Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Essential Cell Biology > Cell Bio Lab Exam Flashcards > Flashcards

Cell Bio Lab Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Look at microscope and identify Ocular Lens, Objective Lens, Stage, Clips, Course Focus Knob, Find Focus Knob, and Diaphragm

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When examining objects under a microscope, always begin your observations with the _______ power lens, usually ____x.

A

Lowest, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When using a microscope, only use the coarse focus knob with the _______ power objective lens

A

Lowest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How to do find the total magnification of the microscope?

A

Multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens (10x) by magnification of objective lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three shapes of bacteria

A

Cocci, Bacillus, and Spirillum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is principle behind a detergent-based cell lysis solution?

A

The detergent dissolves the phospholipids of cell membranes by forming water soluble complexes with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is cell lysate?

A

The contents of dissolved membranes, cellular proteins, DNA, and other contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What was the purpose of the gatorade when collecting cheek cells?

A

The sodium in the gatorade ensured that cells would not break open and release their DNA before being collected because it is compatible with the osmotic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is DNA insoluble in?

A

Ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why was ethanol used to extract the DNA from the Cell Lysate in Lab 2?

A

DNA is insoluble in Ethanol, allowing it to precipitate out of the lysate and become visible as stringy fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What two bases are Purines?

A

Adenine and Guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What two bases are Pyrimidines?

A

Cytosine and Guanine?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why do Pyrimidines and Purines come together in DNA?

A

Only three rings can fit between the two sugar-phosphate chains so they combine with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is DNA coiled so tightly to fit inside the nucleus of a cell?

A

It is tightly bound around histones which then create loop-like nucleosomes, and then the nucleosomes coil and condense to become chromatins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Agarose isolated from?

A

Seaweed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How will DNA travel through a gel during Gel Electrophoresis?

A

The smallest DNA fragments will move furthest while larger fragments move much less. DNA is negatively charged so when the electrical current comes the DNA will move toward the positive side of the apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Does the percentage of Agarose in Gel matter?

A

Yes, if there is a greater percentage the DNA will have a more difficult time moving than a low percentage which is why we used 0.8% in our lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In Gel Electrophoresis, the higher the voltage, the ________ the gel runs and DNA migrates

A

Faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gel Electrophoresis:
Black end is _______
Red end is _________

A

Negative
Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Restriction enzymes are ______ that are produced by bacteria to precent or restrict invasion by foreign DNA

A

Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A nuclease is any enzyme that cuts the phosphodiester bonds of the DNA ________ while an Endonuclease is an enzyme that cuts somewhere ______ the DNA molecule

A

Backbone
Within

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Restriction enzymes appear to be made solely by _________

A

Prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a DNA Palindrome?

A

A sequence in which the top strand is ready 5’ to 3’ and the same for the bottom but other way
It is a restriction site of 4-6 base paires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are sticky ends and what enzyme is responsible for creating them?

A

The cutting of DNA but not directly across from each other on the molecule leaving “tails”
EcoRI and HindIII produce Sticky Ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are Blunt ends and what enzyme is responsible for creating them?

A

The cutting of two strands of DNA directly across from each other producing a straight end
SmaI produces blunt ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What enzyme puts back together DNA fragments that are generated from restriction digestion?

A

DNA Ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the definition of Recombinant DNA

A

DNA molecule that has been assembled from different starting molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the definition of DNA Splicing?

A

The cutting and linking of DNA molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the point of DNA Splicing?

A

To remove a functional DNA fragment from the chromosome of one organism and combine it with the DNA of another organism to study how the gene works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the sugar found in then backbone of DNA?

A

Deoxyribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where does the restriction enzyme EcoRI cut?

A

G and A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An important feature of restriction enzymes is that each enzyme only recognizes a specific palindrome and cuts only at the specific ________

A

sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

A bacterium-invading virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why do restriction enzymes work best at 37 Degrees Celsius?

A

They were isolated from bacteria that live inside warm-blooded animals and therefore are used to that temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are plasmids?

A

Small, circular DNA molecules that can reside in cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why can a cells DNA copy plasmids?

A

Plasmids contain an origin of replication allowing DNA to begin synthesizing a new molecule here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In the plasmid lab, after the bacteria absorb the plasmid DNA, they __________ the new antibiotic resistance genes

A

Express

38
Q

What is a probe?

A

A special DNA “hook”
usually a form of DNA called single-stranded DNA

39
Q

What is southern blotting?

A

Transferring DNA fragments from a gel directly to a membrane so the pattern of the fragments would be preserved

40
Q

What is Souther Hybridization Analysis?

A

The combination of restriction analysis, transfer to a membrane, and hybridization to a probe

41
Q

What is genetic transformation?

A

it is the change caused by genes and involves the insertion of a gene into an organism to change the traits

42
Q

What is genetic transformation used for?

A

in agriculture it can be used to add genes that code for frost, pest, or spoilage resistance

43
Q

What is gene therapy?

A

The genetic transformation of a sick person’s cells with healthy copies of the defective gene that caused the disease

44
Q

What is the source of the Green Fluorescent Protein Gene?

A

A Bioluminescent Jellyfish

45
Q

Following the transformation procedure in the GFP lab, what trait will the bacteria exhibit?

A

They will fluoresce

46
Q

What is the recent occurrence of bacterial resistance to antibiotics due to?

A

The transmission of plasmids

47
Q

The gene for GFP can be switched on in transformed cells by adding the sugar ____________ to the cells’ nutrient medium

A

Arabinose

48
Q

To genetically transform an entire organism, you must insert a new gene into _____ cell in the organism

A

Every

49
Q

The pGLO plasmid carries the GFP gene that codes for the green fluorescent proteins and a gene that codes for a protein that gives the bacteria resistance to an antibiotic

A
50
Q

What plate from the pGLO lab glowed?

A

LB/Amp/Ara/+pGLO plate
All of the shit to make it glow

51
Q

What four sites does the pGLO Plasmid have?

A

Ampicillin Resistance site allows pGLO plasmid to resist ampicillin
Arabinose Promoter allows expression of GFP if arabinose is present
Origin of Replication allows for reproduction of plasmid
Green Fluorescent Protein

52
Q

What was the purpose of the chromatography column in the pGLO lab?

A

The chromatography column contains hydrophobic beads and high salt buffers helped to keep the hydrophobia proteins stuck to the beads while all other shit drained through

53
Q

What did the binding buffer do in the GFP lab?

A

Allowed the GFP to remain with the chromatography column

54
Q

What did the elution buffer in the GFP lab do?

A

It contained less salt and allowed the hydrophobic GFP to no longer stick to the beads and instead drip down the column

55
Q

What is another word for Sanger Sequencing?

A

Chain termination

56
Q

How does Sanger Sequencing (Chain Termination) work?

A

DNA is added to four tubes, DNTP is added, ddNTP is added, and DNA polyermase is added to synthesize the strand with incorporated ddNTPs that will stop the synthesis when one is added
This can then be run through gel electrophoresis

57
Q

What is the difference between a deoxynucleotide and dideoxynucleotide?

A

Dideoxynucleotide lacks the 3’ OH group that is necessary for the phosphodiester bond to form

58
Q

What is cycle sequencing ?

A

one tube that incorporates all necessary components that allows the termination event to be detected via wavelengths of light

59
Q

What is DNA profiling?

A

The use of molecular genetic methods used to determine the genotype of a DNA sequence

60
Q

What is the purpose of PCR

A

Polyermase Chain Reaction produces large amount of a specific piece of DNA from trace amounts of staring material

61
Q

What are the requirements for PCR to occur?

A

One DNA template strand, DNA polymerase, 2 DNA Primers, and 4 Nucleotides, and Reaction Buffer

62
Q

What are polymorphic sequences?

A

The less than 0.5% of the human genome that differs and can be used for DNA profiling

63
Q

The DNA sequences that are used in forensic labs are non-coding regions that contain segments of _______________

A

Short Tandem Repeats

64
Q

What is the Denaturation Process of PCR Amplicatiion

A

Heat is used to melt apart or denature the double stranded DNA template

65
Q

What is the Annealing Process of PCR Amplification?

A

Sequences of DNA either upstream or downstream of target sequence are used to make primers that will serve as a start and stop point for amplification

66
Q

What is the Extension Process of PCR Amplification?

A

DNA polymerase binds to primers and adds nucleotide and synthesizes new copies of the double stranded template

67
Q

In our PCR lab, what was DNA polymerase isolated from to perform at temperatures of 52-94 degrees celsius

A

A thermophilic Bacterium

68
Q

What are the three possible ways to create transgenic animals?

A

Pronuclear Microinjection
Retroviral Transformation
CRISPR Cas9 Transformation

69
Q

What occurs in the the process of Pronuclear Microinjection?

A

Female mouse super ovulates breeds with male but embryo is collected and injected in nuclei before sperm nuclei fuse
Embryo transfer to a pseudopregnant girl then occurs

70
Q

What occurs in the process of Retroviral Transformation?

A

The virus is incorporated into the cell’s genome and cell presents new genes
Bad because random insertion of the genome occurs so it may mess with the cells DNA

71
Q

What occurs in the CRISPR Cas9 Transformation Process?

A

Use of guide RNA complementary sequence to insertion site
Pros involve picking exactly where you want your sequence to be in genome
This is targeted not random

72
Q

Over thousands of years, each of the ________ major world crop plants has been extensively improved

A

15

73
Q

What is Plant Biotechnology and what does it allow for?

A

An extension of traditional plant breeding that allows for transfer of only one gene

74
Q

What is the difference between traditional plant breeding and plant biotechnology?

A

Traditional plant breeding involved the combination of multiple genes at once while Plant Biotechnology allowed for the combination of one desired gene

75
Q

List three ways agricultural productivity is limited

A

Weeds, Pests, and Diseases

76
Q

How does Glyphosphate work?

A

Blocks EPSPS and therefore does not allow plant to produce proteins , leading it to die

77
Q

What would the Glyphosphate Resistant Gene do for crops?

A

Allow plant to be sprayed with chemical and no get harmed but weeds around would die

78
Q

What is a problem with Glyphosphate?

A

Weeds become resistant to Round-up creating super weeds

79
Q

How does Bt as an insecticide work?

A

The Cry protein in the Bt binds and creates pores in intestinal lining of insects causing death
Now a modified version of Cry gene can be placed within plants so when insects eat it they will die but humans will not

80
Q

What is a problem with the development of insect resistance?

A

Other organisms such as Monarch Butterflies and unintentionally targeted

81
Q

What occurs within papaya’s to withstand the ring spot virus?

A

Papaya’s are transformed with gene for coat protein of PRSV so that the gene from the pathogen is used in plant so that virus can bind to its receptors

82
Q

What is Golden Rice?

A

The addition of three genes that synthesize beta-carotene being implemented into rice allowing for body to convert to vitamin A

83
Q

What is Wheat transformation and how does it work?

A

Embyros from a stage are collected and bombarded with DNA coated gold particles
Cells that survive are grown and trait is seen

84
Q

Agrobacterium Method

A

It naturally infect plants and acts like a fat tumor so scientists can hijack that and replace it with a gene of interest to get into the platns

85
Q

How did antisense technology work to keep tomatoes from spoiling?

A

Antisense mRNA united with plants mRNA and inactivated it. No mRNA was produced and therefore no proteins were produced and no decay occured

86
Q

What can be classified as an embryonic stem cell and what are they dubbed after that time period?

A

8 weeks post fertilization
Fetal cells and are totipotent

87
Q

Adult stem cells are __________ and have been isolated from various organs in the body

A

multipotent

88
Q

Why was Dolly the sheep named Dolly?

A

The cells used to create her were taken from the mammary gland of an adult

89
Q

creation of dolly the sheep summary

A

Cells taken from mammary gland of adult
placed in culture
growing in G1 phase
Eggs were removed from oocyte donor and enucleated
Somatic cell and enucleated egg fused together
transfered to surragote

90
Q

What was the first animal to go extinct twice?

A

Pyrenean Ibex

91
Q

What is the difference between animal therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning

A

Reproductive intent is to produce a new being
Therapeutic cloning provides stem cells

Essential Cell Biology (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions