Board Vitals Allergy and Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Which antibody is associated with type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Immunoglobulin E

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2
Q

Which cells is immunoglobulin E produced by?

A

Plasma cells

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3
Q

What is type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

An allergic reaction provoked by re-exposure to an allergen

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4
Q

What is the main immunoglobulin found in secretions?

A

Secretory IgA (immunoglobulin A)

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5
Q

What is the first line treatment for anaphylaxis after medication?

A

IM epinephrine

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6
Q

Which vaccines are necessary before heart transplant?

A
  • Herpes zoster (non-live or live attenuated; though non-live preferred)
  • Pneumococcal vaccine (both PCV13 and PPSV23)
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7
Q

Which transplant patients should get influenza vaccine?

A

Annually, all patients, pre- and post-transplant

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8
Q

Which transplant patients should get Hepatitis B vaccine?

A

All patients who are HBsAg negative

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9
Q

Which transplant patients should get Hepatitis A vaccine?

A

All liver transplant recipients

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10
Q

Which transplant patients should get human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine?

A

Any patient at risk

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11
Q

Which transplant patients should get meningococcus vaccine?

A
  • Patients with asplenia
  • Patients receiving eculizumab
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12
Q

Which transplant patients should get Haemophilus influenza vaccine?

A
  • Pediatric patients
  • Asplenic patients
  • Stem cell transplant recipients
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13
Q

Which transplant patients should get rotavirus vaccine?

A
  • Pediatric patients (before transplant)
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14
Q

What is the treatment of drug induced lupus?

A

Discontinue drug

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15
Q

Does hereditary angioedema have recurrent episodes with urticaria or pruritus?

(Yes/No)

A

No

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16
Q

Is the complement component 4 (C4) level high or low in hereditary angioedema?

A

Low

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17
Q

Patient has the following symptoms 2 - 3 times a year: nasal drainage, sneezing, postnasal drip, periodic coughing and fatigue; along with mild infraorbital edema, rhinorrhea and edematous nasal mucosa.

Diagnosis?

A

Allergic rhinitis

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18
Q

What does a patient with a nasal polyp typically present with?

A

Unilateral rhinitis

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19
Q

Patients with which selective immunoglobulin deficiency have a high risk of reaction with receiving blood products?

A

IgA deficiency

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20
Q

Is vaccination against pneumonia recommended in adults who smoke?

A

Yes

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21
Q

Is vaccination against pneumonia recommended in adults who have diabetes mellitus?

A

Yes

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22
Q

Which pneumonia vaccine should be given to adults in which it is indicated?

A

PSV20

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23
Q

What is the treatment of rhinitis medicamentosa?

A

Topical steroids

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24
Q

What screening needs to be done for patients who get recurrent sinopulmonary infections over a number of years?

A

Measure IgG, IgA, and IgM levels (screening for immunodeficiency)

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25
What kind of hypersensitivity reaction occurs in contact dermatitis?
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
26
What is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
Delayed reaction mediated by cellular response
27
What is a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
Reaction mediated by IgE antibodies
28
What is a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
Cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies
29
What is a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
Reaction mediated by immune complexes
30
What is a key mediator of eosinophil activation and atopic disease?
Interleukin 5
31
When should vaccines be administered before elective splenectomy?
At least 10 -12 weeks; minimum of 2 weeks.
32
CD4 is expressed by which cells?
Helper T-cells
33
CD8 is expressed by which cells?
Cytotoxic T-cells
34
CD20 is expressed by which cells?
B-cells
35
What is the gold standard for diagnosing a food allergy?
Oral food challenge
36
Systemic mastocytosis is often associated with gain-of-function mutations in genes encoded KIT receptors, as well as increased expression of KIT ligand. True or false?
True
37
Is systemic mastocytosis associated with peptic ulcer disease?
Yes
38
Is systemic mastocytosis associated with hepatic fibrosis?
Yes
39
Is systemic mastocytosis associated with anaphylactic reaction?
Yes
40
Is systemic mastocytosis associated with cytopenias?
Yes
41
Is systemic mastocytosis associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
No
42
What's the dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis if weight is less than 50 kg?
0.3 mg IM
43
What's the dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis if weight is more than 50 kg?
0.5 mg IM
44
Making a diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis requires the presence of both symptoms and histologic findings. True or false?
True
45
Is a trial of proton pump inhibitor required for the diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis?
No
46
What is the minimum number of eosinophils required to diagnose eosinophilic esophagitis?
15 eosinophils/hpf
47
Do people with selective IgA deficiency with Ig A level over 7 mg/dL (partial deficiency) get frequent infections?
No
48
What kind of malignancy is IgA deficiency associated with?
GI malignancy
49
Are patients with IgA deficiency predisposed to inflammatory bowel disease?
Yes
50
Do symptoms of eosinophilic esophagitis return if treatment is discontinued?
Yes
51
Is there utility of a food allergy evaluation in eosinophilic esophagitis?
Yes
52
If biopsy of grafted renal artery shows fibrosis and smooth muscle proliferation - what does this mean?
Chronic transplant rejection
53
If biopsy of grafted renal artery shows ischemia of the tunica media - what does this mean?
Hyperacute allograft rejection
54
If biopsy of grafted renal artery shows vasculitis involving CD8 T-cells and antibodies - what does this mean?
Acute allograft rejection
55
What testing should be done after an anaphylactic reaction to an insect bite etc?
- Venom specific IgE level - Tryptase
56
What kind of allergic reaction is aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease?
Pseudo-allergic reaction
57
Is granulomatous or lymphocytic infiltrative disease a common manifestation of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Yes
58
Are infections a common manifestation of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Yes
59
Is autoimmunity a common manifestation of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Yes
60
Are malignancies a common manifestation of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Yes
61
Are congenital abnormalities a common manifestation of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)?
No
62
How long do symptoms of laryngospasm typically last?
Less than 60 secs.
63
If it has been more than 10 years since last known reaction then what are the chances that IgE mediated penicillin allergy has resolved?
80%
64
What season does ragweed cause allergies in?
Fall/autumn
65
What season do trees cause allergies in?
Spring
66
What is the chemical mediator in allergic rhinitis?
Histamine
67
Is bronchiolitis obliterans a common manifestation of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)?
No
68
Is bronchiectasis a common manifestation of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Yes
69
In a patient who presents with blistering in sun exposed areas (with small white papules) after using a new medication (e.g. naproxen, dapsone, furosemide, tetracycline, etc) what diagnosis should be considered?
Drug induced porphyria cutanea tarda
70
What dose of aspirin do patients need to continue to take to remain desensitized?
325 mg daily
71
What is the most fungal infection in patients who are treated with TNF-alpha inhibitors?
Histoplasmosis
72
Which immunity does TNF-alpha inhibition interfere with?
Cellular immunity
73
What is the empiric treatment for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
Amoxicillin/clavulanate