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AIR REGULATIONS > CH25 / SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND HAZARDS (GENERAL ASPECTS) > Flashcards

CH25 / SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND HAZARDS (GENERAL ASPECTS) Flashcards

1
Q

MMEL is drawn up by:

A

The manufacturer and approved by the DGCA

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2
Q

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:

A

The airline operator

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3
Q

A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the

procedure to follow is:

A

The minimum equipment list

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4
Q

The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the:

A

Operation manual

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5
Q

In public transport, prior take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

A

External surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual

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6
Q

The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

A

Stalling speed

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7
Q

Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

A

The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems

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8
Q

You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present a bird strike hazard, you must:

A

Immediately inform the appropriate ground station

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9
Q

What is the most effective method for scaring birds?

A

Shell crackers

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10
Q

90% of bird strikes occur

A

Under 500 m

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11
Q

The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away:

A

About two seconds beforehand

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12
Q

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS the:

A

Operator

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13
Q

About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

A

Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust

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14
Q

Noise abatement shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances:

  1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15kt
  2. when the tailwind component, including gust, exceeds 5 kt
  3. when the runway is not clear or dry The combination of correct statements is:
A

1, 2, 3

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15
Q

In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid over flying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:

A

No turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure

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16
Q

What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing in VMC?

A

No ILS or visual guidance

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17
Q

During an approach procedure which involves noise abatement, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration at any point after passing the … or at a point … from the threshold of the landing runway, whichever is earlier.

A

Outer marker, 5NM

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18
Q

In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:

A

Carry out a dry cranking

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19
Q

To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:

  1. A water fire-extinguisher
  2. A powder or chemicalfire-extinguisher
  3. A halon fire-extinguisher
  4. A CO 2 fire-extinguisher

The combination of correct statements is:

A

3,4

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20
Q

You will use a CO, fire-extinguisher for:
1. A paper fire 2. A plastic fire 3. A hydrocarbon fire 4. An electrical fire
The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 3, 4

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21
Q

You will use a dry chemical powder fire-extinguisher for:
1. A paper fire 2. A plastic fire 3. A hydrocarbon fire 4. An electrical fire
The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 3, 4

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22
Q

CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:
1. Class A fires 2. Class B fires 3. Electrical source fires 4. Special fires: metals, gas, chemical product
The combination of correct statements:

A

1 , 2 , 3

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23
Q

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:

A

You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire

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24
Q

In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:
1. A dry powder fire extinguisher
2. A water spray atomizer
3. A water fire-extinguisher
4. A CO, fire extinguisher to the maximum
The combination of correct statements is:

A

1 , 2

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25
Q

A class A fire is a fire of: (what kind)

A

solid material, generally of organic nature

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26
Q

After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes, you:

A

Release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore

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27
Q

H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:

A

Class A fires

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28
Q

The fire-extinguisher types which may be used on Class B fires are:

  1. H2O
  2. CO2
  3. Dry-chemical
  4. Halogen

The combination of correct statements is:

A

2, 3, 4

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29
Q

The fire-extinguisher types which may be used on Class A fires are:
1. H2O 2. CO2 3. Dry-chemical 4. Halogen
The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 3, 4

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30
Q

A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:
1. Class A fires 2. Class B fires 3. Electrical source fires 4. Special fires: metals, gas, chemicals
The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 3, 4

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31
Q

A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish It. The safest extinguishant to use Is:

A

Dry powder

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32
Q

To use(ask) passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

A

Useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen

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33
Q

Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:

A

Temperature of the brakes

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34
Q

The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:

A

Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes

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35
Q

If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:

A

Put on the mask and goggles

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36
Q

Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for the fire fighting is on board:

A

Crash axes or crowbars

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37
Q

A class B fire is a fire of:

A

Liquid or liquefiable solid

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38
Q

Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:

A

All available extinguishers simultaneously

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39
Q

The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the:

A

Ventilation of the cargo compartment

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40
Q

You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of:
1. Solid (fabric, carpet, …) 2. Liquids (ether, gasoline, …) 3 Gas 4. Metals (sodium, …)
The combination of correct statements is:

A

1

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41
Q

You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:

  1. Solids (fabric, plastic, …) 2. Liquids (alcohol, gasoline, …)
  2. Gas 4. Metals (aluminium, magnesium, …) The combination of correct statements is:
A

1, 2, 3

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42
Q

An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut-off-handle. The fire shut-off-handle will be switched off when:

A

Fire is no longer detected

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43
Q

A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. A paper fire 2. A fabric fire 3. An electric fire 4. A wood fire 5. A hydrocarbon fire The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

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44
Q

A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:
1. A paper fire 2. A hydrocarbon fire 3. A fabric fire 4. An electrical fire 5. A wood fire The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

45
Q

A water fire-extinguisher can be used without restriction for:

  1. A paper fire 2. A hydrocarbon fire 3. A fabric fire
  2. An electrical fire 5. A wood fire

The combination of correct statements is:

A

1,3,5

46
Q

After a landing, with overweight and over speed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres: side?

A

Only from front or rear side

47
Q

For a flight deck fire which of the following do you use?

  1. BCF.
  2. Halon.
  3. Dry Powder.
  4. Water.
A

1 & 2

48
Q

An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers. What is the requirement for hand held fire extinguishers.

A

3 conveniently located in the passenger compartment

49
Q

The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 401 and 500 is:

A

6

50
Q

Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?

A

Solid fires

51
Q

You will use a Halon extinguisher for a fire of:

1. Solids (fabric, plastic, …) 2. liquids (alcohol, gasoline, …) 3. Gas 4. metals (aluminium, magnesium, …)

A

1,2,3

52
Q

Fire extinguishers should be located in the pilots compartment and…

A

At each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilots compartment and not readily accessible to the flight crew

53
Q

In case of an engine jet pipe fire while on the ground you:

A

Carry out a dry motoring cycle

54
Q

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

A

Decreases

55
Q

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:

A

13000ft

56
Q

Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not impaired is:

A

8000ft

57
Q

When flying in straight and level flight at FL290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:

A

A rate of climb

58
Q

An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000ft.

What is the initial action by the operating crew?

A

To put on oxygen masks

59
Q

A slow decompression may be caused by:

1 a slight air tightness defect
2 a bad functioning of the pressurisation
3 the loss of a window
4 the loss of a door

The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 3

60
Q

A fast decompression is recognizeable by the following elements: 1. Mist in the cabin 2. Blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. Expansion of body gases 4. Blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 3, 4

61
Q

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000ft, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

A

20750ft

62
Q

Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?

A

10000ft

63
Q

In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:
1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. keep the airplane’s current configuration 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 2, 4

64
Q

If you encounter a “microburst” just after taking-off, at the beginning you will have:
1. A head wind 2. A strong rear wind 3. Better climb performances 4. A diminution of climb gradient 5. An important thrust drop
The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 3

65
Q

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with increasing tailwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1. flies above the glide path 2. flies below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:

A

2, 4

66
Q

Wind shear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including up draughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:

A

Substantial

67
Q

While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a “microburst”. You will expect to encounter:

A

Windshear (vertical and horizontal)

68
Q

One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:

A

Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

69
Q

Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a wind shear?

A

Indicated airspeed

70
Q

An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:

A

80kt

71
Q

When a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:

A

A locking system to prevent any unauthorized access

72
Q

In addition to inform each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:

A

State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO

73
Q

In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:

A

7500

74
Q

The flight deck door should be capable of being:

A

Locked from within the compartment

75
Q

Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which Is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued? The:

A

Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs

76
Q

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to:

A

Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator

77
Q

When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must:

A

Keep the seat belts fastened

78
Q

In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:

A

State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO

79
Q

In case of ditching, the cabin attendants will:

  1. evacuate women and children first 2. have the passengers embark directly in the life rafts
  2. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane’s flotation ability
  3. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane The combination of correct statements is:
A

2, 3, 4

80
Q

Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:

A

A fast depressurization

81
Q

In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services?

A

ATC

82
Q

If ditching is inevitable:

A

The use of life jackets is to be reiterated before the ditching

83
Q

From the following list:
1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The jettison operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:

A

1, 2, 3, 4

84
Q

Fuel Jettison should be carried out: (lvl)

A

Above 6,000ft AGL

85
Q

Fuel Jettison:

A

Is a procedure to reduce mass in an emergency only

86
Q

A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:

A

The technical instructionsfor the safetransport of dangerous goods by air

87
Q

In compliance with the CAR-OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a:

A

Transport document for hazardous materials

88
Q

The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are specified in the:

A

Operation manual

89
Q

Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:

A

The ICAO document entitled “Technical Instructions for the safe transportation of dangerous goods by air’’

90
Q

ICAO Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:

A

The safety of the air transport of hazardous materials

91
Q

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:

A

The shipper

92
Q

Can dangerous goods be carried in the passenger cabin or on the flight deck?

A

Yes, but only goods specified in the technical instructions

93
Q

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by: (percent)

A

15%

94
Q

A runway is considered damp when:

A

Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give a shiny appearance

95
Q

A runway is considered wet when:
1. It is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3mm of water 2. The amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance 3. The amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water 4. It bears stagnant sheets of water
The combination of correct statements is:

A

1, 3

96
Q

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:

A

Depth of the standing water of the runway

97
Q

The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a:

A

Combination of the terms: poor, medium, good

98
Q

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:

A

Contaminated

99
Q

A runway is considered damp when:

A

Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance

100
Q

The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway is known as:

A

Hydroplaning

101
Q

Viscous hydroplaning is caused by:

A

A smooth and dirty runway surface

102
Q

What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a “Heavy” aircraft preceeding a “Light” aircraft

A

6NM

103
Q

A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:

A

Less than 760m

104
Q

A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVYaircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUMaircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:

A

2 minutes

105
Q

In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a MEDIUM aircraft is taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft and both are using the same runway?

A

2 minutes

106
Q

In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?

A

Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft-2 minutes

107
Q

What Is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a LIGHT aircraft Is taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft and both are using the same runway? (Time)

A

2 minutes

108
Q

The letter “L” Is written in the wake turbulence box of a fllghtplan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:

A

7000kg

109
Q

Wake turbulence risk is highest:

A

When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind

AIR REGULATIONS (28 decks)

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