CH 14 QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q

What form is used to complete Routine, Special Duty, and Medical Evaluation Boards examinations? (Page 14-6)

  • DD 1903-1
  • DD 2708-2
  • DD 2807-1
  • DD 2697
A

DD 2807-1 283031

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2
Q

What is the single most important factor in determining fitness for duty in today’s Navy? (Page 14-4)

  • Medical fitness board
  • Medical screening board
  • Medical evaluation board
  • Medical surveillance board
A

Medical evaluation board

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3
Q

Separation examinations are required for personnel separating from the Navy, the Marine Corps, and Activated Reservists serving how many consecutive days or greater on active duty? (Page 14-3)

  • 30
  • 180
  • 365
  • 31
A

31

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4
Q

The results of the reenlistment physical examination are recorded on form DD 2807, Report of Medical History and what other form? (Page 14-2)

  • DD 2808
  • DD 3109
  • DD 1790
  • DD 1540
A

DD 2808

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5
Q

What form is used to complete Separation examinations? (Page 14-12)

  • DD 1350
  • DD 1540
  • DD 1797
  • DD 2697
A

DD 2697

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6
Q

What screenings prevent the arrival of service members and families at a duty station with special requirements beyond the capability of the local medical, dental, educational, or community facilities? (Page 14-4)

  • Aptitude
  • Fitness
  • Suitability
  • Merited
A

Suitability

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7
Q

What type of test determines distant visual acuity? (Page 14-16)

  • Visual acuity charts
  • Mellen charts
  • Snellen charts
  • Eye charts
A

Snellen charts

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8
Q

What series provides a listing of “Medical Conditions and Physical Defects Which Normally are Cause for Referral to the Physical Evaluation Board”? (Page 14-5)

  • SECNAVINST 1850.4
  • BUMEDINST 1750.2
  • OPNAVINST 3750.6
  • BUPERSINST 1900.8
A

SECNAVINST 1850.4

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9
Q

What form is used to complete the suitability screening for members that have orders for overseas and remote duty locations? (Page 14-14)

  • NAVMED 1100/1
  • NAVMED 1300/1
  • NAVMED 1500/1
  • NAVMED 1200/1
A

NAVMED 1300/1

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10
Q

The abbreviated board report is used only when a member is expected to return to full duty after an adequate period of treatment. Processing time should not exceed how many working days to report TLD? (Page 14-5)

  • 10
  • 7
  • 5
  • 3
A

5

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11
Q

IAW what series will the Periodic Health Assessment will be conducted annually? (Page 14-2)

  • BUMEDINST 4130.3a
  • SECNAVINST 6120.3
  • BUMEDINST 4566.10c
  • SECNAVINST 1932.1b
A

SECNAVINST 6120.3

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12
Q

What series has the Navy developed to minimize the risk associated with hazardous substances? (Page 14-4)

  • OPNAVINST 5100.23
  • OPNAVINST 1360.2
  • OPNAVINST 5100.19
  • OPNAVINST 5310.4
A

OPNAVINST 5100.23

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13
Q

What program provides physical examination and medical monitoring guidelines for personnel who are exposed to or work with/in hazardous materials or hazardous environments? (Page 14-4)

  • BUMED Surveillance Program
  • Medical Surveillance Program
  • BUMED Evaluation Program
  • Medical Evaluation Program
A

Medical Surveillance Program

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14
Q

What provides the specific instructions on how and when each type of physical is to be conducted? (Page 14-2)

  • MANMED
  • BUMEDINST 5445.50
  • NAVPERS manual
  • OPNAVINST 6100.23
A

MANMED

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15
Q

Essentially, there are four types of routine physical examinations which include the Entrance, Periodic Health Assessment (PHA), Reenlistment, and what other type? (Page 14-2)

  • Separation
  • Annual
  • LIMDU
  • Disability review
A

Separation

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16
Q

Where are entrance physical examinations normally performed? (Page 14-2)

  • RTC
  • MEPS
  • Recruiting Office
  • First duty station
A

MEPS

17
Q

What are used to test near vision when the AFVT is not available? (Page 14-17)

  • Snellen chart
  • Jaeger cards
  • PIP chart
  • Jaeger charts
A

Jaeger cards

18
Q

A thorough physical examination must be completed not less than how many days from the last day served on active duty? (Page 14-3)

  • 90
  • 365
  • 45
  • 180
A

180

19
Q

Entrance physical examination results are documented on the Report of Medical Examination (DD 2808) and Report of Medical History (using what form)? (Page 14-2)

  • DD 1398-2
  • DD 1410-5
  • DD 2807-1
  • DD 1730-1
A

DD 2807-1

20
Q

What type of testing determines the ability of the eye to discriminate fine detail? (Page 14-16)

  • Visual guile
  • Visual sensitivity
  • Visual acuity
  • Visual intelligence
A

Visual acuity

21
Q

Upon entry into the service, a baseline audiogram is performed and recorded on what form? (Page 14-18)

  • DD 1570
  • DD 1190
  • DD 2150
  • DD 2215
A

DD 2215

22
Q

What is a semi-portable machine that has the capability to test near and distant visual acuity, horizontal and vertical phorias, and stereopsis (depth perception)? (Page 14-17)

  • AFVT
  • VAFT
  • PIP
  • SCALE
A

AFVT

23
Q

What is a record of hearing thresholds an individual has for various sound frequencies? (Page 14-18)

  • Auralgram
  • Phonogram
  • Audiogram
  • Auditorygram
A

Audiogram

24
Q

How many inches from the examinee should the plates be held from the examinee when administering PIP examinations? (Page 14-17)

  • 30
  • 25
  • 15
  • 45
A

30

25
Q

What is a record of electrical impulses as they travel through the heart called? (Page 14-18)

  • EKG
  • EGC
  • GKE
  • KGE
A

EKG

26
Q

The Navy has two methods of testing color discrimination which include the Farnsworth Lantern Test (FALANT) and what else? (Page 14-17)

  • POP
  • PIP
  • VFAC
  • AFVT
A

PIP

27
Q

The Naval Medical Department routinely uses EKGs with how many leads for physical examinations performed on Navy and Marine Corps personnel? (Page 14-20)

  • 6
  • 10
  • 12
  • 4
A

12