CH9 / PROCEDURES FOR AIR NAVIGATION SERVICES Flashcards
PANS-OPS means:
Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations
The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures
is called …
PANS OPS Doc 8168
Which of the following defines transition altitude?
The altitude at which 1013 hPa is set and vertical position then reported as a
flight level
The Transition Level:
Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft
should be expressed as (climb or descent)
Altitude above mean sea level during descent
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent
Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following
conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?
FL 65
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the
vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be
reported:
As altitude
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
4000ft
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter
setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPA when passing:
Transition altitude
In the standard atmosphere FL 150 is equivalent to: (mtr)
4 550 metres
A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out:
At a known elevation on the aerodrome
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used
in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7600
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
Read back the mode and code to be set
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature
unless:
Requested by ATC
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the
transponder:
At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside
airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio
communications failure, you will squawk code:
A 7600 Mode C
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder
to Mode A Code:
7600
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall
continuously operate this mode:
Unless otherwise directed by ATC
During a pre-flight a SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate
repair is not possible:
A flight to the closest airport, where a repair can be made is allowed
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command
shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
7500.
On receipt of a TA, pilots shall:
Not manoeuvre their aircraft in response to traffic advisories (TAs) only
Airborne collision avoidance system {ACAS) indications shall be used by pilots
in:
Both B) and C) are correct
What are the two main objective of altimeter setting?
To provide adequate terrain clearance and vertical separation
Which of the following correctly defines altitude?
Vertical position with reference to MSL
Which of the following correctly defines height?
Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation
Which of the following correctly defines flight level?
Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level
If the QNH is 991 Mb where is FL? {Assume 1 Mb= 30 ft)
Below sea level
Which of the following is the location of FL?
The atmospheric pressure level of 1013.25mb
What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight level?
For given mag track, the VFR level is the IFR level plus 500’ if below FL290
At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC? During
In the taxi clearance
If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set
on your altimeter sub scale ?
The local QNH obtained from FIS or the nearest aerodrome
If you are flying en route below the transition level but are well briefed with
regard to safety altitude, from where would you get altimeter setting information
whilst airborne?
Ask the FIS controller for local aerodrome QNHs
You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller
at 10nm from the edge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are
flying VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?
On clearance to enter the traffic pattern established for a visual join to land
You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable
altimeter read?
The elevation of the position of the aeroplane plus the height of the altimeter
static vent
In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into
consideration ?
1. Adequate terrain clearance is ensured
2. ATC requirements (Danger Areas, restricted airspace etc.) are complied with
3. Minimum traffic separation is ensured
4. Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensured (differential flight levels
applied)
5. The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels
The level chosen complies with the table of cruising levels
1, 2 and 5
When are SSR transponders to be operated?
On all commercial flights
You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used.
What would you squawk?
A/2000+C
1.Your aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference (hi jacking). 2.Without upsetting
the man with the gun, what would you squawk?
Either A/7700 or A/7500 depending upon the situation
What are you required to do if you become aware that your transponder has
failed?
Tell ATC
Which of the following is an invalid squawk?
A/5678+C
On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch), what
is the correct procedure for changing squawk?
Squawk ‘standby’, then change the code; then squawk ‘normal’.
What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?
Airborne Collision Avoidance System
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Obstacle identification surface
What does the abbreviation DER mean?
Departure end of runway
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general
valid within a sector of: ( distance)
25NM
What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below
1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?
Approach to landing
A radial is:
A magnetic bearing EXTENDING from a VOR station (extending)
A circling approach is:
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight
What is the meaning of MEHT?
Minimum eye height
OCH for a precision approach is defined as:
The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold , at
which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the
appropriate obstacle clearance criteria (missed approach)
The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:
1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at MAXIMUM certified
LANDING mass
Runway visual range is reported when it falls below:
1500m
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an
instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway
which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Visual manoeuvring (circling)
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the
runway centreline within:
15°
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the
departure end of runway equals:
0 ft
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure
the initial departure track is within:
15° of the alignment of the runway centreline
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane
is published, the pilot is expected:
To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument
departure procedure?
The terrain surrounding the airport
During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to
before turning onto the desired track?
120 m (394 ft)
The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure
procedure is:
the terrain surrounding the aerodrome
SID terminates at:
the first fix of the en-route phase.
A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the
departure airfield are satisfactory:
cloud ceiling and RVR
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the
pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than:
half scale deflection of the localizer indicator
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an
approach procedure?
the state
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it
is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
Landing runway
A circling approach is:
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle
clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them
On a non-precision approach a so-called “straight-in-approach” is considered
acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway
centreline is:
30 degrees or less
If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling manoeuvre,
what actions should be taken?
Initiate a missed approach
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to
the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: -Nm
25NM
A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach
using bearing, elevation and distance information
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an
instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway
which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is:
Visual manoeuvring (circling)
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
FAP
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue
its descend below the OCA?
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights
in sight
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of
the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach
track is a:
Base turn
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by
a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed
along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
Procedure turn
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the
MDA should not be made until:
1 the pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2 visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3 the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can. be made
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3
In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the
30° offset track is limited to: (time)
1 minutes 30 seconds
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is
called:
Shuttle
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Initial, intermediate and final
When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is
referenced to:
MSL
When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an
intersecting facility assumed for a VOR is: (numbers)
+/- 4.5°
The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between: -distance
3 and 10 NM
The factors considered In the calculations of DA /DH are:
The OCNH based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach
paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go
around, plus a margin for operational factors (decision altitude)
What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment? (Distance)
Reducing from 300 m to 150 m
Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument
approaches?
The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome
What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument
approach?
1/2 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle
clearance for the approach
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be
according to:
Heading
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of
flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of: (degrees)
5°
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? (Timing)
1 minute 30 seconds
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: (degree and bank angle)
Rate of 3° /sec or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank
In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
To the right
What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?
3 degrees per second
What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the
holding area?
Nil
An expected approach time is given:
When an aircraft is instructed to hold
When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what
direction are the turns made?
Left
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft?
Right hand turns/ 1 minute outbound
