

31.​Which apparatus performance tests require that a discharge hoseline from a second pumper be connected to the apparatus being tested? (526)
​A.​Priming system test
​B.​Tank-to-pump flow test
​C.​Internal intake pressure relief valve test
​D.​Discharge pressure gauge and flowmeter operational tests

A

​C.​Internal intake pressure relief valve test

32
Q

32.​When completing performance testing, what is MOST likely to happen if an apparatus achieves results of less than 90 percent of its originally rated capabilities? (526)
​A.​It will be placed out of service and restored to its original capabilities.
​B.​It will be documented as out of service but kept for training purposes.
​C.​It will be given a higher rating based on the results of the most recent testing.
​D.​It will be permanently placed out of service and replaced with a new apparatus.

A

​A.​It will be placed out of service and restored to its original capabilities.

33
Q

33.​Foam proportioning equipment testing should occur before being placed in service and: (527)
​A.​after each use.
​B.​periodically thereafter.
​C.​only if the foam seems ineffective.
​D.​when the type of foam is changed.

A

​B.​periodically thereafter.

34
Q

34.​Which foam proportioner test checks the volume of foam concentrate that is drawn through the system? (527)
​A.​Foam solution refractivity test
​B.​Foam solution conductivity test
​C.​Foam concentrate displacement method
​D.​Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

A

​C.​Foam concentrate displacement method

35
Q

35.​Which foam proportioner test discharges foam at a predetermined flow into a calibrated tank for a specific period of time? (528)
​A.​Foam solution refractivity test
​B.​Foam solution conductivity test
​C.​Foam concentrate displacement method
​D.​Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

A

​D.​Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

36
Q

36.​Which foam proportioner test measures the velocity of light that travels through foam and compares it to a base reading? (528)
​A.​Foam solution refractivity test
​B.​Foam solution conductivity test
​C.​Foam concentrate displacement method
​D.​Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

A

​A.​Foam solution refractivity test

37
Q

37.​Which foam proportioner test verifies the ability of the foam product to conduct electricity? (529)
​A.​Foam solution refractivity test
​B.​Foam solution conductivity test
​C.​Foam concentrate displacement method
​D.​Foam concentrate pump discharge method

A

​B.​Foam solution conductivity test

38
Q

1.​Which category of preperformance tests are fire department personnel MOST likely to be involved in? (516)
​A.​Design tests
​B.​Acceptance tests
​C.​Certification tests
​D.​Manufacturers’ tests

A

​B.​Acceptance tests

39
Q

2.​What two tests are MOST likely to be included in manufacturer’s tests? (516)
​A.​Road test and hydrostatic test
​B.​Hydrostatic test and vacuum test
​C.​Engine speed check and vacuum test
​D.​Road test and engine speed interlock test

A

​A.​Road test and hydrostatic test

40
Q

3.​When is pump certification testing conducted? (517)
​A.​After one year of continuous service
​B.​Before final acceptance of the vehicle
​C.​After six months of continuous service
​D.​Directly after delivery to the purchaser

A

​B.​Before final acceptance of the vehicle

41
Q

4.​Which kind of test is conducted to demonstrate to the purchaser that the apparatus conforms to all bid specifications at the time of delivery? (517)
​A.​Acceptance testing
​B.​Finalization testing
​C.​Certification testing
​D.​Manufacturers’ testing

A

​A.​Acceptance testing

42
Q

5.​According to NFPA® 1911, how often should a pumper be performance tested? (518)
​A.​At least once a month
​B.​At least once a year
​C.​Every two years
​D.​Every five years

A

​B.​At least once a year

43
Q

6.​Which formula would be used when correcting net pump discharge? (521)
​A.​Pressure correction formula
​B.​Discharge pressure loss formula
​C.​Intake hose friction loss formula
​D.​Conductivity comparison formula

A

​A.​Pressure correction formula

44
Q

7.​The engine speed check should be conducted under what type of conditions? (523)
​A.​No-load
​B.​Uneven terrain
​C.​Maximum load
​D.​Inclement weather

A

​A.​No-load

45
Q

8.​Which performance test evaluates the overall operation of the engine and the fire pump? (524)
​A.​Pumping test
​B.​Priming system test
​C.​Pressure control test
​D.​Tank-to-pump flow test

A

​A.​Pumping test

46
Q

9.​Which method tests the calibration accuracy of a foam proportioning system? (527)
​A.​Foam solution displacement method
​B.​Foam concentrate displacement method
​C.​Foam solution discharge volume method
​D.​Foam concentrate measurement method

A

​B.​Foam concentrate displacement method

DE STUDY (22 decks)

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