Chapter 19 Flashcards

1
Q

1.​When climbing or riding on an aerial device, it is essential that: (676)
​A.​firefighters maintain four points of contact.
​B.​operations are always conducted above grade.
​C.​fall protection equipment be available for personnel.
​D.​firefighters climb the device or ride in the platform one at a time.

A

​C.​fall protection equipment be available for personnel.

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2
Q

2.​Which component provides fall protection for aerial ladder devices? (676)
​A.​Handrails
​B.​Device wiring
​C.​Railings and gates
​D.​Detachable waterways

A

​A.​Handrails

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3
Q

3.​Which component provides fall protection for aerial platform devices? (676)
​A.​Handrails
​B.​Device wiring
​C.​Railings and gates
​D.​Detachable waterways

A

​C.​Railings and gates

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4
Q

4.​Which NFPA® standard outlines the requirements for a ladder belt and tether? (676)
​A.​NFPA® 1983
​B.​NFPA® 1901
​C.​NFPA® 1002
​D.​NFPA® 1500

A

​A.​NFPA® 1983

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5
Q

5.​What is a limitation of ladder belts and tethers? (677)
​A.​Most ladder belts and tethers are designed for self-rescue.
​B.​Most ladder belts and tethers are not designed for self-rescue.
​C.​Most ladder belts and tethers can be attached to a feature on the aerial device.
​D.​Most ladder belts and tethers can support the weight of multiple people and equipment.

A

​B.​Most ladder belts and tethers are not designed for self-rescue.

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6
Q

6.​Which statement BEST describes the process of climbing an aerial device? (677)
​A.​Personnel may climb once device is positioned.
​B.​Personnel should climb while positioning the device.
​C.​Personnel should climb to the tip before positioning the device.
​D.​Personnel may climb and/or ride while extending the ladder.

A

​A.​Personnel may climb once device is positioned.

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7
Q

7.​Which is important to maintain when moving the device with people on the ladder? (677)
​A.​Water pressure
​B.​Communication
​C.​Two points of contact
​D.​Contact with device cables

A

​B.​Communication

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8
Q

8.​When dealing with the wire rope for an aerial device, firefighters should always: (678)
​A.​attach safety devices to wire rope.
​B.​handle wire rope with ungloved hands.
​C.​stay clear of wire rope during operation.
​D.​wear loose fitting clothes near wire rope.

A

​C.​stay clear of wire rope during operation.

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9
Q

9.​A driver/operator MUST be well trained in the: (679)
​A.​operation of multiple aerial devices.
​B.​emergency repair of aerial devices.
​C.​function of each control on an aerial device.
​D.​technical configuration of each mechanical operation inside the aerial device.

A

​C.​function of each control on an aerial device.

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10
Q

10.​Which command would MOST likely be used to instruct the driver/operator to rotate the device? (679)
​A.​Raise
​B.​Lower
​C.​Extend
​D.​Rotate clockwise

A

​D.​Rotate clockwise

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11
Q

11.​The driver/operator MUST have skills necessary to: (679)
​A.​plan training evolutions.
​B.​be an Emergency Vehicle Technician.
​C.​solve tactical problems at the incident.
​D.​indicate which firefighting equipment to purchase.

A

​C.​solve tactical problems at the incident.

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12
Q

12.​If visual contact with the aerial device cannot be maintained, then the operator MUST: (679)
​A.​rely on a spotter.
​B.​halt all operations.
​C.​continue operations.
​D.​reposition the apparatus.

A

​A.​rely on a spotter.

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13
Q

13.​Where is the primary control position for the aerial operator? (680)
​A.​At the lower controls
​B.​At the tip or in the platform
​C.​In the cab of the aerial apparatus
​D.​On the middle fly section of the ladder

A

​A.​At the lower controls

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14
Q

14.​A trained and authorized aerial operator MUST staff the _____ any time the aerial is in operation? (680)
​A.​stabilizers
​B.​tip of the device
​C.​primary controls
​D.​pump control panel

A

​C.​primary controls

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15
Q

15.​Where is the secondary control position for the aerial operator? (680)
​A.​At the lower controls
​B.​At the tip or in the platform
​C.​In the cab of the aerial apparatus
​D.​On the middle fly section of the ladder

A

​B.​At the tip or in the platform

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16
Q

16.​What is MOST important for the operator to be aware of when the tip control is used? (680)
​A.​Time of day and day of week
​B.​The number of secondary fire hydrants
​C.​The number of other emergency vehicles
​D.​Electrical hazards and other obstructions

A

​D.​Electrical hazards and other obstructions

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17
Q

17.​What can be studied to help an operator recognize when an aerial operation is nearing a critical condition due to ladder capacity? (682)
​A.​Knuckle
​B.​Load chart
​C.​Hydraulic calculations
​D.​Electrical specification chart

A

​B.​Load chart

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18
Q

18.​Raising the telescoping aerial device means which of the following? (682)
​A.​Extending the fly sections to the desired length
​B.​Rotating the entire assembly from the half-way angle
​C.​Rotating the entire assembly before elevating the platform
​D.​Elevating the entire assembly from its stored position to a desired angle and useful position

A

D.​Elevating the entire assembly from its stored position to a desired angle and useful position

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19
Q

19.​When operating the telescoping aerial device, it is recommended to use one motion at a time unless the situation is critical and: (682-683)
​A.​firefighters are on the ladder.
​B.​a firefighter is in the platform.
​C.​the operator needs to reposition the aerial apparatus.
​D.​the operator is qualified to operate the apparatus in that manner.

A

​D.​the operator is qualified to operate the apparatus in that manner.

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20
Q

20.​All aerial device movements should be slow, smooth, and controlled because of the: (683)
​A.​forces being generated.
​B.​static water pressure build-up.
​C.​likelihood of overheating the engine.
​D.​number of firefighters located inside the building.

A

​A.​forces being generated.

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21
Q

21.​What is the process of operating an aerial device in a slow, smooth, and controlled motion? (683)
​A.​Feathering
​B.​Fine tuning
​C.​Joy sticking
​D.​Ice shrugging

A

​A.​Feathering

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22
Q

22.​Why should full-speed operations be minimized? (683)
​A.​Most manufacturers recommend moving extremely slowly.
​B.​The speed of operations influences the lift span of the aerial telescoping device.
​C.​A large amount of dynamic stress is placed on the aerial device when the motion is halted.
​D.​The number of firefighters riding or climbing on the device can exceed the load chart specification.

A

​C.​A large amount of dynamic stress is placed on the aerial device when the motion is halted.

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23
Q

23.​Articulating aerial equipment consists of two types, water towers and: (684)
​A.​aerial ladders.
​B.​aerial platforms.
​C.​aerial ladder platforms.
​D.​aerial telescoping devices.

A

​B.​aerial platforms.

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24
Q

24.​What is each section of an articulation aerial device called? (684)
​A.​Fly
​B.​Bed
​C.​Arm
​D.​Boom

A

​D.​Boom

25
Q

25.​What is a characteristic of aerial water towers? (684)
​A.​Aerial platforms are smaller than aerial water towers.
​B.​Aerial water towers can lift firefighters and equipment.
​C.​Aerial water towers are equipped with only a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom.
​D.​Aerial water towers are equipped with a platform and a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom.

A

​C.​Aerial water towers are equipped with only a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom.

26
Q

26.​What must occur before conducting operations with an articulating aerial apparatus? (685)
​A.​The apparatus must be stabilized.
​B.​The operator must engage the pump.
​C.​The operator must disengage the power take off.
​D.​The apparatus must be connected to a water source.

A

​A.​The apparatus must be stabilized.

27
Q

27.​Newer operators should avoid full-speed operations until: (685)
​A.​their training has been completed.
​B.​the manufacturer gives their approval.
​C.​they have completed 120 hours of operations.
​D.​they are very familiar with the operation of the aerial device.

A

​D.​they are very familiar with the operation of the aerial device.

28
Q

28.​What effect does positioning other apparatus too close to the articulating aerial device have? (686)
​A.​Conserves space at an incident
​B.​Increases accountability at an incident
​C.​Decreases the walking distance when needing equipment from various apparatus
​D.​The aerial device operating space may be impeded to the point of making the articulating device inoperable

A

​D.​The aerial device operating space may be impeded to the point of making the articulating device inoperable

29
Q

29.​Aerial ladder devices with water delivery systems may be equipped with remote controls that allow the driver/operator to manipulate the: (687)
​A.​fire stream pattern.
​B.​ladder device angle.
​C.​load-bearing capacity.
​D.​hydrant water pressure.

A

​A.​fire stream pattern.

30
Q

30.​What is a benefit to operating an aerial ladder nozzle with remote controls? (687)
​A.​It reduces the amount of water wasted at an incident.
​B.​The aerial nozzle typically has a shorter reach than handheld lines.
​C.​The remote capability allows the device to be operated off-scene.
​D.​It eliminates the need to place a firefighter in a hazardous position on the tip of the device.

A

​D.​It eliminates the need to place a firefighter in a hazardous position on the tip of the device.

31
Q

31.​True pinnable waterways are permanently attached nozzle systems that can be operated from what location on the aerial device? (687)
​A.​From the ground
​B.​From the turntable
​C.​On the cab on the aerial device
​D.​On one section (fly) lower than the tip

A

​D.​On one section (fly) lower than the tip

32
Q

32.​When pinnable waterways are operated in the rescue mode, the master stream nozzle is: (687)
​A.​at the tip of the aerial device.
​B.​one aerial section lower than the tip.
​C.​attached to the cab on the aerial device.
​D.​mounted to a stand secured to the ground.

A

​B.​one aerial section lower than the tip.

33
Q

33.​When pinnable waterways are operated in the firefighting mode, the master stream nozzle is: (687)
​A.​at the tip of aerial device.
​B.​one aerial section lower from the tip.
​C.​attached to the cab on the aerial device.
​D.​mounted to a stand secured to the ground.

A

​A.​at the tip of aerial device.

34
Q

34.​Which is an advantage of using video camera systems and monitors attached to the device tip? (687)
​A.​Replaces the need to conduct a scene size-up of the incident
​B.​Replaces the need to use a spotter when backing the apparatus
​C.​Allows the operator to accurately direct the fire stream to the target
​D.​Allows the operator to take X-rays of the building to locate victims

A

​C.​Allows the operator to accurately direct the fire stream to the target

35
Q

35.​Detachable ladder pipes should be operated from the: (688-689)
​A.​lower section (fly).
​B.​turntable using ropes.
​C.​tip controls in the platform.
​D.​remote control connections.

A

​B.​turntable using ropes.

36
Q

36.​Which type of apparatus is preferred when placing one or more firefighters at the position where the elevated master stream is going to be deployed? (690)
​A.​Elevating platform
​B.​Telescoping ladder
​C.​Articulating water tower
​D.​Telescoping ladder with a pinnable waterway

A

​A.​Elevating platform

37
Q

37.​An aerial device protective water curtain nozzle should be located beneath the: (690-691)
​A.​platform.
​B.​turntable.
​C.​telescoping ladder.
​D.​articulating water tower.

A

​A.​platform.

38
Q

38.​What results when the floor of the platform and/or the knuckle between booms are not parallel to the ground? (692)
​A.​Easier to climb the ladder
​B.​Easier to raise or extend the ladder
​C.​A lower water pressure at the tip of the device
​D.​A twisting force on the entire aerial device system

A

​D.​A twisting force on the entire aerial device system

39
Q

39.​What is a key factor when operating an aerial device on a grade? (692)
​A.​Load restrictions for the given grade
​B.​Fast operations to reduce operating time
​C.​Unbalance apparatus to counter increased risks
​D.​Balance the uneven side with unneeded equipment

A

​A.​Load restrictions for the given grade

40
Q

40.​What can BEST assist the driver/operator when operating an aerial device in high wind conditions? (692)
​A.​Load chart
​B.​Weather map
​C.​Level reading equipment
​D.​Hydraulic calculation handbook

A

​A.​Load chart

41
Q

41.​What is the MOST reliable method of obtaining wind speed at the location of aerial device operation? (692)
​A.​Information from the dispatch center
​B.​Calibrated wind-measuring equipment
​C.​Information from TV and news reports
​D.​Weather information from the Internet

A

​B.​Calibrated wind-measuring equipment

42
Q

42.​Cold weather causes an increased viscosity of the hydraulic oil, which: (693)
​A.​slows overall machine operations.
​B.​increases overall machine operation.
​C.​increases the volume in the reservoir.
​D.​increases the pressure in hydraulic lines.

A

​A.​slows overall machine operations.

43
Q

43.​What is a common method of removing ice from an aerial apparatus? (694)
​A.​Applying grease to all surfaces
​B.​Applying distilled water to surfaces
​C.​Applying high-pressure steam to surfaces
​D.​Applying an anti-freeze agent to surfaces

A

​C.​Applying high-pressure steam to surfaces

44
Q

44.​What is the function of ice shrugging? (695)
​A.​Slowly raising and lowering the aerial device to remove ice
​B.​Quickly raising and lowering the aerial device to remove ice
​C.​Slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove ice
​D.​Quickly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove ice

A

​C.​Slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove ice

45
Q

45.​If the apparatus cannot be relocated when being exposed to the effects of fire at an incident, the driver/operator should apply: (696)
​A.​a tarp to cover the device.
​B.​dry chemical to the device.
​C.​water streams to the device.
​D.​a barrier in front of the device.

A

C.​water streams to the device.

46
Q

46.​Which action will help lower high oil temperatures in an aerial device? (697)
​A.​Reducing the water flow rate
​B.​Shutting off some of the lights
​C.​Shutting off the power take off
​D.​Lowering the device to mid-level

A

​C.​Shutting off the power take off

47
Q

47.​Which should the driver/operator consult to determine if the device can be deployed safely below grade? (697)
​A.​NFPA® 1901
​B.​The Command Officer
​C.​The training coordinator
​D.​Manufacturer’s operating guide

A

​D.​Manufacturer’s operating guide

48
Q

48.​Which operations MOST commonly requires below-grade operations by an aerial device? (697)
​A.​Training operations
​B.​High-rise operations
​C.​Recovery operations
​D.​Special rescue operations

A

​D.​Special rescue operations

49
Q

49.​Which device has the ability to reach out, down, and under the surface on which the apparatus is parked? (698)
​A.​A telescoping aerial device
​B.​A telescoping elevating platform
​C.​A two-boom, articulating aerial platform
​D.​A three-boom, articulating aerial platform

A

​D.​A three-boom, articulating aerial platform

50
Q

50.​Which NFPA® standard applies to inspecting any aerial apparatus chassis and device? (698)
​A.​NFPA® 1001
​B.​NFPA® 1201
​C.​NFPA® 1901
​D.​NFPA® 1911

A

​D.​NFPA® 1911

51
Q

51.​Performing apparatus inspections should occur: (698)
​A.​weekly.
​B.​monthly.
​C.​bi-weekly.
​D.​daily or between each shift.

A

​D.​daily or between each shift.

52
Q

52.​What should always be used when backing up an apparatus? (699)
​A.​Cones
​B.​A spotter
​C.​Flashlights
​D.​Floor markings

A

​B.​A spotter

53
Q

53.​Which action should the driver/operator conduct when driving an aerial apparatus? (699)
​A.​Obey certain traffic signals
​B.​Always pass on the right of vehicles
​C.​Exceed driving speed during inclement conditions
​D.​Look ahead and anticipate the need to brake or maneuver

A

​D.​Look ahead and anticipate the need to brake or maneuver

54
Q

54.​When driving an apparatus during inclement weather, the driver should: (699)
​A.​engage hazard lights.
​B.​turn on auxiliary brake.
​C.​turn off auxiliary brake.
​D.​have an empty water supply.

A

​C.​turn off auxiliary brake.

55
Q

55.​When possible, the driver/operator should position an aerial apparatus at the: (699)
​A.​side of the building.
​B.​corner of the building.
​C.​side with the largest window.
​D.​side with the most visible fire.

A

​B.​corner of the building.

56
Q

56.​When stabilizing an aerial apparatus: (699)
​A.​the aerial device should be elevated partially.
​B.​chocks should be placed on the side of stabilizers.
​C.​always set up on soft surfaces to allow the apparatus to set in place.
​D.​never set up on slopes exceeding the manufacturer’s recommendations.

A

​D.​never set up on slopes exceeding the manufacturer’s recommendations.

57
Q

57.​What is a safety recommendation when operating an aerial device with tip controls? (700)
​A.​Never operate during inclement weather.
​B.​Never operate while parked close to a fire.
​C.​Never operate while personnel are on the ladder.
​D.​Never operate from the tip without a primary operator at the main controls.

A

​D.​Never operate from the tip without a primary operator at the main controls.

58
Q

58.​What is the minimum number of points of contact when climbing or riding an apparatus? (701)
​A.​One
​B.​Two
​C.​Three
​D.​Four

A

​C.​Three

59
Q

59.​Firefighters should never hold onto the ladder hand rails, rungs, or lacing while: (701)
​A.​rotating the ladder.
​B.​extending the ladder.
​C.​ascending the ladder.
​D.​descending the ladder.

A

​B.​extending the ladder.