Chapter 23 - Medical Aspect of CBR Warfare Flashcards
0
Q
What chemical agents were used during the Iran-Iraq war in 1983?
A
Mustard gas and nerve agent (tabun)
1
Q
When was the first large scale use of chemical agents?
A
WW I
2
Q
In Japan, Aum Shinrikyo, what did the terrorist groups use and produce in a Tokyo subway?
A
Sarin gas
3
Q
The production of chemical weapons on a small scale is not __________. The space required to set-up a chemical agent lab is no longer than that of a narcotics drug lab. The equipment necessary to produce chemical agents is available on the open market.
A
Difficult
4
Q
What are the three of the common detection methods of chemical agents?
A
M9, M8, and M256A1 Chemical Agent Detector
5
Q
Which common detection method is the most widely used method of detecting liquid chemical warfare agents that does not identify which specific agent gives the positive reading and it is a self-adhesive that attaches to most surfaces?
A
M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper
6
Q
M9 Chemical Agent Detection Paper turns what color if a nerve agent or a blister agent is present?
A
Pink red, reddish brown, or purple color
7
Q
Which common detection method tests for the presence of liquid chemical agents that when a liquid agent touches it, the paper changes color?
A
M8 Chemical Agent Detector Paper
8
Q
M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with VX?
A
Olive or Verdana Green
9
Q
M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with “G” class nerve agents?
A
Gold/Yellow
10
Q
M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with blister agents?
A
Red or purple
11
Q
Neither M8 nor M9 paper can detect chemical warfare agent vapor. True or False?
A
True
12
Q
What uses chemistry technology, in which ampules containing different substrates are crushed so that liquids interact with strips of filter paper, chromatographic, and glass fiber filter?
A
Vapor sampler
13
Q
Which common detection method is a portable kit (package of M8 paper, detailed instructions, and vapor sampler) that detects nerve gas, mustard gas, and cyanide; and the reactions typically take 15 minutes to occur?
A
M256A1 Chemical Agent Detector Kit
14
Q
What does the acronym MOPP stand for?
A
Mission-Oriented Protective Posture
15
Q
How many levels of Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) are there?
A
5
16
Q
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 0?
A
Mask/Hood = Carried Over Garment = Available Over Boot = Available Gloves = Available Decon/Antidote Kit = Available
17
Q
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 1?
A
Mask/Hood = Carried Over Garment = Worn Over Boot = Carried Gloves = Carried Decon/Antidote Kit = Carried
18
Q
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 2?
A
Mask/Hood = Carried Over Garment = Worn Over Boot = Worn Gloves = Carried Decon/Antidote Kit = Carried
19
Q
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 3?
A
Mask/Hood = Worn Over Garment = Worn Over Boot = Worn Gloves = Carried Decon/Antidote Kit = Carried
20
Q
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 4?
A
Mask/Hood = Worn Over Garment = Worn Over Boot = Worn Gloves = Worn Decon/Antidote Kit = Carried
21
Q
A chemical agent on the skin can be removed effectively by using what decontamination kit?
A
M291 skin decontamination kit
22
Q
Which chemical agent interferes with normal transmission of nerve impulses in the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system, pharmacologically cholinesterase inhibitors and their reaction with cholinesterase tends to be irreversible?
A
Nerve Agents
23
Q
VX, Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), Soman (GD), and Cyclosarin (GF) are examples of what chemical agent?
A
Nerve Agents
24
Which type of chemical agents is odorless, colorless liquids or vapors?
Nerve Agents
25
What are ways nerve agents can enter the body?
Eyes, respiratory tract (fast action), and skin (slow action).
26
The following signs and symptoms are for what chemical agent: salivation, lacrimation, urination, gastrointestinal disturbance, and general excretions?
Nerve Agents
27
What treatments are used to treat nerve agent exposure?
Atropine (3 syringes of 2 mg), 2-PAM CL (3 syringes of 600 mg), Diazepam or Convulsive Antidote Nerve Agent (CANA) (10 mg auto injector)
28
Which nerve agent treatment is an acetylcholine blocker and is the drug of choice to treat nerve agent poisoning?
Atropine
29
Which nerve agent treatment removes the agent from the enzyme acetylcholinesterase within the synaptic cleft (the space between the nerve cells) of the nervous system?
Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM CL)
30
Which nerve agent treatment is used to control convulsions in patients?
Diazepam or Convulsion Antidote Nerve Agent (CANA)
31
A MARK 1 Kit consists of?
Both the Atropine (2mg) and 2-PAM CL (600mg) autoinjector
32
What is the new autoinjector that will be replacing the MARK 1antidote kit?
Autoinjector Treatment Nerve Agent Antidote (ATNAA)
33
Which autoinjector kit is a single autoinjector that has two chambers that deliver 2.1mg of Atropine and 600mg of 2-PAM CL in a single injection?
Autoinjector Treatment Nerve Agent Antidote (ATNAA)
34
What portion of the body are the autoinjectors administered in?
Lateral thigh muscle and buttocks
35
How long are autoinjectors held firmly in place for?
10 seconds
36
How many MARK 1 Kits can a non-medical person give?
3
37
For severe nerve agent symptoms (gastrointestinal or respiratory), how many MARK 1 Kits should be given in a row?
3
38
How long do you wait after giving the first MARK 1 Kit before giving another in a patient with moderate symptoms?
10-15 minutes
39
Atropine can be injected at ___ to ___ minute interval and until there is a reduction of both secretions and breathing difficulty.
5-10 minutes
40
If severe symptoms still persist after one hour of giving the three MARK 1Kits, three additional autoinjectors of 2-PAM CL 600mg should be given. No more than ___ doses should be given of 2-PAM CL . Discontinue use after respiratory distress has decreased.
6
41
What is the maximum dose Convulsion Antidote Nerve Agents (CANA) or Diazepam may be given at a 5-10 minute interval?
3
42
The order of nerve agent decontamination is as follows:
1. Face
2. Neck area
3. Chest area
4. Abdomen
5. Arms and hands
6. Other exposed skin areas
True or False?
True
43
What items are used for decontamination of nerve agents?
Soap and water, 0.5% hypochlorite solution and M291 Kit
44
Which chemical agent exert their primary action on the skin and produces large and painful blisters that are incapacitating and this agent is also known as a vesicant?
Blister Agent
45
Mustard (H), Distilled Mustard (HD), Nitrogen Mustard (HN), and Lewisite (L) are examples of what chemical agent?
Blister Agent
46
Which Blister agent has a smells like fish?
Nitrogen Mustard (HN)
47
Which Blister agent smells like "Horseradish"?
Mustard (H)
48
Which Blister agent smells like "Geraniums"?
Lewisite (L)
49
Which Blister agent is less volatile and more persistent than Distilled Mustard (HD) but has the same blistering qualities?
Nitrogen Mustard (HN)
50
Which Blister agent is an arsenical?
Lewisite (L)
51
Which part of the body does Blister agents attack?
Eyes and respiratory tract as well as the skin
52
What are the areas within the body that will be affected the most with Blister agent?
Warm, sweaty areas of the body (armpits, groin, face and neck)
53
What is the primary cause of death from a Blister agent?
Massive edema or mechanical pulmonary obstruction
54
What is the treatment for Blister agents? Lewisite?
Pain and itching relief, control of infection and British Anti-Lewisite (BAL) for Lewisite
55
What is used for decontamination of Blister agents?
M291 Kit, soap and water, and 0.5% hypochlorite solution
56
Decontamination of Blister agents within two minutes will reduce the toxic effects by what percentage?
50%
57
British Anti-Lewisite (BAL) must not be used on patients allergic to?
Peanuts
58
Within how many hours will the symptoms of a Blister agent take effect?
Several hours after exposure
59
Which chemical agent that disrupts oxygen utilization at the cellular level rapidly causing cellular suffocation and is also known as cyanides?
Blood Agents
60
Cyanogen CL (AC) and Hydrocyanic acid (CK) are examples of what chemical agent?
Blood Agents
61
Which Blood agent has a bitter almonds smell?
Hydrogen Cyanide (AC)
62
Which Blood agent has an irritating odor?
Hydrocyanic Acid (CK)
63
After exposure to _________ agents, the victims will take a few deep breathes, begin convulsions after 20-30 seconds, and die after a few minutes.
Blood Agents
64
What are the treatments for Blood Agents?
- 2 Amyl Nitrite ampules crushed and inhaled (every few minutes until eight is used)
- IV Sodium Thiosulfate 12.5g (1-2 doses given)
- IV Sodium Nitrate 300mg
65
Which chemical agents damage the membranes in the lungs that separate the alveolar tissue resulting in plasma to leak into the alveoli causing hypoxia resulting in PULMONARY EDEMA?
Pulmonary Agents
66
Chlorine (CL), Phosgene (CG), and Diphosgene (DP) are examples of what chemical agent?
Pulmonary Agents
67
Which Pulmonary Agent is a colorless gas that smells like new-mown hay or freshly cut grass?
Phosgene (CG)
68
What is the treatment for Pulmonary Agents?
Remove patient from the source, rest, and perform assisted respirations and/or oxygen.
69
How would you decontaminate vapor and liquid Pulmonary Agents?
- Vapors = exposure to fresh air or ventilated area
| - Liquids = remove clothes, and rinse affected area with water
70
Which chemical agent is used to describe a collection of chemical compounds, all having similar characteristics which produce an immediate but temporary effect in very low concentrations; to harass enemy personnel or discourage riot actions causing people to become unable to perform their job due to discomfort?
Riot-Control/Harassment Agents
71
Mace (CN),Dibenzoxazepine (CR), 2-Chlorobenzalmalononitrile (CS), Adamsite (DM) and Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) are examples of what type of chemical agents?
Riot-Control/Harassment Agents
72
What are the two classes of Riot-Control/Harassment Agetns?
Lacrimation and Vomiting Agents
73
Which class of Riot-Control/Harassment Agent is also known as "TEAR GAS" and are essentially local irritants that act primarily on the eyes?
Lacrimators
74
Which class of Riot-Control/Harassment Agent that causes nausea and vomiting?
Vomiting Agents
75
What is the treatment for Riot-Control/Harassment Agents?
Take patient out of the environment, exposure them to fresh air and letting the wind blow or flush with water/saline into wide-open eyes, or talking (CS).
76
How would you decontaminate Riot-Control/Harassment Agents?
Change clothes, wash heavily contaminated patient with soap and water
77
Which Riot-Control/Harassment Agent can be removed by washing with baby shampoo, milk, or vegetable oil to break up the resin and neutralize the agent?
Oleoresin Capsicum (OC)
78
What are the priority for first aid from the most important to the least important for a chemical agent patient is?
1. Control massive hemorrhage
2. First aid for life threatening shock and wounds
3. Decontamination of exposed skin and eyes
4. Removal of decontaminated clothing and decontamination of body surfaces
5. Adjustment of patient's mask
6. First aid for less severe shock and wounds
79
Each ship has a minimum of how many decontamination stations?
Clean and contaminated
80
When handling contaminated casualties, what must me placed in designated dump areas and, whenever practically possible, kept in metal cans with tightly fitting covers?
Contaminated clothing and gear
81
What is the initial management of a casualty contaminated by chemical agents?
Removal of Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) gear and decontamination with 0.5% hypochlorite solution before treatment
82
What are the three types of Biological Agents?
Bacteria, Viruses, and Toxins
83
Which type of Biological Agent is a single called organism (living cells) that carry any complex metabolism functions and cause disease in animals, plants and human beings by one of two mechanisms: invading host tissues and producing toxins?
Bacteria
84
Which type of Biological Agent are smaller than bacteria; they are intercellular parasites that lack a system for their own metabolism, meaning, they require living cells such as humans, animals, plants, and bacteria in order to multiply; can cause changes in the host cell that eventually leads to cell death; the best way to control this infection is through vaccines; and it is the most expensive and time consuming biological agent?
Viruses
85
Which Biological Agent is a harmful substance that is produced by a variety of living organisms, like bacteria, plants, and animals and are not man made?
Toxins
86
Anthrax, Plague, and Tularemia are examples of what Biological Agent?
Bacteria
87
Smallpox, Hemorrhagic fevers, Marburg, and Ebola are examples of what Biological Agent?
Viruses
88
Ricin and Botulism are examples of what Biological Agent?
Toxins
89
An _____________ investigation of a disease outbreak will assist medical personnel in identifying the pathogen and use of proper medical intervention.
Epidemiological
90
1. Disease that have been eradicated
2. A disease with a low probability of occurrence
3. Large scale outbreak occurring in a limited geographical area
4. Dead animals of multiple species are sentinels
5. Absence of competent natural vector
6. Restricted geographical distribution
The list from above are examples of what?
Indicators of Biological Agent release
91
Biological outbreaks that occur in multiple geographical locations are classified as?
Natural Occurrence and Intentional Release
92
A first-line presumptive test is the ____-____ Assay Panel that can make an indication of the presence of several biological agents within 15 minutes.
Hand-Held Assay Panel
93
These labs utilized a rapid field detection method incorporating real-time Polymerase Chain Reaction (rt-PCR) based diagnostic for field confirmatory testing are extremely accurate. True or False?
True
94
The PPE for Biological Agents consist of Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JSLIST), Field M-40 Chemical-Biological Mask, protective gloves, and boots. True or False?
True
95
Which type of Bacterial Biological Agent is a disease caused by the bacteria Bacillus anthracis and is a gram-positive, encapsulated, spore forming, non-motile rod; in which spore can survive in the environment for years or decade, awaiting patient by next host?
Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
96
Transmission of Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) disease is through contact with contaminated material. True or False?
True
97
What are the three types of Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) in humans?
Cutaneous, Pulmonary (Inhalation), and Gastrointestinal Anthrax
98
Which of the three types of Anthrax in humans is acquired when a spore enters the skin through a cut or an abrasion and occurs within 2 weeks after exposure to spores?
Cutaneous Anthrax
99
Which of the three Anthrax is from breathing in airborne anthrax spores and onset occurs in two stages, usually beginning within 10 days?
Pulmonary (Inhalation) Anthrax
100
Which of the three anthrax is contracted from eating contaminated food, primarily meat from an animal that died of the disease and occurs 2-5 days after consumption of meat?
Gastrointestinal Anthrax
101
What is the average incubation period of Anthrax?
1-7 days
102
Which of the three type of anthrax is where skin infection begins as a raised itchy bump that resembles an insect bite, but within 1-2 days develops into a vesicle and then a painless ulcer, usually 1-3 cm in diameter, with a characteristic black necrotic areas the center?
Cutaneous Anthrax
103
Which of the three anthrax has viral-like symptoms, the x-ray is the most sensitive test, usually fatal?
Pulmonary (Inhalation) Anthrax
104
Which of the three type of Anthrax has a primary lesion being ulcerative, emesis is blood-tinged or looks like coffee grounds, and stool may be blood-tinged or melenic (dark)?
Gastrointestinal Anthrax
105
What are the treatments for Anthrax?
Antibiotics (primarily), supportive care, and adjunctive care
106
What are the first line antibiotic treatments for Anthrax?
Ciprofloxacin (500mg BID or 400mg Q12H IV) or Doxycycline (100mg Q12H orally or IV)
Second line: Amoxicillin and Penicillin
Third line: Rifampin, Clindamycin, Clarithromycin, Erythromycin, Vancomycin, and Imipenem
107
What are the FDA approved prophylaxis for Anthrax?
Vaccination series of six 0.5 ml SubQ doses at 0, 2, and 4 weeks; then 6, 12, and 18 months followed by a annual booster
108
Anthrax contaminated materials should be bagged and incinerated or autoclaved (121+1 degree C core temperature for 30 minutes). Spores are sensitive to what percentage of bleach solutions with a minimum of 10 minutes contact time?
5-10% bleach solution
109
Which type of Bacterial Biological Agent is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis found in rodents and their fleas; affects animals and humans; a gram-negative rod that is non-motile, and non-sporulating; and is easily destroyed by sunlight and drying?
Plague (Yersinia Pestis)
110
When Plague is released into the air, how many hours does the bacterium (Yersinia pestis) have to survive?
An hour
111
Plague is endemic in many countries in Africa, in the former Soviet Union, the Americas and Asia. Which of the countries listed was plague produced and weaponized in large quantities as a biological weapon?
Soviet Union
112
What are the three types of Plague (Yersinia pestis)?
Pneumonic, Bubonic, and Septicemic Plague
113
Which of the three types of Plague infects the lungs and can be spread from person to person through the air or breathing in the respiratory droplets from an infected animal?
Pneumonic plague
114
Which of the three types of Plague is the most common form and is spread when infected fleas or rodents bites a person or when material contaminated with Yersinia pestis enters through a break in a person's skin?
Bubonic plague
115
Which of the three types of Plague occurs when the bacterium Yersinia pestis multiplies in the blood and is a complication of pneumonic or bubonic plague?
Septicemic plague
116
What is the incubation period for immunized plague? Primary plague pneumonia?
Immunized = 1-7 days
| Primary plague pneumonia = 1-4 days
117
Which of the three types of Plague has death results from respiratory failure, circulatory collapse, and shock; and if treatment is not started within 24 hours of onset of symptoms, the disease is 100% fatal?
Pneumonic plague
118
Which of the three types of Plague is characterized by swollen painful lymph nodes called buboes (1-10 cm in diameter), high fever, chills, headache, and malaise; buboes usually develops in the groin and may also appear in the armpit or neck; and may progress to either Septicemic or Pneumonic plague?
Bubonic plague
119
Which of the three types of Plague usually follows Bubonic plagues and the patient develops prostration, circulatory collapse, septic shock, organ failure, hemorrhage, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and necrosis of extremities can be seen?
Septicemic plague
120
Plagues can be confirmed by a positive culture and laboratory testing. What can be seen on a smear taken from affected tissues of sputum sample, cerebral spinal fluid, or aspiration from a bubo?
Small gram-negative and/or bipolar staining coccibacilli
121
What are the primary antibiotic treatments for Plagues?
Streptomycin (1g Q12H IV) or Gentamicin
Alternative Antibiotics: Doxycycline, Ciprofloxacin, or Chloramphenicol
122
Watt are the prophylaxis for Plague?
Doxycycline (100mg BID orally)
123
What are the isolation and decontamination treatment for Plague?
Respiratory isolation; get rid of patients and their clothing of fleas; cleanse patients with soap and water; use 1% bleach solution for decontamination
124
How can the the bacterium Yersinia pestis can be inactivated?
Heat (55-72 degrees C greater than 15 minutes) or direct sunlight (more than 2 hours)
125
Which type of Bacterial Biological Agent is also known as"RABBIT FEVER"; caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis typically found in animals, especially rodents, rabbits, hares, and ticks; and is a gram-positive, non-motile coccobacillus?
Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)
126
How many subspecies does Tularemia have?
Jellison type A and B
127
Of the subspecies of Tularemia, which is the most virulent?
Jellison Type B
128
Humans become infected through bites from infective arthropods (ticks and deer fleas), handling infectious animal tissues or fluids, direct contact with, or ingestion of, contaminated matter, or inhalation of infective aerosols. How is Tularemia not spread from?
Person to person
129
Which type of Tularemia is the most common form that usually occurs following a tick or deerfly bite, or after handling of an infected animal?
Ulceroglandular
130
Which type of Tularemia is caused following an intentional aerosol release of the agent?
Pneumonic and Typhoidal
131
What is the incubation period for Tularemia?
3-5 days
132
Which type of Tularemia has a skin ulcer that appears at the site where the organism entered the body and the ulcer is usually accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy in the armpit or groin?
Ulceroglandular
133
Which type of Tularemia include cough, chest pain, and difficulty breathing and it develops if other forms of Tularemia are left untreated, the bacteria spreads through the blood stream to the lungs?
Pneumonic and Typhoidal
134
How is Tularemia diagnosed?
Serological testing
135
What are the primary antibiotic treatments for Tularemia?
Streptomycin (1g Q12H IM) or Gentamicin (5mg/kg IV or IM daily)
Alternative: Doxycycline, Ciprofloxacin, and Chloramphenicol
136
Post exposure antibiotics should begin within how many hours of exposure and for how many days?
24 hours of exposure and continue for 14 days
137
What are the preferred prophylaxis for Tularemia?
Doxycycline (100mg BID orally) or Ciprofloxacin (500mg BID orally)
138
What are the decontamination procedures for Tularemia?
Heat (55 degrees C for 10 minutes) and 1% bleach solution followed by 70% alcohol solution and standard water chlorination
139
Which type of Bacterial Biological Agent is produced by Clostridium botulinum, an encapsulated, anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium; it is a neuroparalytic (muscle-paralyzing) disease blocking acetylcholine release from peripheral nerves; highly lethal and the toxin is the most toxic substance known?
Botulinum Toxin
140
There are seven antigen types (A-G) of the Botulinum Toxin (Clostridium botulinum) exist. Which types are known to cause illness in humans?
A, B, E and F
141
How many kinds of Botulism?
Food-borne, Infant, Wound, and Inhalational botulism (4)
142
Which kind of Botulism occurs when a person ingest pre-formed toxin that leads to illness within a few hours to days?
Food-Bourne Botulism
143
Which kind of Botulism occurs in a small number of susceptible infants each year who harbor Clostridium botulinum in their intestinal tract?
Infant Botulism
144
Which kind of Botulism occurs when wounds are infected with Clostridium botulinum that secretes toxin?
Wound Botulism
145
Which kind of Botulism occurs when Clostridium botulinum in aerosol form is inhaled and is feasible for terrorist groups or another country to use as a weapon?
Inhalational Botulism
146
Neurological symptoms of Botulinum Toxin, usually appear within how many hours?
12-36 hours
147
Laboratory confirmation can be obtained by a bioassay of the patient's blood _______.
Serum
148
What are the treatments for Botulinum Toxin?
Trivalent and Heptavalent antitoxin.
149
What is the prophylaxis for Botulinum Toxin?
Pentavalent toxiod
150
What are the decontamination procedures for Botulinum Toxin?
Inactivated by sunlight (1 to 3 hours) or heat (80 degrees C for 30 minutes, 100 degreess C for several minutes).
151
What type of Biological agent is a potent toxin derived from the beans of the castor plant, that has potential to be used as an agent of biological warefare and as a weapon of mass destruction (WMD)? It blocks the protein synthesis at the cellular level leading to cell death and tissue damage. This toxin is easy to produced and can be delivered by aerolization, injection or ingestion. Can be in the form of powder, mist, pellet, or dissolved in water or weak acid.
Ricin
152
What is the incubation period for Ricin?
18-24 hours by inhalation and lethal dose is death in several days.
153
what is the treatment for Ricin?
No known antidote. Provide supportive care.
154
What type of Biological Agent is a serious, contagious, and sometimes fatal infectious disease that is caused by the VARIOLA virus and spread rapidly through aerosols or mucous membranes?
Smallpox
155
Which type of Smallpox is the severe and most common form of smallpox, with a more extensive rash and higher fever? Has four types: ordinary, modified, flat and hemorrhagic.
Variola Major
156
Which type of Smallpox is the less common presentation of smallpox and has a death rate of 1% or less?
Variola Minor
157
Incubation period of the Smallpox is from 7-19 days, usually 10-14 days to the onset of illness and 2-4 additional days before the onset of a rash. True or False?
True
158
How many days does the signs and symptoms (flu-like) of smallpox usually appear?
10-12 days
159
The rashes for smallpox starts with ________ and quickly progress to ________. After a few days, the lesions become pustular vesicles and begin to crust early in the second week. scabs develop and then seperate and fall off about 3 weeks.
Macules; Papules
160
What is the treatment for smallpox?
No treatment. IV and medicine to control fevers and smallpox vaccine lessens the severity within 4 days after exposure.
161
What are the patients considered from the onset of the rash until all scabs seperate? They should be isolated using airborne and droplet precautions during this period.
CONTAGIOUS
162
What illness id refered to a group of illness that are caused by 4 distinct families of viruses and the overall vascular system is damaged and the body's ability to regulate itself is impaired?
Viral Hemorrhagic Fever (VHF)
163
What are the four families of Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers (VHFs)?
Arenaviruses, Filoviruses, Bunyaviruses and Flaviviruses
164
Which type of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever is associated with rodent-transmitted disease in humans via rodent urine and excrement?
Arenaviruses
165
Which type of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever can cause severe hemorrhagic fever in humans and nonhumab primates? Marburg and Ebola Virus are examples of this.
Filoviruses
166
Which type of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever are vectore-borne and transmission occurs via an arthropod vector (mosquitos, tick, or sandfly)? Crimean Congo, Rift Valley and Hantaan are examples of this.
Bunyaviruses
167
Which type of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever are transmitted by the bite from an infected arthropod (mosquito or tick)? Dengue and Yellow Fever are examples of this.
Flavivirus
168
What becomes a health concern because it may damage certain critical molecules or structure in a cell?
Ionization
169
What the two modes of radiation action within a cell?
Direct and Indirect action
170
Which type of Radiation are emitted from the nucleus of some radioactive elements? They are heavy, very short range particles that are not able to penetrate clothing or human skin.
Alpha
171
Which type of Radiation is a light, short-range particle and is actually an ejected electron? This may travel several feet in the air and can penetrate human skin to the "germinal layer", where new skin is produced.
Beta
172
Which type of Radiation are electromagnetic waves that are able to trael many feet in the air and many inches through human tissue? Sometimes called "penetrating" radiation.
Gamma
173
What is used to measure a quantity of absorbed dose of radiatio?
Radiation absorbed dose (rad)
174
The International System of Units (SI) is replacing common American terminology; the new absorbed dose unit for ration is what?
Gray (Gy)
175
What are the 3 devices use to measure fiel radiation levels?
AN/VDR-2, AN-UDR-13, and AN/PDQ-1
176
Which radiation measurement device is used to perform ground radiological surveys in vehicles or in dismounted mode by individual personnel as a handheld instrument?
Radiac Set AN/VDR-2
177
Which radiation measurement device is a compact handheld, or pocket carried, tactical device that can measure prompt gamma/neutron doses from a nuclear event?
Radiac Set AN/UDR-13
178
Which radiation measurement device is a multi-range Radiac device that detects beta and gamma radiation and uses a Gieger Mueller ionization chamber and has two ranges for radiation levels, mR/hr and R/hr?
Radiac Set AN/PDQ-1
179
What are the three factors that guide actions to avoid exposure?
Time, Distance and Shielding
180
What is the most effective shielding material?
Lead
181
What is an acute illness caused by irradiation of the body by a high dose of penetrating radiation in a very short period of time, usually a matter of minutes (cell death in specific tissues)? Also known as radiation toxicity or radiation sickness. Has three Phases for signs/symptoms: Prodromal, Latent, and Manifested.
Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS)
182
Most people who do not recover from Acute Radiation syndrome (ARS) will die in several months of exposure, which is caused by the destruction of the person's what resulting in ifections and internal bleeding?
Bone Marrow
183
What is a the medical condition caused by long term exposure to dose radiation?
Chronic Radiation Syndrome (CRS)
184
What are the two types of Radiation Dermatitis?
Acute and Chronic
185
Which type of Radiation Dermatitis occurs after heavy contamination of bare skin with beta emmiting material and it rarely develpos in situations where personnel are fully clothed?
Acute Radiation Dermatitis
186
Which type of Radiation Dermatitis is a result from of long term exposure to low levels of radiation?
Chronic Radiation Dermatitis
