Cardio Lec 1-3 Flashcards
(157 cards)
1
Q
Function of the valves
A
prevent back flow of blood
2
Q
When do valves close
A
when arterial pressure is > than ventricle
3
Q
Systole refers to
A
contraction
4
Q
Diastole referes to
A
relaxation
5
Q
End systolic volume
A
amount of blood remaining in ventricle at end of systole
6
Q
End diastolic volume
A
amount of blood in ventricles before they contract
7
Q
What blood actually gets ejected
A
end systolic & end diastolic
8
Q
Stroke volume
A
amount of blood that gets ejected
9
Q
Functions of the circulatory system
A
transportation, regulation of hormones & temp, protection
10
Q
RBC’s transport __ & remove __
A
O2; CO2
11
Q
Blood carries __ to distant sites
A
hormones
12
Q
Cardiovascular system refers to
A
heart + blood vessels
13
Q
4 chambered dual pump
A
heart
14
Q
The atria ___ blood, ventricles __ blood
A
receive; pump blood to lungs & body
15
Q
Which has a greater workload? atria or ventricles?
A
ventricles
16
Q
Which has a greater workload? left or right ventricle?
A
left b/c pumps blood to systemic side
17
Q
Amount of cardiac output per min?
A
5L/min
18
Q
Arteries move blood __, veins ___
A
away; return blood to heart
19
Q
T/F: All veins carry dO2 blood & all arteries carry O2 blood
A
F
20
Q
Largest artery
A
Aorta
21
Q
Arteries –>
A
arterioles –> capillaries
22
Q
Capillaries are
A
site of gas exchange; THIN-walled
23
Q
How does gas exchange occur in capillaries?
A
O2 delivered to tissues, CO2 picked up
24
Q
Capillaries –>
A
venules –> veins
25
Largest veins
IVC + SVC
26
Components of blood
plasma + formed elements
27
Plasma is the ___ portion, the formed elements are the ___ portion
fluid; cellular
28
The Buffy coat contains
WBC's + platelets
29
Plasma vol. is regulated tightly by
osmoreceptors
30
When blood osmolarity increases, it indicated possible
dehydration
31
What is the purpose of RBC's donut shape?
increased surface area for a higher diffusion rate
32
Characteristics of erythrocytes
flexible (to squeeze thru small caps), donut shaped, anucleated, 120 day lifespan, no mitochondria, anaerobic resp
33
Why is it advantageous for erythrocytes to have no mitochondria (means they are anaerobic)
b/c they would use the O2 that they are transporting
34
Each RBC has ___ of Hb molecules
a lot
35
How many chains in each Hb?
4; 2 alpha + 2 beta
36
Heme
iron recycled from old RBC's
37
Iron deficiency =
anemia
38
Characteristics of Hb
each has heme at center; contains iron which binds to O2
39
Heme is carried by
transferrin
40
Dietary needs of iron are __, but __
small; essential
41
Anemia causes
low Hb or low RBC count; blood loss or iron def
42
Symptoms of anemia
tired, pale, weak, SHORT BREATH (would be trying to get more O2), FAST HR (heart trying to deliver what blood you do have to tissues)
43
Pernicious anemia
lack of intrinsic factor (B12 injection)
44
Aplastic anemia
destruction of bone barrow (chemo could cause)
45
Polycythemia
elevated RBC's
46
When does polycythemia lead to viscosity issues
only in severe cases
47
T/F: Polycythemia is usually not detrimental; it is an adaptation
T
48
Sickle-cell anemia is due to
a genetic mutation in Hb
49
Characteristics of leukocytes
contain nuclei & mitochondria; are motile
50
Why do leukocytes need to be motile?
to be able to move outside of bloodstream to fight pathogens
51
Diapedesis
ability to squeeze through capillary walls
52
Extravasation
exit from vascular system & enter into tissues
53
Types of leukocytes
granulocytes: basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils
agranulocytes: lymphocytes, monocytes
54
Normal hematocrit count
males: 40-54%
females: 37-47%
55
Normal Hb count
males: 14-17
females: 12-16
56
Platelets
smallest formed elements; cell fragments of megakaryocytes
57
Platelets form
platelet plug for CLOTTING
58
Characteristics of platelets
anucleated, move around, short lifespan
59
Platelets get destroyed by the
spleen & liver
60
Hematopoiesis
blood cell formation
61
Leukopoiesis
WBC production
62
Process of leukopoiesis
totipotent cells give rise to blood cell precursor
63
Myeloblasts -->
Lymphoblasts -->
Monoblasts -->
granulocytes
lymphocytes
monocytes
64
Erythropoiesis
RBC production
65
Erythropoiesis regulated by
erythropoietin
66
Erythropoietin secreted by
kidneys in response to hypoxia
67
T/F: People w/ asthma, w/ blood loss, at a high altitude, w/ a lung disorder, or doing strenuous exercise can all be hypoxic
T
68
T/F: RBC's have a limited lifespan & require continual replacement
T
69
T/F: People with emphysema usually have elevated levels of Hb
T
70
Clinical relevance of having elevated levels of reticulocytes
it indicates recent blood loss b/c it indicated that RBC synthesis has been stimulated to a large degree
71
Process of EPO
hemocytoblast (stem cell) --> EPO binds receptors proerythroblasts --> erythroblast --> normoblast --> nucleus lost --> reticulocyte --> erythrocyte (then released into blood)
72
Antigens
molecules capable of eliciting an immune response
73
When we recognize antigens as cells it's b/c we recognize those cells as ___
foreign
74
Antigens are important b/c they produce
antibodies
75
When you produce antibodies against your own cells
auto-immune disorder
76
A blood binds __; produces __
a-antigen; anti-b abs
77
B blood binds __; produces __
b-antigen; anti-a abs
78
AB blood binds __; produces __
a & b-antigens; neither
79
O blood binds __; produces __
no antigens; anti-a & anti-b abs
80
Why are abs produced when we have no prior exposure to them?
they are produced in response to intestinal bacteria that has antigens that look similar to blood surface antigens --> they cross react
81
Universal donor
O (b/c they have no antigens)
82
Universal recipient
AB (b/c they don't produce A or B antibodies)
83
Most common type of blood
O
84
Least common type of blood
AB
85
What happens if someone w/ A receives B?
transfusion reaction --> agglutination --> clot vessels (ischemia) --> cells targeted for destruction by immune system --> donor cells lyse & free Hb released --> free Hb can block kidney tubules --> death from renal failure
86
Transfusion reaction
mismatched blood; donor's blood is agglutinated by recipients abs
87
T/F: Plasma contains abs
T
88
Why does agglutination occur?
each ab molecule contains many binding sites
89
How is blood typing done?
drop of blood is placed in different ab solutions
90
Clumping =
positive reaction (antigens of that type present)
91
Anyone w/ d-antigens is
Rh+
92
Anyone w/o d-antigens is
Rh-
93
O+ means
type O AND Rh+ (has d-antigen)
94
O- means
type O AND Rh- (lacks d-antigen)
95
AB- means
has AB only
96
AB+ means
has Ab & D
97
T/F: Anti-d abs are not present until exposure
T
98
Why is it an issue for an Rh- mother to be carrying an Rh+ baby?
1st preg = no issue b/c no prior exposure to d-abs; will be exposed during birth and mom will create d-abs
2nd preg = issue b/c mom now has d-abs that will attack baby's blood --> baby born w/ severe anemia
99
How is erythroblastosis fetalis prevented?
RhoGAM prior to birth
100
What does RhoGam do?
antibody that effectively HIDES baby's antigens from mom's immune system so she wont make abs against it
101
Blood is
a liquid that has the ability to turn into a gel-like semi-solid substance is response to injury
102
T/F: People with clotting disorders bruise easily & badly
T
103
T/F: Inappropriate clot formation is as bad as no clot formation
T
104
Are platelets normally repelled from vessel walls & eachother
yes
105
What is the purpose of a vascular spasm when there is injury to the vessel
to slow down bleeding
106
Vonwillebran factor
factor that bridges the interaction between platelets & collagen strands to be able to form a platelet plug
107
Vonwillebran's disease
lack factor so platelets CAN'T adhere to exposed collagen --> platelet form doesn't form as well
108
What is released when platelets are 'activated'
serotonin, thromboxane, ADP
109
What is the function of serotonin here
to further stimulate the vascular spasm that slows down blood loss
110
What is the function of ADP & thromboxane here
to recruit more platelets & make platelets sticky
111
The platelet plug is a ___ fix
temporary; until stable clot forms
112
NSAID'S act as ___ drugs
anti-platelet
113
How are NSAID'S anti-platelet drugs
b/c they inhibit cyclooxygenase which is required for the production of thromboxane --> if you can't make tx, you can't aggregate platelets as well --> can't form platelet plug as well
114
What does the clotting cascade do?
convert fibrinogen --> fibrin & ensure that fibrin strands deposit on platelet plug
115
Serum
plasma w/o clotting factors/fibrinogen
116
In order to form a clot, you must form __
fibrin
117
Extrinsic pathway is activated by
chemicals released when tissue is damaged
118
Intrinsic pathway is activated by
platelet activation
119
Both the extrinsic & intrinsic pathways are activated as a result of
a damaged vessel
120
Both the intrinsic & extrinsic pathways are produced in what form?
inactive that can activate quickly
121
If someone can't activate platelets, would they still be able to clot?
yes, but not so well
122
If someone can't activate 1 of 2 clotting factors, can they still clot?
yes, bc they give you some redundancy in case something goes wrong
123
What begins the common pathway?
activation of factor x
124
Common pathway
activates prothrombin --> activates thrombin --> activates fibrinogen --> becomes fibrin
125
What activates factor x?
both the intrinsic & extrinsic pathways
126
Antithrombin inhibits ___
thrombin
127
What happens if you don't produce thrombin & why?
you don't clot as well bc you won't be as good to produce fibrin
128
When else can the body think there is damage to a vessel?
when a vessel ruptures due to atherosclerosis
129
Which pathway is quicker to reach the common pathway?
extrinsic
130
Can long-term antibiotic therapy cause a problem with clotting?
yes bc bacteria make vit K
131
A defect in factor viii linked to royal families in Europe
Hemophilia A
132
Which factors are vit K dependent?
2, 7, 9, 10
133
All clot busting drugs cause activation of ___
plasmin
134
Anticoagulant that activates antithrombin & works quickly
Heparin
135
Anticoagulant that inhibits vit K & takes days to work
Coumadin
136
Process of vessel repair
plasminogen (inactive) --> plasmin (active) --> plasmin digests fibrin promoting clot brkdwn
137
Clotting cascade
damage to vessel --> vessel spasms --> exposed collagen recruits platelets to area --> platelets become activated --> serotonin release (further spasm) --> ADP & TX released (more platelets to area to stick together) --> platelet plug formed
138
Right side of the heart pumps blood to the
lungs
139
Left side of the heart pumps blood to the
body
140
T/F: Right heart generates greater pressure
F; left
141
As compared to the left heart, what percentage of blood is pumped through the right heart
100% (the same)
142
When should AV valves open?
atrial press > ventricular
143
When should AV valves shut?
when ventricles contract
144
When should semilunar valves open?
ventricular press > arterial pressure
145
When should semilunar valves shut?
arterial pressure > ventricular pressure
146
The cardiac cycle refers to
the repeating pattern of contraction & relaxation
147
First the ___ contract, THEN the ___ contract
atria; ventricles
148
80% of blood that ventricles receive from atria occurs
passively
149
20% of blood that ventricles receive from atria occurs
when atria finally contract
150
EDV refers to
blood in ventricles at the end of ventricular diastole/amount of blood when filled
151
ESV refers to
little bit of blood that remains after the ejection phase
152
Stroke vol
amount of blood ejected from the ventricles in one systole
153
SV =
EDV - ESV
154
If EDV = 100 mls & ESV = 20 mls, what is the SV?
80 mls
155
Ventricles contract once filled -->
ventricular press > atrial press --> av valves shut --> ventricular press > aortic press --> aortic semilun. valves open --> blood moves up aorta (begins ejection phase)
156
SV is usually about
70 mls
157
Which valves open during the isovolumetric contraction phase?
none
