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Anatomy and Physiology II LAB > Blood Typing quiz COPY > Flashcards

Blood Typing quiz COPY Flashcards

1
Q

what are antigens?

A

glycoprotein on surface of RBC

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2
Q

what are antibodies?

A

immune proteins found floating in blood

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3
Q

what determines blood type?

A

blood antigens

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4
Q

how do we get our blood type?

A

its inherited by our parents

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5
Q

what are the two groups for blood typing?

A

ABO group
Rh factor

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6
Q

what does ABO group consist of? what types blood?

A

antigen A - blood type A
antigen B - blood type B
both antigens - blood type AB
neither antigens - blood type O

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7
Q

what does Rh factor consist of?

A

Rh factor = positive blood type
no Rh factor = negative blood type

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8
Q

what are antibodies named after?

A

the non-self antigens they attach to

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9
Q

Patient with O+ blood: what antigens and antibodies do they have?

A

Rh antigen

anti-A antibody
anti-B antibody

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10
Q

Patient with O- blood: what antigens and antibodies do they have?

A

no antigens (naked)

anti-A antibody
anti-B antibody
anti-Rh antibody

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11
Q

Patient with B+ blood: what antigens and antibodies do they have?

A

B antigen
Rh antigen

anti-A antibody

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12
Q

what happens once the antibody has attached to a non-self antigen?

A

agglutination (clumping)
lysis of cell

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13
Q

what causes blood type incompatibility?

A

antibodies bind to antigens and activate immune system

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14
Q

what are the two types of transfusion?

A

packed cell transfusion
whole blood transfusion

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15
Q

what makes packed cell transfusion and whole blood transfusion different?

A

packed cell: only RBCs are donated (not plasma)
whole blood: everything is donated (plasma and RBCs)

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16
Q

when would whole blood transfusion be necessary?

A

ONLY in an emergency (too much risk of transferring other debris/pathogens)

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17
Q

what blood type is the universal donor? (in packed cell)

A

O-

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18
Q

what blood type is the universal acceptor? (in packed cell)

A

AB+

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19
Q

what are symptoms of blood type incompatibility?

A

fever
chills
lower back pain
pink/red urine

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20
Q

why would someone experience lower back pain or pink/red urine after a blood transfusion?

A

they received the wrong blood type and their antibodies have enacted their immune system. hemolysis of RBCs occur and the kidneys have to work overtime to clean out hemoglobin waste. red waste is then excreted in urine.

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21
Q

what could we do to counteract a blood type incompatibility case?

A

immunosuppressant drugs to fix

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22
Q

what is HDNB?

A

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
caused when anti-Rh antibody crosses placenta to attack fetus’ RBC

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23
Q

what are the three conditions that must be met to be in danger of HDNB?

A
  1. mom must be Rh negative (blood type negative)
  2. dad must be Rh positive (b/c baby could be too)
  3. must have had at least one previous Rh+ pregnancy
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24
Q

why must the mother have already had a previous Rh+ pregnancy to be at risk for HDNB?

A

her immune system must have been primed when baby’s DNA was mixed with mom’s at birth

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25
Q

what do we do in practice to treat HDNB?

A

prescribe medication to ALL Rh negative mothers

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26
Q

what type of solution goes mixed with blood in the wells we prepared?

A

antibodies of A, B, and Rh

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27
Q

how does the solution test blood type?

A

if solution reacts with blood, that means the type of blood in the well is the type that the antibody is conditioned for

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28
Q

List all the blood types a given type can either accept or donate to

A
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29
Q

what blood type?

A

O-

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30
Q

what blood type?

A

B+

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31
Q

Describe how to dispose of various types of waste

A

glass with biohazard goes in sharps container
broken glass goes in glass trash bin
non-biohazard trash goes in regular trash

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32
Q

Name the quantitative and qualitative blood cell experiments and their definitions

A

o Quantitative: Total RBC count – determine precise amount
o Qualitative: Differential WBC count – determine relative amount

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33
Q

what is the equation for determining RBC concentration?

A

raw data x diluent factor = RBC/mcL

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34
Q

what is the normal range of RBC count? what are the two blood disorders

A

o Normal RBC count is 4-6 million
o Anything less = anemia
o Anything more = polycythemia

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35
Q

distinguish between the 5 classes of WBC and their percentages

A

o Neutrophil (50-70%) – have trilobed nucleus and small red granules
o Eosinophil (2-4%) – have bilobed nucleus and large red granules
o Basophil (<1%) – have U-shaped nucleus and large dark granules
o Lymphocyte (20-40%) – smallest similar to RBC size, large round nucleus, small rim of cytoplasm
o Monocyte (3-8%) – monstrously large with puffy U-shaped nucleus

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36
Q

Name the granulocytes and agranulocytes

A

o Granulocytes: Neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil
o Agranulocytes: lymphocytes and monocytes

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37
Q

Calculate the percentages, do any of them not match their general ranges? why might this be the case?

A

percentage of basophils is 35% which is much more than is average
basophils were probably misidentified lymphocytes. If only looking at the nucleus of lymphocyte, it can appear to look like the dark granules of basophil

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38
Q

Draw and label an ECG for 1 or more heart beat

A
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39
Q

what initiates the P wave?

A

SA node

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40
Q

what electrical event occurs within the P wave?

A

atrial depolarization

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41
Q

what part of the cardiac cycle is the P wave in?

A

late diastole

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42
Q

what initiates the QRS complex?

A

AV node

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43
Q

what electrical event occurs within the QRS complex?

A

ventricular depolarization
atrial repolarization

44
Q

what part of the cardiac cycle does the QRS complex occur in?

A

systole

45
Q

what electrical event occurs within the T wave?

A

ventricular repolarization

46
Q

what part of the cardiac cycle does the T wave occur in?

A

early diastole

47
Q

where is the PR segment located?

A

flat line between P and QRS complex

48
Q

what occurs during the PR segment?

A

it is the time delay between atrial and ventricular contraction

49
Q

where is the PR interval?

A

P wave + PR segment

50
Q

what occurs during the PR interval?

A

total time of atrial contraction

51
Q

where is ST segment?

A

flatline between QRS complex and T wave

52
Q

what occurs during the ST segment?

A

ventricles are contracting

53
Q

where is QT interval?

A

QRS complex + all of T wave

54
Q

what occurs during QT interval?

A

total time of systole

55
Q

where is TP segment?

A

end of T wave to beginning of next P wave

56
Q

what does an elevated ST segment indicate?

A

myocardial infarction

57
Q

which wave/segment decreases the most with exercise

A

TP segment

58
Q

what are the three conditions that we tested in our ECG experiment?

A

lay down 20 seconds
sit up
exercise for 60 seconds

59
Q

convert 0.085 seconds to ms?

A

86 ms

60
Q

what is the equation for BPM?

A
61
Q

If someone has SA node fail to fire but AV node still fires, what’s the outcome to their ECG?

A

no p wave, but QRS and T wave still exist

62
Q

Name the heart sounds and what causes them

A

Lub - AV valves closing
Dup - SL valves closing

63
Q

where would you hear lub?

A

5th intercostal space

64
Q

where would you hear dup?

A

2nd intercostal space

65
Q

what would be heard on the left side of the 5th intercostal space?

A

mitral AV valve

66
Q

what would be heard on the right side of the 5th intercostal space?

A

tricuspid AV valve

67
Q

what would be heard on the left side of the 2nd intercostal space?

A

pulmonary SL valve

68
Q

what would be heard on the right side of the 2nd intercostal space?

A

aortic SL valve

69
Q

what does an abnormal sound indicate?

A

heart murmur

70
Q

what would a whooshing sound indicate?

A

incompetent valve

71
Q

what would a screech/clicking sound indicate?

A

stenosis (stiff valve)

72
Q

what is the superficial pulse measuring?

A

palpating peripheral arteries by counting surges in a given # seconds

73
Q

where can you measure superficial pulse?

A

brachial artery
radial artery
carotid artery

74
Q

what is the apical pulse?

A

using a stethoscope to auscultate (listen) to heart and count Lub/Dup per minute

75
Q

26 surges in 15 seconds, what is pulse?

A

104 BPM

76
Q

what is pulse deficit?

A

when apical and superficial pulse don’t match

77
Q

what can cause pulse deficit?

A

low cardiac output
blocked artery
abnormal rhythm

78
Q

what is the definition of blood pressure?

A

the force on vessel walls exerted by blood

79
Q

give equation for MAP and PP

A
80
Q

what are the units of measure for MAP and PP?

A

mm Hg

81
Q

Explain the theory behind how to take a BP. Including the fancy names of the instruments

A

Place sphygmomanometer around bicep, block off sound by increasing pressure past systolic value, release pressure and use stethoscope to auscultate for sounds, once you first hear sounds, that is the systolic value. Keep releasing pressure until you don’t hear any more sounds. The point at which you no longer hear sounds is the diastolic value

82
Q

Describe the Korotkoff sounds and explain when they are heard.

A

Soft tapping sounds heart when there is turbulent flow. Turbulent flow occurs when blood vessel is slightly, but not all the way closed.

83
Q

describe what we tested in each of the three blood pressure experiments

A

o 1. Posture changes: sitting, laying down, standing up
o 2. Exercise: sitting, exercise, record after recovery
o 3. Cold pressor test: sitting, dunking hand in ice water, record recovery

84
Q

what was the purpose of the cold pressor test?

A

to test response to pain

85
Q

what is the requirements of a hyperreactor?

A

SYS or DIA increase/decrease by a value of 23 mmHg or more

86
Q

what are the requirements of a hyporeactor?

A

neither SYS nor DIA change by a value of more than 22 mmHg

87
Q

Describe the purpose of the 1. airflow transducer and the 2. mouthpiece filter

A
  1. measures air flow
  2. trap and remove bacteria and viruses. also help to protect patients from cross-contamination.
88
Q

Draw a spirogram and identify all the respiratory volumes and capacities on it

A
89
Q

what is TV?

A

tidal volume: volume moved at rest

90
Q

what is the IRV?

A

Inspiratory reserve volume
max volume inhaled beyond a normal inhale

91
Q

what is the ERV?

A

Expiratory reserve volume - max volume exhaled beyond a normal exhale

92
Q

what is the RV?

A

residual volume - the residual volume that cannot be exhaled

93
Q

what is the average volume for TV?

A

0.500 L

94
Q

what is the average volume for RV?

A

1.000 L

95
Q

what is the inspiratory capacity?

A

TV + IRV
*max volume inhaled after normal exhale

96
Q

what is the expiratory capacity?

A

TV + ERV
* max volume exhaled after normal inhale

97
Q

what is the functional residual capacity?

A

ERV + RV
* volume still in lungs at end of normal exhale

98
Q

what is the vital capacity?

A

IRV + TV + ERV
*volume of largest breath

99
Q

what is total lung capacity?

A

RV + ERV + TV + IRV
*total volume in lungs at the top of max inhale

100
Q

what are the factors of predicting vital capacity?

A

age in years
height in cm
sex

101
Q

how do you convert in to cm?

A

in x 2.54 = cm

102
Q

which volume did we not directly measure in lab and why not?

A

residual volume; because lungs would collapse if it was lost (measured)

103
Q

what are the reasons why predicted lung capacity would not match actual lung capacity?

A

smokers
pollution exposure
respiratory diseases
pregnancy

104
Q

what are the two types of pulmonary diseases and how do they affect breathing?

A

restrictive - make it hard to inhale
obstructive - make it hard to exhale

105
Q

which factor gives restrictive and obstructive pulmonary diseases?

A

being a smoker

Anatomy and Physiology II LAB (13 decks)

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