Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABIM IM Recert > Board Vitals Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Board Vitals Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat non-severe Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Oral fidaxomicin (less recurrence than oral vancomycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which drug is preferred in non-severe Clostridium difficile infection - oral vancomycin or oral fidaxomicin?

A

Oral fidaxomicin (less recurrence than oral vancomycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the treatment of severe babeosis?

A
  • IV azithromycin + oral atovaquone
  • IV clindamycin + oral quinine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment of mild babeosis?

A
  • Oral azithromycin + atovaquone
  • Oral clindamycin + quinine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long do you treat babeosis for?

A

7 - 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Microscopy shows a ring with pale blue cytoplasm and red dots - what is the organism?

A

Babesia microti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should you do if a patient with babeosis is not responding to standard therapy?

A

Evaluate for co-infection such as Lyme disease or human granulocytic anaplasmosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should you do if a patient with severe babeosis has persistent symptoms with severe hemolysis with hemoglobin less than 10 g/dL or organ impairment?

A

Exchange transfusion (reduces parasitemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the treatment for erythema nodosum (early Lyme disease)?

A

Oral doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the treatment for Rocky Mountain Spotter Fever?

A

Oral doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the treatment for human monocytic ehrlichiosis?

A

Oral doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for human granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA)?

A

Oral doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you treat antibiotic-associated diarrhea?

A

Stopping the antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What types of markers are involved in patients developing exudative effusions?

A

Pro-inflammatory cytokines like interleukin-8 (IL-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Does thrombopoietin play a role in the pathogenesis of parapneumonic effusions?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Patient presents with a mass that has the following histologic features: clonal B-cell pattern with basophilic cytoplasm in a “starry sky” pattern, positive CD20, and Ki-67 proliferation index of 90 - 100%.

Diagnosis?

A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What increases the risk of Burkitt lymphoma in HIV patients?

A

Epstein-Barr virus co-infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the second most common form of lymphoma in HIV patients?

A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Patient with HIV present with fevers, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss along with a palpable abdominal mass; along with Epstein Barr infection.

Diagnosis?

A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is cytomegalovirus (CMV) a known risk factor for malignancy in patients with HIV infection?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does cytomegalovirus (CMV) typically cause in HIV patients with low CD4 counts?

A

CMV pneumonia
CMV retinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma in HIV patients?

A

Human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a biopsy of Kaposi sarcoma show?

A

Lymphocytes (T-cells fighting infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Patient with HIV presents with purple, red and pink papular lesions on face, chest and legs.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Kaposi sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for CMV retinitis?

A

Intraocular antivirals
Systemic foscarnet, cidofovir, or ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What increases the risk of anogenital cancer in HIV patients?

A

Human papilloma virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What increases the risk of cervical cancer in HIV patients?

A

Human papilloma virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Is contamination of meat with E. Coli more common or Shigella?

A

E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Patient presents with bloody diarrhea and abdominal cramping after eating rare hamburgers.

Which infectious agent is the likely cause of symptoms?

A

Escherichia Coli (E. Coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which region is Histoplasmosis associated with?

A

Ohia and Mississippi River Valleys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Small budding yeast structures on Wright-Giemsa stain.

Diagnosis?

A

Histoplasmosis (histoplasma capsulatum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Broad budding yeast structures on biopsy.

Diagnosis?

A

Blastomycosis (blastomyces)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which has hilar lymphadenopathy - blastomycosis or histoplasmosis?

A

Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which is associated with immunosuppression - blastomycosis or histoplasmosis?

A

Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which is associated with immunosuppression - coccidioidomycosis or histoplasmosis?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which is associated with immunosuppression - blastomycosis or coccidioidomycosis?

A

Coccidioidomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Budding yeast in the form of a “pilot’s wheel” on biopsy.

Diagnosis?

A

Paracoccidioides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Septate hyphae that branch out at acute angles on biopsy?

A

Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do you confirm candidal vulvovaginitis?

A

Wet mount with KOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When would you do a fungal culture for a patient with candidal vulvovaginitis?

A

In treatment-resistant cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which cephalosporins have good pseudomonas aeruginosa coverage?

A

Ceftazidime (3rd generation)
Cefepime (4th generation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Does ceftazidime go into the CSF?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the empiric regimen for bacterial meningitis in an immunocompetent adult?

A
  • 3rd generation cephalosporin
  • Ampicillin
  • Vancomycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which organism causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the treatment of symptomatic Lyme disease?

A

Ceftriaxone 2 gram IV daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the treatment of asymptomatic Lyme disease?

A

Oral doxycycline
Oral cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Can isoniazid-induced vitamin B6 deficiency cause sideroblastic anemia?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is dengue fever confirmed?

A

Serology antibody test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How is a diagnosis of cutaneous anthrax confirmed?

A

Tissue biopsy with gram stain, culture and immunochemical stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which infection does a Tzanck test confirm?

A

HSV-1 or HSV-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What should you do after a positive tuberculosis skin test in an asymptomatic patient?

A

Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Can a tuberculosis skin test be positive without a patient having mycobacterium tubercolosis infection?

A

Yes - they can have a non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which organism causes leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Patient from Brazil, India, or somewhere in Africa presents with round, dry, scaling, hypopigmented macule with erythematous border on forearm; biopsy shows acid-fast bacilli.

Diagnosis?

A

Leprosy (mycobacterium leprae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Is peripheral neuropathy common in leprosy?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which antifungal agent has poor activity against aspergillosis?

A

Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the treatment of choice for aspergillosis?

A

Voriconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the treatment of choice for strongyloidiasis?

A

Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the first step of management in severe sepsis with hypotension?

A

IV fluids for volume resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Within what time period of being diagnosed with severe sepsis/septic shock should antibiotics be given?

A

Within 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the most common cause of pericarditis in HIV patients in developing countries?

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the most common causes of pericarditis in immunocompetent patients?

A
  • Coxsackieviruses
  • Echoviruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Patient develops complete heart block after camping trip in Connecticut.

Diagnosis?

A

Lyme carditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the treatment of Lyme carditis?

A

IV ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What rash is associated with Lyme disease?

A

Erythema Migrans rash (target shape)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Is life-threatening arrhythmia common in Lyme disease?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Can isoniazid cause drug induced lupus?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Are anti histone antibodies usually present in drug induced lupus?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Patient has been drinking unpasteurized milk - presents with fevers, fatigue, night sweats, knee pain and stiffness.

Diagnosis?

A

Brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the treatment of brucellosis?

A

Doxycyclin and rifampin/streptomycin/gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How long is the treatment for brucellosis?

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

At what CD4 count is trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole recommended for HIV patients to prevent pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

200 cells/microL or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What medication is recommended for HIV positive patients who test positive for Coccidioides?

A

Fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Is staphlococcus aureus catalase positive or catalase negative?

A

Catalase-positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Is streptococcus pneumoniae an alpha-hemolytic or beta-hemolytic pathogen?

A

Alpha-hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Is streptococcus anginosus an alpha-hemolytic or beta-hemolytic pathogen?

A

Beta-hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Is streptococcus viridans an alpha-hemolytic or beta-hemolytic pathogen?

A

Alpha-hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Is enterococcus faecalis a gram-negative or gram-positive pathogen?

A

Gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Is enterococcus faecalis a coccus or bacillus?

A

Coccus (diplococci)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How many drugs are usually given for HIV prophylaxis?

A

3 drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Patient needs to present within what time period to get HIV prophylaxis?

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which two drugs are the base for all post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV?

A

Tenofovir
Emtricitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Is Nevirapine recommended as part of post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Is Zidovudine usually added to Tenofovir or Emtricitabine for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV?

A

No (it’s another nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor so not appropriate as a single agent or in addition to the other two)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What should you do in case of isolated fevers in asplenic patients?

A

Admit and treat as an early sign of sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What virus causes herpes labialis?

A

Herpes simplex virus type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the treatment of choice for herpes simplex type 1?

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Is hospitalization a risk factor for getting a MRSA infection?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Is long-term steroid use a risk factor for getting a MRSA infection?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Is diabetes mellitus a risk factor for getting a MRSA infection?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Antibiotic use within what time period is a risk factor for getting a MRSA infection?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Patient has high-stepping gait and miotic pupils that accommodate when focusing on an object but do not constrict to light.

Diagnosis?

A

Neurosyphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How is neurosyphilis treated?

A

IV penicillin for 10 - 14 days

94
Q

Patient hiking in Oklahoma or Missouri - present with fever, low CBC counts, and high LFTs.

Diagnosis?

A

Ehrlichiosis

95
Q

What organism causes ehrlichiosis?

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

96
Q

What is the vector for ehrlichiosis?

A

Amblyomma americanum

97
Q

What disease is associated with intracytoplasmic inclusions or morulae in neutrophils on Buffy coat examination?

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

98
Q

What is the vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Dermacentor variabilis

99
Q

What should you do if you see necrotic tissue?

A

Surgical debridement

100
Q

What is the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Amphotericin B and flucytosine for 10 - 14 days followed by fluconazole maintenance therapy.

101
Q

Influenza immunization is conferred by antibodies to what?

A

Hemagglutinin
Neuraminidase

102
Q

What lung findings can be found in cases of infective endocarditis?

A

Septic emboli

103
Q

Patient vacationed in Arizona and presented with fever, cough, shortness of breath, arthralgias, erythema nodosum and erythema multiforme.

Diagnosis?

A

Coccidiomycosis

104
Q

Culture shows branching, filamentous, acid-fast gram-positive rod.

Diagnosis?

A

Nocardia

105
Q

Is gardening a risk factor for nocardiosis?

A

Yes

106
Q

Is recent dental surgery a risk factor for nocardiosis?

A

No

107
Q

Is history of abdominal surgery a risk factor for nocardiosis?

A

No

108
Q

Is tobacco use a risk factor for nocardiosis?

A

No

109
Q

Can any antibiotic precipitate a clostridium difficile infection?

A

Yes

110
Q

What is the first line treatment of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Oral glucocorticoids

111
Q

Are antifungal therapies the first line treatment of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

No

112
Q

How are relapsing or persistent cases of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis treated?

A

Combination of glucocorticoids and anti-fungals

113
Q

10-20 micron trophozoites and oval-shaped cysts.

Organism?

A

Giardia lamblia

114
Q

Cysts and trophozoites with ingested erythrocytes.

Organism?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

115
Q

Oocysts that are 4 - 6 micron in diameter.

Organism?

A

Cryptosporidium

116
Q

Oxidase and catalase-positive curved rods.

Organism?

A

Campylobacter

117
Q

Oxidase-negative and catalase-positive bacilli.

Organism?

A

Escherichia coli

118
Q

HIV patient with CD4 count < 100, with multiple ring-enhancing lesions on MRI brain and symptoms of encephalitis.

Diagnosis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

119
Q

In a patient who has traveled to South America, presenting with hepatomegaly, bradyarrhythmias, heart block, and dilated cardiomyopathy - what diagnosis would you suspect?

A

Chagas disease

120
Q

What is the treatment of Chagas disease?

A
  • Benznidazole
  • Nifurtimox
121
Q

What is the first line treatment of Kawasaki disease?

A

IV immunoglobulin

122
Q

Which medication is used in the treatment of systemic candidiasis in immunocompromised patients?

A

Voriconazole

123
Q

What is the treatment of asymptomatic latent syphilis?

A

IM penicillin G

124
Q

Is a fungus with a ergosterol mutation susceptible to Amphotericin B?

A

No

125
Q

Which antifungal works by disrupting fungal cell wall synthesis by its ability to bind to sterols, specifically ergosterol?

A

Amphotericin B

126
Q

Patient presents with patchy, hypopigmented rash with raised borders and hair loss, along with granuloma formation within dermal nerves.

Diagnosis?

A

Leprosy

127
Q

What is the treatment of actinomycosis?

A

Penicillin

128
Q

What is the most common cause (organisim) of bacterial parotitis in adults?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

129
Q

Can you give pyrazinamide in pregnancy?

A

No

130
Q

Which two drugs are discontinued after 2 months in the treatment of active tuberculosis?

A

Ethambutol and pyrazinamide

131
Q

Which two drugs are continued for an additional 4 months after the initial 2 month long, 4 drug treatment of active tuberculosis?

A

Isoniazid and rifampin

132
Q

What is the most common causative organism of peritonsillar abscesses?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus)

133
Q

What organism causes cat scratch disease?

A

Bartonella hensalae

134
Q

Are kittens or older cats more likely to spread bartonella hensalae (cat scratch disease)?

A

Kittens

135
Q

Patient presents with regional lymphadenopathy after being in contact with a kitten.

Diagnosis?

A

Cat scratch disease

136
Q

What is the treatment of cat scratch disease?

A

Azithromycin

137
Q

What is the treatment of cat scratch disease, in patients with serious complications or those who are immunocompromised?

A

Azithromycin + rifampin

138
Q

Plasmodium reproduces in what part of the human body?

A

Liver

139
Q

What is the treatment of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate for 7 days

140
Q

Which organism is responsible for rheumatic fever?

A

Group A streptococcus

141
Q

Which organism usually causes infective endocarditis in patients who have colon cancer?

A

Streptococcus gallolyticus (S. bovis)

142
Q

What kind of virus is coxsackievirus?

A

Picornavirus

143
Q

Can picornaviruses cause pericarditis or myocarditis?

A

Yes

144
Q

Do togaviruses cause pericarditis or myocarditis?

A

No

145
Q

Do paramyxoviruses cause pericarditis or myocarditis?

A

No

146
Q

Do flaviviruses cause pericarditis or myocarditis?

A

No

147
Q

Is the severity of second dengue infection dependent on the viral load?

A

No

148
Q

Which virus commonly has antigenic shift?

A

Influenza

149
Q

Which condition is known as “breakbone fever”?

A

Dengue

150
Q

What is the most severe manifestation of Dengue fever called?

A

Dengue hemorrhagic fever

151
Q

Patient presents with fever, along with purpura, petechiae, hepatomegaly, and circulatory failure/shock that follows resolution of initial fever by several days.

Diagnosis?

A

Dengue hemorrhagic fever

152
Q

What is the treatment of strongyloides stercoralis?

A

Ivermectin

153
Q

What is the treatment of amyloidosis?

A

Melphalan and dexamethasone

154
Q

Which HPV subtypes are associated with plantar warts?

A

1, 2 and 4

155
Q

Which HPV subtypes are associated with flat warts?

A

3 and 10

156
Q

Which HPV subtypes are associated with anogenital warts?

A

6 and 11

157
Q

Which HPV subtypes are associated with common warts?

A

2 and 4

158
Q

Which HPV subtypes are associated with epidermodysplasia verruciformis?

A

5 and 8

159
Q

Which HPV subtypes are associated with squamous cell carcinomas of the upper aerodigestive tract?

A

16,18, 31 and 33

160
Q

Which gram positive bacteria cause infective endocarditis and can synthesize dextrans from sucrose?

A

Streptococcus viridans

161
Q

What is the adherence site of streptococcus viridans when they cause infective endocarditis?

A

Fibrin platelet aggregates

162
Q

What percentage of endocarditis on normal valves is caused by streptococcus viridans?

A

40 - 60%

163
Q

What does crepitus in a soft tissue infection indicate?

A

Possible necrotizing fasciitis

164
Q

What is the treatment of necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Surgical debridement

165
Q

CD14 is expressed by which cells?

A

Macrophages

166
Q

Which toxins in C. Diff infection cause disruption of Rho-protein-mediated pathways that maintain cytoskeleton structure?

A

Toxin A and Toxin B

167
Q

Which toxin in C. Diff is more potent, Toxin A or Toxin B?

A

Toxin B

168
Q

Which is the preferred confirmatory test for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Cryptococcal antigen detection

169
Q

Patient with AIDS presents with ring-enhancing lesions on CT head and trophozoites on bronchoalveolar lavage.

Diagnosis?

A

Toxoplasmosis

170
Q

What ophthalmology condition can toxoplasmosis lead to?

A

Necrotizing chorioretinitis

171
Q

What is the treatment of necrotizing chorioretinitis?

A

Sulfadiazine
Pyrimethamine

172
Q

Should partners of patients with syphilis also be treated for syphilis even if serological studies are negative?

A

Yes - if exposure is within last 3 months

173
Q

Can patients decompensating with influenza have a secondary bacterial infection?

A

Yes

174
Q

Which organism causes African sleeping sickness?

A

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

175
Q

What is the vector for African sleeping sickness?

A

Tsetse fly

176
Q

Patient returns from Africa, and has a chancre on arm, and presents with non-specific symptoms (headache, fever, joint pain) followed by neurologic symptoms including personality changes and mental status changes.

Diagnosis?

A

African sleeping sickness

177
Q

What can be used for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever if doxycycline is contra-indicated?

A

Chloramphenicol

178
Q

Which factor drives formation of caseating granulomas in tuberculosis?

A

Cord factor

179
Q

Which vaccine needs to be given before - the PCV15 or the PPSV23?

A

PCV15

180
Q

Which 3 antibiotics are first line treatment for simple soft tissue infections (cellulitis)?

A
  • Cephalexin
  • Cafedroxil
  • Clindamycin
181
Q

What are the preferred antibiotics for Legionella infection?

A
  • Azithromycin
  • Levofloxacin
182
Q

What organism typically causes toxic shock syndrome?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Group A streptococci

183
Q

Hypotension and macular rash that involves palms and soles. Labs with multiorgan failure and coagulopathy.

Diagnosis?

A

Toxic shock syndrome

184
Q

Which STD classically presents with tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and polyarthralgia?

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

185
Q

What is the treatment of disseminated gonococcal infection?

A

Ceftriaxone

186
Q

Oral lichen planus is most commonly associated with which infection?

A

Hepatitis C

187
Q

Which obligate intracellular organism causes pneumonia?

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

188
Q

What is the treatment of pneumonia caused by chlamydia pneumoniae?

A

Azithromycin

189
Q

What is the treatment of pneumonia caused by chlamydia pneumoniae?

A

Azithromycin

190
Q

Can doxycycline be used in pregnancy?

A

No

191
Q

What should the MIC of vancomycin be to consider a different treatment therapy?

A

More than or equal to 2

192
Q

Structural alteration of enzymes involved in RNA synthesis is the mechanism of resistance to which TB drug?

A

Rifampin

193
Q

Structural alterations of the DNA gyrase (enzymes to wind and unwind DNA) are responsible for resistance to which class of antibiotics?

A

Fluroquinolones

194
Q

What is the treatment of bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Ampicillin
  • Vancomycin
  • Dexamethasone
195
Q

What is ampicillin coverage needed for in bacterial meningitis?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

196
Q

Do patients with HIV have a higher risk of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Yes

197
Q

Does the prophylaxis for anthrax include vaccination?

A

Yes

198
Q

Is strongyloidiasis or hookworm infestation more common in the United States?

A

Strongyloidiasis

199
Q

What is the distinguishing feature between infection with acanthamoeba and Naegleria fowleri since they both cause encephalitis?

A

Naegleria fowleri infection causes olfactory disturbance.

200
Q

Is babesiosis transmitted by deer ticks or dog ticks?

A

Deer ticks

201
Q

Is Rocky Mountain Spotted fever transmitted by deer ticks or dog ticks?

A

Dog ticks

202
Q

Within what time period onset of symptoms can oseltamivir be initiated for influenza?

A

48 hours

203
Q

What is the dose of oseltamivir for influenza?

A

75 mg p.o. twice a day

204
Q

Which cytokine stimulates the formation of Langerhans’ multinucleated giant cells associated with tuberculosis mycobacterium infection?

A

Type II interferon

205
Q

How is anthrax transmitted?

A

Inhalation

206
Q

What is the treatment of cat scratch disease?

A

Azithromycin

207
Q

What is the treatment of choice for CMV retinitis?

A

Ganciclovir

208
Q

Patient with HIV presents with blurred vision and floaters. Slit lamp examination shows fine stellate keratic precipitates on the cornea.

Diagnosis?

A

CMV retinitis

209
Q

What is the treatment of pubic lice?

A

Topical permethrin

210
Q

Which HIV patients need prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

Those with CD4 count less than 200 cells/microL

211
Q

What does Actinomyces israelii look like on gram stain?

A

Gram positive bacilli

212
Q

Which has higher yield in osteomyelitis - bone biopsy or blood culture?

A

Bone biopsy

213
Q

What adverse effect can the combination of vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam lead to?

A

Nephrotoxicity

214
Q

What is the initial empiric antibiotic therapy for osteomyelitis?

A

Vancomycin and cefepime

215
Q

Which organism is responsible for 50% of the infections caused by dog bites?

A

Pasteurella multocida

216
Q

Capnocytophaga canimorsus is associated with dog bites but more common in immunocompromised patients.

True or false?

A

True

217
Q

How do you test for herpes simplex in asymptomatic patients?

A

HSV serology

218
Q

What is the treatment of fulminant C. Diff infection (causing toxic megacolon)?

A

Oral vancomycin 500 mg QID + IV metronidazole 500 mg q8h

219
Q

Spherules containing endospores

A

Coccidioidomycosis

220
Q

Which group of bacteria have “fried egg shaped” colonies?

A

Mycoplasma

221
Q

Which condition has fevers, throat pain, respiratory distress and cavitary lesions; along with thrombosis?

A

Lemierre’s syndrome

222
Q

What causes Lemierre’s syndrome?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

223
Q

What is the initial therapy of lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline for 28 days

224
Q

When is ceftriaxone used in lyme disease?

A
  • Failure to respond to initial therapy
  • Lyme encephalitis
  • Lyme carditis
225
Q

What is the empiric treatment of complicated UTI with sepsis?

A

Vancomycin and carbapenem

226
Q

What is the most common cause of vaginitis in women of child bearing age?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

227
Q

Diagnosis in sexually active woman with malodorous, off-white/grey discharge?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

228
Q

What are vaginal epithelial cells covered with coccobacilli?

A

Clue cells

229
Q

What is the treatment of bacterial vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole

230
Q

Aspergillosis species can predispose to which type of cancer?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

231
Q

What sometimes needs to be done for severe babesiosis in addition to antibiotics?

A

Exchange transfusion

ABIM IM Recert (42 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions