Ch. 10, 11, 12 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Meiosis usually produces how many daughter cells?

A

Four haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At which stage of meiosis are sister chromatids seperated from each other?

A

Anaphase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The part of meiosis that is most similar to mitosis is..

A

Meiosis II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a muscle cell of a typical organism has 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in a gamete of that same organism?

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the genetic content of the two daughter cells in prophase II of meiosis?

A

two haploid cells with two copies of each gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do telophase I and telophase II differ during meiosis in animal cells?

A

The chromosomes are usually still condensed during telophase I but recondense after telophase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Crossing-over in meiosis occurs during..

A

prophase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does crossing over occur in mitosis?

A

crossing over does not occur in mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What distinguishes prophase I of meiosis from prophase of mitosis?

A

In prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up, while it does not occur in mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When does DNA synthesis occur in meiosis and mitosis?

A

In S part of interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When do the homologous chromosomes line up in meiosis?

A

Metaphase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces…

A

gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During which phase do chromosome first become visible?

A

prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What structure is responsible for moving the chromosomes during mitosis?

A

spindle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cytokinesis begins in which phase?

A

telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The process of mitosis ensures that…

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A spindle forms during which phase?

A

prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can be determined from a karyotype?

A

the sex of the individual and the number of chromosomes present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Compared to the X chromosome, the Y chromosome is…

A

smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some external events that could cause a cell to divide?

A

death of other cells, horomones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens when a cell gets too big?

A

It divides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a gene that codes for a positive cell-cycle regulator called?

A

proto-oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the main prerequisite for clearance at the G2 checkpoint?

A

accurate and complete DNA replication has occured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are changes to the order of nucleotides in a segment of DNA that codes for a protein?

A

mutations

25
Q

At which of the cell-cycle checkpoints do external forces have the greatest influence?

A

G2

26
Q

Identical copies of chromatin held together by cohesin at the centromere are called?

A

sister chromatids

26
Q

The first level of DNA organization in a eukaryotic cell is maintained by which molecule?

A

histones

27
Q

Attachment of the mitotic spindle fibers to the kinetochores is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?

A

prometaphase

28
Q

The chromosomes become visible under a light microscope during which stage of mitosis?

A

prophase

29
Q

If the M checkpoint is not cleared, what stage of mitosis will be blocked?

A

anaphase

30
Q

Is this characteristic of mitosis, meiosis, or both? One round of DNA duplication

A

both

31
Q

If Huntington’s disease is dominant and always deadly, why do people still have it?

A

Because it doesn’t show up until after people have passed it on

32
Q

When two genes are on the same chromosome, which of Mendel’s laws will be violated

A

The law of independent assortment

33
Q

The law of independent assortment

A

All of these are true

34
Q

Human eye color depends on a pathway of genes. Brown eyes mask green eyes which mask blue eyes. What pattern is this?

A

Epistasis

35
Q

When DNA is tightly packed, the chromosomes are called…

A

chromatids

36
Q

When proto-oncogenes mutate, what do they become?

A

oncogenes

37
Q

A male who is color-blind marries a heterozygous woman. What percent of their male children will be color-blind?

A

50%

38
Q

All cells must go through this stage.

A

G1

39
Q

At this checkpoint, the cell checks if there are enough building blocks to duplicate the DNA and if the DNA is intact.

A

G1

40
Q

A recessive trait will be observed in individuals that are ________ for that trait.

A

homozygous

41
Q

The ABO blood groups in humans are expressed as the IA, IB, and i alleles. The IA allele encodes the A blood group antigen, IB encodes B, and i encodes O. Both A and B are dominant to O. If a heterozygous blood type A parent (IAi) and a heterozygous blood type B parent (IBi) mate, one quarter of their offspring will have AB blood type (IAIB) in which both antigens are expressed equally. Therefore, ABO blood groups are an example of:

A

multiple alleles and codominance

42
Q

In a mating between two individuals that are heterozygous for a recessive lethal allele that is expressed in utero, what genotypic ratio (homozygous dominant:heterozygous:homozygous recessive) would you expect to observe in the offspring?

A

1:2:0

43
Q

If the allele encoding polydactyly (six fingers) is dominant why do most people have five fingers?

A

Genetic elements suppress the polydactyl gene.

44
Q

The forked line and probability methods make use of what probability rule?

A

product rule

45
Q

How many different offspring genotypes are expected in a trihybrid cross between parents heterozygous for all three traits when the traits behave in a dominant and recessive pattern? How many phenotypes?

A

27 genotypes; 8 phenotypes

46
Q

Assuming no gene linkage, in a dihybrid cross of AABB x aabb with AaBb F1 heterozygotes, what is the ratio of the F1 gametes (AB, aB, Ab, ab) that will give rise to the F2 offspring?

A

1:1:1:1

47
Q

epistasis

A

antagonistic interaction between genes such that one gene masks or interferes with the expression of another

48
Q

hemizygous

A

presence of only one allele for a characteristic, as in X-linkage; hemizygosity makes descriptions of dominance and recessiveness irrelevant

49
Q

law of dominance

A

in a heterozygote, one trait will conceal the presence of another trait for the same characteristic

50
Q

law of independent assortment

A

genes do not influence each other with regard to sorting of alleles into gametes; every possible combination of alleles is equally likely to occur

51
Q

law of segregation

A

paired unit factors (i.e., genes) segregate equally into gametes such that offspring have an equal likelihood of inheriting any combination of factors

52
Q

product rule

A

probability of two independent events occurring simultaneously can be calculated by multiplying the individual probabilities of each event occurring alone

53
Q

sum rule

A

probability of the occurrence of at least one of two mutually exclusive events is the sum of their individual probabilities

54
Q

test cross

A

cross between a dominant expressing individual with an unknown genotype and a homozygous recessive individual; the offspring phenotypes indicate whether the unknown parent is heterozygous or homozygous for the dominant trait

55
Q

blending theory of inheritance

A

hypothetical inheritance pattern in which parental traits are blended together in the offspring to produce an intermediate physical appearance

56
Q

discontinuous variation

A

inheritance pattern in which traits are distinct and are transmitted independently of one another

57
Q

Human papillomavirus can cause cervical cancer. The virus encodes E6, a protein that binds p53. Based on this fact and what you know about p53, what effect do you think E6 binding has on p53 activity?

A

E6 binding marks p53 for degradation

58
Q
A