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Hazmate! > Ch. 4 Estimating Potential Harm & Planning A Response > Flashcards

Ch. 4 Estimating Potential Harm & Planning A Response Flashcards

1
Q

Two main organizations establish/publish toxicological data used by hazmat/WMD responders:

A

ACGIH

OSHA

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2
Q

The point at which a hazardous material/WMD begins to affect a person.

A

TLV Threshold Limit Value

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3
Q

Damage a hazmat/WMD will inflict on a human being is a function of the _______________ of the released substance, as well as the ___________ along with the ___________.

A

Physical and chemical PROPERTIES.
CONDITIONS under which it was released.
DURATION of the exposure.
pain CPD will inflict on a human being

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4
Q

Systems established by ACGIH, OSHA and NIOSH

A 
ACGIH = TLV
OSHA = PEL (the Established standard limit of exposure-hazmat)
NIOSH = REL (recommended exposure limit)

ACGIH = guidelines
OSHA = law
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5
Q

PEL, REL, and TLV/TWA measure maximum, time weighted concentration of material to which ____________ can be exposed to w/o suffering any adverse effects over ______________.

A

95% of healthy adults.

40 hr workweek

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6
Q

The _______ is the established standard limit of exposure to a hazardous material.

A

Permissible exposure limit (PEL)

PEL-OSHA, which is law. ACGIH is guidelines

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8
Q

Gases expressed:

A

ppm, ppb, ppt

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9
Q

Substances other than gases.

Fibers and dusts

A

mg/m3

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10
Q

Max concentration person exposed to 15 min, 4 times a day with no chronic/irreversible tissue damage. Minimum 1 hr rest period.

A

TLV/STEL

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11
Q

Max airborne concentration exposed 8 hrs a day, 40 hrs a week with NO ILL effects

A

TLV/TWA

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12
Q

Max concentration worker should not be exposed to, for even a second

A

TLV/C

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13
Q

Direct or airborne contact with material could result in possible or significant exposure from absorption through skin, mucous membranes or eyes.

A

Threshold limit value/skin

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14
Q

REL

A

Recommended exposure limit, established by NIOSH and similar to PEL

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15
Q

Three types of IDLH atmospheres:

A

Toxic.
Flammable.
Oxygen deficient.

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16
Q

Exposure guidelines used to identify 3 basic atmospheres or environments at hazmat/WMD emergency?

A

Green-low hazard/risk. Normal work uniform.
Yellow-hazard increasing. Some level of PPE (splash/some level respiratory).
Red-high hazard/risk. Highest level of skin/respiratory. Unprotected fatal. Above IDLH.

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17
Q

Levels of atmospheres (3)

A

Safe-no harmful hazmat, can handle routine emergencies w/o PPE.
Unsafe-hazmat no longer contained, has created unsafe condition/atmosphere. Exposed will probably experience some form of acute/chronic injury.
Dangerous-serious, irreversible injury or death may occur

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18
Q

Atmospheric concentration of a toxic, corrosive or asphyxiant substance poses an immediate threat to life or could cause irreversible or delayed adverse health effects.

A

IDLH

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19
Q

(Hazmat) Number of exposures determined by: (3)

A

Location of incident.
Physical/chemical properties.
Amount of progress in protecting exposures by isolating released site or taking protective actions (evac or shelter in place).

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20
Q

_____________ is one of the first actions responders must take at a hazardous materials/WMD incident.

A

Isolation of the hazard area

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21
Q

Isolating a contaminated atmosphere is always conjoined in some way with:

A

Denial of entry (I.e. restriction of access) to the site

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22
Q

Sheltering in place. The method is desirable only when the population being protected in place:

A

Can care for themselves.
Control the air.
Structure can be sealed.

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23
Q

P. 88 A small spill means that a spill involves: (ERG)

A

Less than 52 gallons (200L) of liquid.

Less than 661 pounds (300kg) of solid

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23
Q

A ________ of any kind contains a large amount of solute for a given amount of solution.
A _________, by contrast, contains a small amount of solute for a given solution.

A

Concentrated solution.

Dilute solution

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24
Q

NFPA 472 awareness are “______” where OSHA awareness are “_________”.

A

Personnel.

Responders

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25
______ level personnel could be expected to initiate some form of protective action such as - directing civilians away from contaminated area OR - directing certain populations of civilians to shelter in place
Awareness
26
To estimate size of release, subtract _____________ from __________.
Amount remaining IN the container. Maximum capacity of container. -computed by looking at shipping paper to see whether deliveries have been made *estimations "quite rough"*
27
_________ , when discussing corrosives, is an expression of how much of the acid or the base is dissolved in a solution, usually water.
Concentration
28
Flammable range of natural gas
5-15% | 4-14% in H.O.T.
29
Using detection and monitoring equipment properly requires: (3)
Some technical EXPERTISE. A LOT of common sense. Commitment to CONTINUAL training.
30
The strength of a corrosive refers to the degree of ________ that occurs in a solution.
Ionization
31
The words "strong" and "weak" do NOT correspond with :
"concentrated" and "dilute"
32
Strong corrosive will react more _____ with ______ materials such as _________ AND be more _______ when they come in to contact with _____ such as ________.
Vigorously, incompatible, organic substances Aggressive, metallic, metal shelving/shovels *aggressive rock=Metallica*
33
Skin absorption is enhanced by (4)
Abrasions. Cuts. Heat. Moisture.
34
Acids have a strong affinity for ______ while alkaline material dissolves _________ that make up skin tissue and change solid tissue into a soapy-like liquid.
Moisture. | Fats and lipids
35
______ burns are often much deeper and more destructive than are _____ burns.
Alkaline. | Acid
36
Chemicals such as ______ will immediately damage skin or body tissues UPON CONTACT.
Corrosives
37
_________ are actions that MAY OR MAY NOT involve the actual stopping of the leak or release of a hazardous material. May include preventing further injury and controlling or containing the spread of hazardous material.
Tactical control objectives. | You can have good tactics, you may or may not get shot
38
The ______________ is used to determine the safest, most effective, and fastest route to the hazardous materials/WMD scene.
Information obtained from the INITIAL CALL for help
39
_______ should be measurable, flexible and time sensitive; they should also be based on the chosen strategy.
Response objectives
40
____________ will keep responders safe and provide a means to control the incident effectively, preventing further harm to persons and property.
Proper incident planning
42
Examples of defensive actions: (4)
Diking and damming. Stopping flow remotely from valve/shut-off device. Diluting/diverting. Suppressing/dispersing.
43
EVADE for secondary devices
``` Evaluate the scene. Visually scan before providing care. Avoid touching/moving anything. Designate control zones. Evacuate victims, other responders and nonessential personnel. ```
43
As the responders begin to treat victims, the _________ the takes place.
Secondary ATTACK (ch. 4)
44
Determination of which PPE is needed is based on: (4)
Hazardous material involved. Specific hazards present. Physical state of the material. Tasks to be performed by the OPERATIONS level responder
45
_____ is so important that it can be viewed as the "defining element of PPE"
Respiratory protection | vs. most important piece - SCBA face PIECE
46
Standard on Vapor-Protective Ensembles
NFPA 1991
47
Standard on Protective Ensembles for First Responders to CBRN Terrorism Incidents
NFPA 1994
48
Standard on Liquid-Splash Protective Esembles
NFPA 1992
49
The NFPA does not "_______" garments but instead publishes performance standards (____, _____, _____ and _______) and third party laboratories ______ to determine if they meet NFPA standards.
"Certify". Durability, flammability, chemical resistance, cold temperature. Test manufacturers garments
50
LEVELS of PPE per OSHA (not Levels of CPC per EPA)
``` Street clothing/work uniforms (nuisance powder-support functions AWAY from areas of contamination). Structural firefighting (support functions or low tox/high flamm). High-temperature protective clothing and equipment (short term exposures to high temps). Chemical-Protective clothing and equipment (prevent chemicals from coming in contact with body) ```
51
Flow or movement of a hazardous chemical through closures (zippers), seams, porous materials, pinholes, or other imperfections
Penetration
52
Chemical-resistant materials
Inhibit/resist penetration, permeation, and degradation
53
Physical destruction or decomposition of a clothing material owing to chemical exposure, general use or ambient conditions. May be evidenced by charring, swelling, color changes, or dissolving.
Degradation
54
Process by which hazardous chemical moves through a given material at the MOLECULAR level. Occurs through the material itself rather then through openings.
Permeation
55
NFPA 1991 tests for:
Permeation resistance against: 21 standard chemicals. SEVERAL toxic industrial chemicals (TIC). 2 chemical weapons.
56
NFPA 1992 test for:
Penetration resistance against: | 5 chemicals
57
EPA levels of CPC
Level A - fully encapsulating, above IDLH for skin. Level B - high level of respiratory, less skin. Level C - when airborne substance is known, concentration is measured and criteria for APR is met. Level D - atmosphere contains no known hazard, work functions PRECLUDE splashes, immersion or unexpected inhalation.
58
High level of respiratory protection BUT less skin protection CPC, boots, gloves and SCBA. Defining piece is SCBA or some other type of SAR. (Respiratory distinguishes this level vs next lower level) Chemical resistant clothing. *minimum level of protection in UNKNOWN environment* Optional: face shield
Level B
59
``` Standard work clothing plus chemical protective clothing and a form of respiratory protection (APR or PAPR). APR - half face (eye pro) or full face. Airborne substance known and measured. Skin/eye exposure unlikely. Optional: escape mask ```
Level C
60
Fully encapsulating garment. Completely ENVELOPS wearer AND respiratory protection, gloves, boots, and communication equipment. Operating environment above IDLH for skin. Safety boot WITH steel shank and toe
Level A
61
Safety boots/shoes (not chemical resistant). Safety glasses/splash goggles. No radio. Optional: gloves (only time and no mention of inner/outer). Optional: No long cotton underwear
Level D
62
Operational level can wear liquid-splash-protective clothing when: (3)
They are assigned to enter initial site. Protect decontamination personnel. Construct isolation barriers (dikes/diversions/retention areas/dams).
63
NFPA 1994 covers three classes of garment which differ from traditional levels
``` Class 2, 3, and 4 2 - liquid splash with SCBA. 3 - liquid splash with APR. 4 - particles and liquid-borne viral protection. *though of as a system* ```
64
NIOSH Guidelines Any SCBA certified CBRN meets requirement of NFPA _______ as well as passed a battery of tests that measured performance against _____ and ______.
1981. Sarin. Sulfur mustard.
65
OSHA HAZWOPER outlines Health and Safety Management Program, which includes 4 broad elements:
Medical surveillance (pre-employment screening and periodic medical exams). Treatment plans for acute on-scene illness and injury. Thorough recordkeeping of all elements of program. Mechanism to periodically review entire process.
66
CORNERSTONE of effective health and safety management system for responders.
Medical surveillance
67
Two primary objectives of medical surveillance are:
Determine whether individual can PERFORM his/her assigned duties (including use of personal protective clothing and equipment). AND. To DETECT any CHANGES in body system functions caused by physical or chemical exposures.
68
As part of medical surveillance program, responders should be examined by a physician:
Once a year or biennially based on physician's recommendation *specific requirements for responder assigned to any duty where respiratory protection will be used 29 CFR 1910.134*
69
To comply with NFPA 1981, positive-pressure CBRN-certified units must maintain an air flow ____________.
Inside the mask AT ALL TIMES
70
Medical monitoring vs medical surveillance
Monitoring (use monitor at the scene). -on scene evaluation who may experience adverse effects. -support function that takes place on scene of emergency. Surveillance. -examined by physician once a year or biennially
71
Use of positive-pressure SCBA prevents:
BOTH inhalation AND ingestion
72
Supplied-air respirators (SAR's)
Aka positive-pressure air-line respirators. Uses external air source (compressor or compressed air cylinder). Useful for: decon, clean-up and remedial work. Equipped with escape cylinder (5 minutes of breathing air). Length of hose-limit movement and potential for physical/chemical damage
73
Closed-circuit SCBA
Rebreather. When long work periods required. Exhaled air scrubbed free of carbon dioxide, supplemented with small amount of oxygen and rebreathed. No exhaled air released into environment. Mid-1800s mine workers
74
Air-Purifying Respirators
Remove particulates, vapors and contaminants. Appropriate for volatile solids and remedial clean-up/recovery operations. Absorbent material - hazardous gas/vapor OR Particle removing - mechanical filter. Minimum 19.5% oxygen. Drawbacks - ineffective if contaminant changes and continually monitored for substance/oxygen
75
Powered Air-Purifying Respirators
Similar to APR but include small fan in mask. PAPRs not true positive pressure-can outbreathe flow of supplied air. Main advantage - dismisses work of breathing, helps reduce fogging and provides constant flow of cool air.
76
Decontamination makes ______, _____, and ______ safe by reducing or, in some cases, eliminating the offending substance.
Personnel. Equipment. Supplies.
77
Process of quickly reducing or removing the bulk contaminants from a victim as rapidly as possible. Undertaken in potentially life-threatening situations WITHOUT the FORMAL establishment of a decontamination corridor, a controlled area located within the warm zone where decon is performed.
Emergency decontamination
78
Involves removing contaminated clothing and dousing the victim with large quantities of water
Emergency decon
79
If emergency decon has not been established:
Isolate exposed victims in contained area and establish an appropriate area. Prevent runoff, divert stream of water. Pull handline, maneuver in circle, and throw a tarp -use booster/small handline for decon. Quick way for CONSCIOUS victim
80
If adequate decon is not performed, the victim:
Should not be allowed in transport ambulance or emergency room
81
Process of transferring a hazardous material, or the hazardous component of a WMD, from its source to people, animals, the environment, or equipment, than can act as a carrier
Contamination p. 103. If eliminate "hazardous component of a WMD", it becomes secondary (or cross ) contamination on p. 104
82
When possible, it is important to obtain _________ for the substance to which the person was exposed and to make sure the information goes to the hospital with the patient.
A safety data sheet (SDS)
83
If victim is a candidate for emergency decon and at a fixed facility, what is most easily accessible location for this?
Emergency safety showers and eyewash stations
84
Secondary contamination can occur several ways: (3)
Contaminated victim comes into physical contact with ANOTHER PERSON. Bystander/first responder comes into contact with a contaminated OBJECT from the hot zone. A decontaminated responder REENTERS the decon area and comes in contact with a contaminated person or object.
85
By removing the appropriate clothing of a contaminated victim, you have ___________ the exposure.
Significantly reduced
86
Process by which a contaminant is carried out of the hot zone and contaminates people, animals, the environment, or equipment.
Secondary (or cross) contamination p. 106
86
The physical and/or chemical process of reducing and preventing the spread of contaminants from...
Decontamination
87
OSHA created in 1971 with three goals:
- improve worker safety. - conduct research. - publish toxicological data

Hazmate! (11 decks)

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