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ABIM IM Recert > Board Vitals Oncology > Flashcards

Board Vitals Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What cancer most commonly metastasizes to the heart?

A

Melanoma

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2
Q

Which malignancy is the most common cause of pericardial effusion?

A

Lung cancer

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3
Q

Which malignancy is the most common cause of pericardial metastasis?

A

Lung cancer

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4
Q

Are malignant pericardial effusions likely to recur after drainage?

A

Yes

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5
Q

What is the treatment of a recurrent pericardial effusion due to malignancy in a patient who has adequate life expectancy and wishes to manage the condition?

A

Pericardial window

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6
Q

Other than lung carcinoma, which most commonly causes malignant pericardial effusions, which other (two) cancers account for about 40% of malignant pericardial effusions?

A

Lymphoma
Breast cancer

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7
Q

Will patients with platinum-sensitive ovarian cancer who relapse more than 6 months following treatment, respond to platinum-based therapy again?

A

Yes

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8
Q

What happens to the calcium level in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Hypocalcemia

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9
Q

Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by which chemotherapy drug?

A

Cyclophosphamide

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10
Q

What is the next step after diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma on biopsy?

A

FDG-PET/CT scan

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11
Q

Is flow cytometry immunotyping used in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

No (limited Reed Sternberg cells)

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12
Q

What does the presence of Reed Sternberg cell on biopsy indicate?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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13
Q

Is fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH) used in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

No

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14
Q

What hematologic condition is associated with t(15;17) fusion?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

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15
Q

What is the treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia?

A

All-trans retinoic acid + another agent such as arsenic trioxide

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16
Q

What is the treatment of non-promyelocytic acute myeloid leukemia?

A

Cytarabine + daunorubincin (7 + 3)

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17
Q

Why is acute promyelocytic leukemia not treated with just all-trans retinoic acid?

A

Monotherapy results in short term remissions

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18
Q

Patient with history of malignancy has abrupt appearance of tender or painful erythematous papules and plaques, along with fevers, myalgias, arthralgias, and leukocytosis.

Diagnosis?

A

Sweet syndrome

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19
Q

Is CEA useful in diagnosing testicular cancer?

A

No

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20
Q

What is the initial study in a patient with a testicular mass?

A

Testicular ultrasound

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21
Q

What is the next step after flow cytometry and immunophenotype is consistent with chronic lymphocytic leukemia, in a patient with symptomatic anemia?

A

Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

CLL is associated with various autoimmune disorders processes.

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22
Q

What kind of abnormalities does FISH detect?

A

Cytogenetic abnormalities

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23
Q

Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma (squamous cell)?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

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24
Q

What virus is associated with primary central nervous system lymphoma in immunocompromised patients?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

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25
Q

Which virus is associated with oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Human papillomavirus

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26
Q

Which virus is associated with mucoepidermoid carcinoma?

A

Cytomegalovirus

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27
Q

Which virus is associated with T-cell leukemia or lymphoma?

A

Human T-cell leukemia retrovirus 1 (HTLV-1)

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28
Q

Which virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?

A

Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

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29
Q

What is the greatest preventable risk factor for bladder cancer (urothelial carcinoma) in the general population?

A

Smoking

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30
Q

Is urothelial cancer more common in males or females?

A

Males

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31
Q

Is excess alcohol a risk factor for urothelial carcinoma?

A

Maybe - it has not been proven

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32
Q

Is excess alcohol a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Yes

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33
Q

What should you do for breast papillomas with atypical cells?

A

Excision

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34
Q

What should you do for breast papillomas without atypical cells?

A

Observation

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35
Q

Do breast papillomas increase the high of developing breast cancer?

A

Yes

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36
Q

In what age range does intraductal papilloma occur?

A

35 - 55 years

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37
Q

What age group gets Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

15 - 35 years

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38
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells.

Diagnosis?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

39
Q

Should leukapheresis be used in patients with acute promyelocytic leukemia?

A

No (survival benefit unclear and worsens intrinsic coagulopathy)

40
Q

Can you start induction chemotherapy on a patient with acute promyelocytic leukemia who is intubated and on mechanical ventilation?

A

Yes

41
Q

When is ovarian function suppression used in hormone receptor positive breast cancer patients?

A

When there is high risk of recurrence

42
Q

Are aromatase inhibitors such as anastrozole effective as monotherapy in post-menopausal women with receptor positive breast cancer?

A

Yes

43
Q

Are aromatase inhibitors such as anastrozole effective as monotherapy in pre-menopausal women with receptor positive breast cancer?

A

No - need to be used with ovarian function suppression.

44
Q

What medication can be used as ovarian function suppression in hormone receptor positive breast cancer?

A

Leuprolide

45
Q

Which hormone therapy is recommended for premenopausal women with low-risk, early stage, resected breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen

46
Q

Which chemotherapy drug is associated with the most nephrotoxicity?

A

Cisplatin

47
Q

What is the most common type of carcinoma in the duodenum?

A

Adenocarcinoma

48
Q

What is the most common type of carcinoma in the ileum?

A

Carcinoid

49
Q

What are atypical B lymphocytes with bilobed nuclei called?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

50
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells are seen in which disease?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

51
Q

Do Reed-Sternberg cells in Hodgkin’s lymphoma express CD20?

A

No

52
Q

Do Reed-Sternberg cells in Hodgkin’s lymphoma express CD30?

A

Yes

53
Q

Do Reed-Sternberg cells in Hodgkin’s lymphoma express CD15?

A

Yes

54
Q

What is the renal insufficiency typically from in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Uric acid nephropathy (accumulation of uric acid crystals in the tubules)

55
Q

Does obstructive nephropathy in tumor lysis syndrome result from uric acid stone formation or crystal deposition?

A

Crystal deposition

56
Q

What is the treatment of small cell lung cancer with mediastinal lymph node involvement?

A

Etoposide + cisplatin (EP) followed by radiotherapy

57
Q

What percentage of primary lymphomas of the gastrointestinal tract occur in the stomach?

A

75%

58
Q

What percentage of small bowel neoplasms are sarcomas?

A

10%

59
Q

What the most cardiotoxic chemotherapy drug?

A

Doxorubicin

60
Q

Chromosomal arrangement: T(12,21)

Diagnosis?

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

61
Q

Chromosomal arrangement: T(14,18)

Diagnosis?

A

Follicular lymphoma

62
Q

Chromosomal arrangement: T(8,14)

Diagnosis?

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

63
Q

Chromosomal arrangement: T(9,22)

Diagnosis?

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

64
Q

Chromosomal arrangement: T(15,17)

Diagnosis?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (AML)

65
Q

What’s the next step when a mediastinal mass is found to be causing superior vena cava syndrome?

A

Biopsy and tissue diagnosis

66
Q

What is the name of recurrent or migratory thrombophlebitis associated with visceral carcinoma?

A

Trousseau’s syndrome

67
Q

What is the clonal population of bone marrow plasma cells in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)?

A

Less than 10%

68
Q

When are TKIs used to treat CML safe to discontinue?

A

Duration of 3 or more years
Complete molecular response for 2 or more years

69
Q

What is the most likely source of a HPV-related squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck?

A

Lingual and palatine tonsils

70
Q

What the P16 positivity in squamous cell carcinoma indicate?

A

Tumorigenesis is in some way mediated by HPV

71
Q

What is the treatment of BRAF negative metastatic malignant melanoma?

A

Ipilimumab plus nivolumab

72
Q

Is dacabazine used as first line therapy in metastatic melanoma?

A

No

73
Q

What does the presence of anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor (NMDAR) antibodies indicate in a patient with neurologic symptoms?

A

Paraneoplastic neurologic syndrome

74
Q

What are the most common tumors associated with anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis?

A

Ovarian teratomas

75
Q

What is the next step in a patient with known follicular lymphoma now with new constitutional symptoms and a rapidly growing lymph node?

A

Biopsy (can have histologic transformation)

76
Q

What is the treatment for progressive follicular lymphoma?

A

Rituximab

77
Q

How is staging done in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • PET/CT
  • Bone marrow biopsy of FDG-avid nodal lymphomas
78
Q

Which histologic types (3) of colon cancer are associated with a poor prognosis?

A
  • Signet cell adenocarcinoma
  • Poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma
  • Undifferentiated adenocarcinoma
79
Q

Does the location of the colon matter - which side has a more favorable prognosis?

A

Yes - Left sided colon cancers have a more favorable prognosis than right sided colon cancers.

80
Q

Does colon cancer with a KRAS mutation have a better or worse prognosis compared to colon cancer with the mutation?

A

Worse prognosis

81
Q

Are higher pre-operative CEA levels associated with better or worse prognosis in colon cancer?

A

Worse prognosis

82
Q

Patient’s on chronic opioid therapy need to be screen with the 4 A’s - what are they?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Adverse effects
  • Aberrant behaviors
  • Activity
83
Q

Patient has multiple trichilemmomas, hamartomatous polyps throughout the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, fibrocystic breast disease, and an increased risk of breast and thyroid cancer.

Diagnosis?

A

Cowden syndrome

84
Q

Patient has mucosal lentingines and hamartomatous polyps throughout the GI tract; there is an increased risk of breast, ovarian, and GI cancer.

Diagnosis?

A

Peutz-Jehgers syndrome

85
Q

What syndrome is caused by a STK11 mutation?

A

Peutz-Jehgers syndrome

86
Q

A mutation in which gene causes Cowden syndrome?

A

PTEN

87
Q

What is the initial step in tumor lysis syndrome management?

A

Hydration

88
Q

The negative predicative value is the probability that the person does not have the disease when the test results are negative.

True or false?

A

True

89
Q

Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Epstein-Barr virus

90
Q

Can neutropenic fever be treated outpatient?

A

Yes - if considered low risk for complications based on MASCC Risk-Index and CISNE scores

91
Q

What is the outpatient treatment of neutropenic fever?

A

Ciprofloxacin plus amoxicillin-clavulanate

92
Q

What should you do in a patient presenting with back pain and lower extremity weakness who has cancer?

A
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Urgent spine imaging

(Concern for spinal cord compression)

93
Q

Which tumor marker is associated with pancreatic cancer?

A

CA19-9

ABIM IM Recert (42 decks)

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