Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GI cancers > cardiovascular questions > Flashcards

cardiovascular questions Flashcards

1
Q

3 things objectively tested for in asthma diagnosis

A

REVERSABLE AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION

EOSINOPHILIC INFLAMMATION

PRESENCE OF ALLERGEN SENSITIZATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

After exposure to the allergen in asthma what happens in terms of:

a) cell recruitment
b) epithelial changes
c) structural changes
d) muscle changes

A

EOSINOPHILS AND INFLAMMATOrY CELLS

MORE GOBLET CELLS

MORE MATRIX

MUSCLE HYPERTROPHY AND INCREASED PROLIFERATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 genes that are increased in asthma

A

il33

OSDMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 ILs involved in asthma?

A

IL4 - COVERSION OF B CELLS TO PLASMA CELLS (MSKING IGE)

IL5 - EOSINIPHILIA

IL13 - MUCUS SECRETION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 ways in which eosinophilia may be detected in stable disease?

A

blood test
exhaled NO
sputum test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is needed for asthma diagnosis?

A

SYMPTOMS AND 2 TESTS

  1. CLINICAL ASSESSMENT
  2. 2 OBJECTIVE TESTS (FENOM SPIROMETRY (OVER 35/40), REVERSABLE AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

in the management of asthma, which 2 things reduce airway eosinophilic inflammation?

A

LEUKOTREINE AGONISTS AND INHALED CORTICSTERIODS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

2 things given in asthma for symptomatic relief

A

b2 agonists

anticholinergic therapies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 steroid sparing therapies given in severe asthma

A

IL5 Agonist

anti IGE and

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4 things that come together and cause an acute lung attack?

A

pollution
allergy
smoke
pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 conditions for omalizumab ( anti ige)

A
  • 6 OVER
  • SERUM IGE 30-200
  • OTHER THERAPIES NOT WORKING
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how does anti il5 ab therapy work?

A

stops eosinophil recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is needed for anti il5 ab therapy

A

REDUCTION IN ATTACKS BY 50%

SERUM EOSINIPILIA MORE THAN 300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

5 causes of lung cancer other than smoking

A 
FUMES 
RADON GAS 
ASBESTOS 
CHRONIC LUNG DISEASE 
IMMUNODEFICIENCY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what types of cancer are small cell cancers

A

neuroendocrine cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what focal symptoms are seen in advanced lung cancer

A

HEADACHE, SIEZUREM WEAKNESS, BEHAVIORUAL CHANGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what paraneoplastic syndromes are seen in lung cancer?

A

CLUBBING, HYPERCALAEMIA, HYPONATRAEMIA, CUSHINGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the ultimate method for diagnosis and staging liung cancer? for each area of lung

A

central airway BRONCHOSCOPTY

mediastinum and lymph nodes
ENDOBRONCHIAL USS

periperal lung tumours
CT GUIDED LUNG BIOPSY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is sabr

A

stereotactic ablative body radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what 3 genes fors oncogene directed chemo target?

A

EGFR
ALK
ROS1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 SIDE EFFECTS OF ONCOGENE DIRECTED DRUGS?

A

RASH, DIARRHOEA, PNEUMONITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how does immunotherapy work?

A

SWITCHES OFF DEATH LIGANDS ON TUMOUR CELLS SO T CELLS ARE NOT REMOVED SO THEY CAN KILL CANCER CELLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is offered in each lung cancer treatment stage?

A

early stage -SURGERY/SABR
locally advanced disease SURGERY AND CHEMO OR RADIOTHERAPY AND CHEMO
metastatic disease - a. targetable mutation] ONCOGENE DIRECTED (TYROSINE KINASE INHIBITOR)
b. no mutation byt pdl positive I
MMUNOTHERAPY
no mutation and pdl neg IMMONO AND CHEMO

24
Q

symptoms of lower resp tract infection

A

FEVER, PRODUCTIVE COUGH, WHEEZING BREATHLESSNESS

25
Q

symtoms of pnsuemonia

A

CHEST PAIN CYANOSIS HIGH FEVER SEVERE

26
Q

5 conditions which may increase risk of pneumonia?

A

COPD,
ASTHMA
HIV
IMMUNOSUPPRESION DIABETES

27
Q

4 most common bacterial agents for resp infection

A

HAEMOPHILIUS INFLUENZAE,
STREP PNEUMONIAE, MYXOPLASMA P.
TB

28
Q

5 viruses commonly causing resp infection?

A

RHINOVIRUS,
INFLUENZA, CORONAVIRUS,
RESPIROTY SYNCITIAL VIRUS

29
Q

bacterial cause of atypical pneumonia

A

chlamydia pneumoniae

30
Q

how is pneumonia graded in primary care?

A

age over 65

rr >30
bp <90/60
confusion

31
Q

how does the resp epithelium provide defence?

A 
SECRETES ANTIMICROBIALS 
CILLIA
MUCUS 
MAKES CYTOKINES AND UPREGULATE IFS 
TIGHT JUNCTIONS
32
Q

5 symptoms of rsv broncholitis

A

TACHYNPOEA
CYANOSIS
CHEST WALL RETRACTIONS
NASAL FLARING WHEEZINGM

33
Q

3 antiinflammatory drugs given for rsv bronchilitis

A

dexamethazone

anti il6/il6 r

34
Q

what is ards

A

SUDDEN SEVERE INFLAMMATION OF THE LUNGS

35
Q

4 things used to classify ards

A

CXR
ORIGIN OF OEDEMA
TIMING - WITHIN 1 WEEK OF ACUTE INSULT
OXYGENATION

36
Q

3 pulmonary causes of acute lung failure

A

infection, aspiration

37
Q

3 extrapulmonary causes of acute lung failire?

A

trauma
pancreatitis
sepsis

38
Q

3 pulmonary causes of chronic lung failure

A

copd
cf
lung fibrosis

39
Q

what is type 3 lung failure?

A

perioperative
POOR POSITIONING AND ANAESTHETIC TECHNIQUE LEADS TO ABNORMAL MOVEMENT OF CHEST WALL AND AIRWAY COLLAPSE DUE TO LOW
FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL CEPACITY

40
Q

what is type 4 lung failure

A

shock INTUBATION - POOLING BLOD, LESS PERFUSION

41
Q

OUTLINE THE INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE IN ARDS

A

IL6, 8 TNF ALPHA RELEASED.
INCREASES INFLAMMATION AND OEDEMA AROUND ALVIOLI, LARGER DIATANCE FOR GAS EXCHANGE.
ALSO INCREASED NEUTROPHILS SECRETING INFLAMMATORY MEDIATORS

42
Q

What damps are released in ards

A

HMGB1
RAGE
ANG2

43
Q

3 steps of ards management

A

TREAT UNDERLYING DISEASE

RESP SUPPORT

MULTIPLE ORGAN SUPPOERT

44
Q

what is needed for ECMO referral?

A

murray score over 3

45
Q

what does a murray score assess?

A

IMAGING,
COMPLIANCE,
02 SATS ON 100% OXYGEN
PEEP (MINIMIMUM BASELINE VENTILATORY PRESSIRE NEEDED FOR ALVEOLI RECRUITMENT - INCREASES IN ARDS),

46
Q

3 causes of thrombocytopenia

A

BONE MARROW FAILURE

INCREASED CONSUMPTION

SPLENOMEGALY - POOLING

47
Q

what is glanzmans thrombasthenia

A

lac of GP11B/111A RECEPTOR

48
Q

what is bernard soulier syndrome

A

LOSS OF WVF RECEPTOR (gP1B)

49
Q

what is storage pool disease

A

reduction of granular contents

50
Q

what thigns can cause abnormalities in vessel wall?

A

INHEREDED: COLLAGEN ABNORMALITY (ED)

ACQUIRED: LONG TERM STERIODS (COLLAGEN ATROPHY), AGING, VASCULITIS, SCURVY

51
Q

3 tests for disorders of primary haemostsis?

A

platelet morphology
PFA100
VWF assays

52
Q

what does tranexamic acid do?

A

binds plasminogen so it cant bind to lysine

53
Q

3 symptoms of hameophilia?

A

HAEMARTHROSIS, SPONTANEOUS
JOINT BLEEDING,
EASILY MUSCLE WASTING

54
Q

what is associated with DIC?

A

raised d dimer

55
Q

what is the pathophysiology of DIC

A

REPEATED COAGULATION SPONTNANOUSLY AND THEN ANTICOAGULATION

DEPOSITION OF FIBRIN IN VESSELS CAUESE PRGAN FAILURE

GI cancers (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions