Chapter 18 Flashcards

Pharmacy

1
Q

Pharmacotherapeutics is the study of the uses of medications in the treatment of disease

A

Toxicology is the study of poisons, their actions, their detection, and the treatment of the conditions produced by them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Therapeutics is the science of treating disease by any method that will relieve pain, treat or cure diseases and infections, or prolong life

A

United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary (USP-NF), which sets standards for the quality, purity, strength, and consistency and provides standards for medications of therapeutic usefulness and pharmaceutical necessity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pharmacognosy is the branch of pharmacology dealing with biological, biochemical, and economic features of natural medications and their constituents

A

Pharmacy is the branch of pharmacology dealing with the preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Posology is the study of the dosages of medicines and medications

A

Pharmacodynamics is the study of the action or effects of medications on living organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy is the most widely used text/reference in American pharmacies.This work is known as the “blue bible” of pharmacology.

A

The study of dosage and the criteria that influence it is called posology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The average therapeutic doses and are known as “usual adult doses.”

A

minimum dose (the least amount of medication required to produce a therapeutic effect),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

maximum dose (the largest amount of medication that can be given without reaching the toxic effect)

A

toxic dose (the least amount of medication that will produce symptoms of poisoning).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

therapeutic dose is calculated on an average adult male of 24 years who weighs approximately 150 pounds.

A

MINIMUM LETHAL DOSE.—is the least amount of medication that can produce death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Factors that affect dosage are Age, weight, sex, race, occupation, habitual use of meds, time of administration, frequency of ad, mode of ad

A

Subcutaneous is the medication injected just below the skin’s cutaneous layers. Example: Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Intradermal is the medication injected within the dermis layer of the skin. Example: Purified Protein Derivative (PPD).

A

Intramuscular is the medication injected into the muscle. Example: Procaine Penicillin G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vaporization - the process by which a medication is changed from a liquid or solid to a gas or vapor by the use of heat (such as in steam inhalation)

A

Gas Inhalation - almost entirely restricted to anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nebulization - the process by which a medication is converted into a fine spray by the use of compressed gas

A

Medications are classified according to set criteria and fall into three specific areas: general, chemical, and therapeutic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

General: Grouped according to their source whether animal, vegetable, or mineral in origin

A

Chemical: Grouped by their chemical characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Therapeutic (Pharmacological): Grouped according to their action on the body

A

Chemical name relates to the chemical and molecular structure. An example is 2,4,7-triamino-6-phenylpteridine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Generic name is often derived from the chemical name

A

Brand name (trade name) is the proprietary name given by the manufacturer. Brand name is also referred to as the trade name.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Astringents are medications that cause shrinkage of the skin and mucous membranes. Mainly used to stop seepage, weeping, or discharge from mucous membranes

A

ASTRINGENTS: Aluminum Acetate solution (Burow’s Solution, Domeboro®) is used as a wet to dry dressing for the relief of inflammatory conditions of the skin, such as athlete’s foot, poison ivy, swelling, external otitis, bruises and insect bites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ASTRINGENTS: Calamine, zinc oxide, glycerin, and bentonite magma in calcium hydroxide (calamine lotion) It is a topical astringent and protectant. It should be applied to blistered, raw, or oozing areas of the skin.

A

Emollients are bland or fatty substances that may be applied to the skin to make it more pliable and soft. Emollients are available as ointments, creams, or lotions.

18
Q

EMOLLIENTS: Theobroma oil (cocoa butter) is an excellent emollient with a pleasant odor.
treatment of chapped skin and lips, cracked nipples,

A

EMOLLIENTS: Petrolatum (petroleum jelly) is a good emollient that provides a highly occlusive, protective barrier.

19
Q

EMOLLIENTS: Zinc Oxide is a white petrolatum containing approximately 20% zinc oxide powder. Because of its opaqueness, is ideal for protecting the skin and relieving chafing.

A

Expectorants AKA bronchomucotropic agents. Assit in the romoval of secretions or exudates from the trachea, bronchi, or lungs. Used to treat coughs.

20
Q

Antitussives are agents that inhibit or suppress the act of coughing.

A

Guaifenesin and dextromethorphan (Robitussin® DM) acts as an expectorant. It may be useful in symptomatic relief of dry, nonproductive cough, and in the presence of mucous in the respiratory tract.

21
Q

Dextromethorphan It is used to control non productive coughs by soothing minor throat and bronchial irritations.

A

Pseudoephedrine Hydrochloride (Sudafed (HCL) is indicated for the symptomatic relief of nasal congestion due to the common cold, hay fever, or other upper respiratory allergies.

22
Q

Diphenhydramine Hydrochloride (Benadryl®) HCl is given for active and prophylactic treatment of MOTION SICKNESS, as a nighttime sleep aid, and for the symptomatic relief of urticaria, allergic rhinitis

A

Meclizine Hydrochloride (Antivert®, Bonine®) Meclizine HCl is given to prevent and treat nausea, vomiting, and dizziness of motion sickness.

23
Q

Antacids are used to counteract hyperacidity in the stomach.

A

Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia USP) is used for the symptomatic relief of upset stomach associated with hyperacidity, treatment and maintenance of duodenal ulcers, and used to reduce phosphate absorption in patients with chronic renal failure. also has a laxative effect.

24
Q

Alumina and Magnesia Oral Suspension (Maalox®) Alumina and magnesia oral suspension coats the stomach lining and neutralizes gastric acid.

A

Antiseptics suppress the growth of microorganisms.

25
Q

Germicides kill susceptible organisms.

A

Methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin®) is indicated for use in hyperkinetic children and children with attention deficit disorders.

26
Q

Methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin®) is used as a central nervous system depressant.

A

Methylphenidate HCl is also indicated for narcolepsy in adults.

27
Q

Pentobarbital (Nembutal®) is indicated for short-term treatment of insomnia.

A

Phenytoin sodium (Dilantin®) is a nonbarbiturate anticonvulsant that is the drug of choice for the treatment and management of grand mal epilepsy.

28
Q

Phenobarbital (Luminal®) is the drug of choice in petit mal epilepsy, and it is used as a hypnotic or sedative.

A

Heparin sodium is used in prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis (and its expansion) and of pulmonary embolism.

29
Q

Warfarin sodium (Coumadin®) is used extensively to treat embolism in the prevention of occlusions.

A

Vitamin A (Retinol) necessary for visual adaptation to darkness. Also useful to treat acne and pseudofollicultis barbae

30
Q

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine hydrochloride) The deficiency disease is beriberi.

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) Deficiency is associated with cheilosis, glossitis, visual disturbances, or visual fatigue.

31
Q

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) indicated for the correction of niacin deficiency and in the prevention and treatment of pellagra.

A

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine hydrochloride) It is most often used during isoniazid (INH) therapy to prevent the development of peripheral neuritis.

32
Q

Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) necessary for the prevention and cure of scurvy.

A

Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets in children and asteomalacia in adults.

33
Q

Vitamin K Deficiency results in an increase in blood clotting time.

A

Two standard forms of prescriptions: DoD Prescription, DD Form 1289 AND Polyprescription, NAVMED 6710/6

34
Q

The DD 1289 will contain ONLY one med order. All CONTROLLED meds should be ordered on the this form.

A

The Polyprescription is available for up to four prescriptions for one patient to be written together.

35
Q

***If a controlled medication must be written on a polyprescription due to unavailability of a DD 1289, it must be the only medication prescribed on that form.

A

SUPERSCRIPTION.—The superscription “Rx” means “take” or “take thou” or, in effect, “I want this patient to have the following medication.

36
Q

INSCRIPTION.— The inscription is that part of the prescription that lists the name and quantity of the medication to be used.

A

SUBSCRIPTION.—The subscription follows the inscription and is that part of the prescription that gives directions to the compounder.

37
Q

SIGNA.—The signa, not to be confused with the prescriber’s signature, is the part of the prescription that gives the directions for the patient. This portion is preceded by the abbreviation “Sig.”

A

Finally, the prescriber signature block, located at the bottom of the form, must contain a legible signature of the prescriber, as well as the prescriber’s full name, rank, corps, and service, stamped, typed, or hand-printed. Facsimiles are not acceptable.

38
Q

Currently, prescriptions are required to be kept on file for at least 2 years after the date of issue

A

Schedule II
Substances that have high abuse potential and severe psychological and/or physical dependence liability. Examples include narcotics, amphetamines, and barbiturates.
Prescriptions for schedule II substances can never be ordered with refills and in most cases must be filled within 7 days of the date originally written.

39
Q

Schedule III
Substances that have less abuse potential than schedule II substances and moderate dependence liability. Examples include nonbarbiturate sedatives, nonamphetamine stimulants, and medications that contain a limited quantity of certain narcotics. Prescriptions must be filled within 30 days of the date written and may be refilled up to five times within 6 months.

A

Schedule IV
Substances that have less abuse potential than schedule III substances and limited dependence liability. Prescriptions must be filled within 30 days of the date written and may be refilled up to five times within a 6-month period.

40
Q

Schedule V
Substances that have limited abuse potential. Schedule V substances are primarily antitussives or antidiarrheals. Prescriptions must be filled within 30 days of the date written and may be refilled up to five times within 6 months.

A

Schedule I and II controlled substances require vault or safe storage and inventory by the Controlled Substance Inventory Board

41
Q

On board smaller naval vessels, access to controlled substances is limited to the bulk custodian and the Senior Medical Department Representative (SMDR).

A

Quarterly, or more frequently if necessary, the Controlled Substances Inventory Board (CSIB) takes an unannounced inventory of controlled substances

42
Q

Schedule I and II controlled substances and locally controlled medications that have become outdated, deteriorated to the point of not being usable, are of questionable purity or potency, or have had their identity compromised, must be reported to the CO. If destruction is indicated and directed by the CO, destruction must be accomplished in the presence of a member of the CSIB. A certification of destruction form contains the complete nomenclature and quantity of the substances to be destroyed together with the method of destruction to be used.

A

DONE