Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Histology Exam 2 Material > Blood > Flashcards

Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What is blood’s pH range

A

7.35-7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is plasma

A

Blood minus the formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Serum

A

Plasma without the blood-clotting proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

if you heparinized and centrifuged blood what would you end up with

A

Plasma (supernatant)
Leukocytes (buffy coat)
sedimented Red blood cells (precipitate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a normal hematocrit

A

42-47%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is serum lacking

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What percentage of total body weight is blood

A

8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Females typically have how many liters of blood

A

4-5 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Males typically have how many liters of blood

A

5-6 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the typical hematocrit for females

A

38%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Males typically have how many liters of blood

A

5-6 Liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the typical hematocrit for males

A

42%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the percentage of formed elements in female blood

A

38-48%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the percentage of formed elements in male blood

A

44-54%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 major blood proteins

A

Fibrinogens, Albumins, Globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is fibrinogen made

A

In the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is fibrinogen main function

A

in blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the target of thrombin

A

Fibrinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is albumin made

A

in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the major function of Albumins

A

exert major osmotic pressure on blood vessel walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced

A

By the Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the major components of erythrocytes

A

Lipids, ATP, Carbonic anhydrase, Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what percentage of proteins are integral membrane proteins

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are two examples of peripheral proteins

A

Spectrin and Actin (bound via ankyrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Erythrocytes are devoid of what

A

Granules and organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the content of erythrocytes in males

A

4.3-5.5 x 10^3 microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many erythrocytes do females have

A

3.5-5 x 10^3 microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the two major transmembrane proteins exposed to the outer surface of the red blood cell

A

Glycophorin and Anion transporter (band 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the function of the anion transprter (band 3) in erythrocytes

A

allows HCO3- to cross the plasma membrane in exchange for Cl-. This exchange facilitates the release of CO2 in the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the function of ankyrin in erythrocytes

A

anchors spectrin to band 3 (Anion transporter channel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Spectrin tetramers are linked to a complex formed by what three proteins

A

Short actin (composed of 13 G-actin monomers), Tropomyosin, Protein 4.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of Protein 4.1 in the erythrocyte

A

links the actin-tropomyosin complex to glycophorin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the function of Adducin in erythrocytes

A

is a calmodulin-binding protein that stimulates the association of actin with spectrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Spectrin is a large dimeric protein consisting of two polypeptides

A

Spectrin alpha (240kd) and Spectrin beta (220kd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Spectrin alpha and spectrin beta associate in ______ pairs to form a rod about ______ nm long

A

antiparallel, 900nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The two chains of spectrin join head to head to form a ______, found in the _____ region of the red blood cell

A

Tetramer, Cortical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis (HS)

A

Red blood cells are spheroidal, less, rigid, and subject to destruction in the spleen
This alteration is caused by cytoskeletal abnormalities involving sites of interactions between spectrin alpha and spectrin Beta and protein 4.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Erythrocytes have no ____ or _____

A

nucleus or organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the principal determinant of an erythrocytes cell shape

A

the Cortical cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the major structural component of erythrocytes

A

Spectrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Spectrin is a member of what family of actin-binding proteins

A

Calponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Spectrin is a _____ of two polypeptide chains, ___ and ____

A

Tetramer, alpha, beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The ends of spectrin tetramers associate with _________, resulting in the _________

A

Short actin fliaments, resulting in the spectrin-actin network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

_______ links the spectrin-actin network and the plasma membrane by binding to spectrin and a transmembrane protein (band 3)

A

Ankyrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

______ binds spectrin-actin junctions and the transmembrane protein glycophorin

A

Protein 4.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The beta chain and alpha chain of spectrin are connected by what

A

a beta sheet domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The calcium binding domain of spectrin is on what chain

A

the alpha chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The actin binding domain is on what chain of spectrin tetramer

A

Beta chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Neutrophils are also referred to as what

A

polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How large is a neutrophil

A

7-9 micrometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how many lobes does a neutrophil have

A

3-5 nuclear lobes with connecting strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Neutrophils are active ______ phagocytes

A

amoeboid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Neutrophils have small, numerous _________

A

specific granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Neutrophils have larger, less numerous __________

A

azurophilic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How long do neutrophils remain in circulation

A

for 10-12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How long do neutrophils live after living circulation

A

1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the function of a neutrophil

A

secrete a class of enzymes capable of destroying certain bacteria by formation of free radicals (superoxide) as well as the release of lysozyme and lactoferrin, which destroy bacterial walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

You can sometimes see what in blood cells that tells you it is a female’s blood

A

Barr bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Primary (azurophilic) granules of a neutrophil contain what

A

elastase and myeloperoxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

secondary (or specific) granules of a neutrophil contain what

A

lysozyme and other proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the most common blood stain used

A

Wright-Giemsa stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Neutrophils migrate to ______ where they recognize and phagocytose ______

A

sites of infection, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Neutrophils represent ____ to ____ of total leukocytes

A

50-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the granules in a neutrophil that are clearly visible are what

A

secondary (or specific) granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the size of a Basophil

A

7-9 micrometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The initial inflammatory response is _______ and happens during the first ____ to ____

A

infiltration of neutrophils, first 24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A basophil has a ____ nucleus

A

lobulated (bilobed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Basophils contain large, mebrane-bound ______ granules

A

Basophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The large, membran-bound basophilic granules of a basophil contain what

A

Vasoactive substances:

         - Serotonin
         - Heparin (anticoagulant)
         - Kallikrein (attracts eosinophils)  - can produce leukotrienes:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the functions of leukotrienes

A

Increases vascular permeability, slow contraction of smooth muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the size of an Eosinophil

A

9-10 micrometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Eosinophils have what kind of nucleus

A

Bilobed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the specific granules in an eosinophil

A

Major Basic Proteins (MBP):

  - Disrupts parasite membrane 
  - Causes basophils to release histamine - Peroxidase - Cationic Protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the function of cationic proteins in eosinophils

A

neutralizes heparin and is anti-parasitic

75
Q

What is the function of a Eosinophil

A

Respond in allergic diseases and parasitic infections

Phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes and parasites

76
Q

What is the function of Eosinophil Peroxidases

A

it binds to microorganisms and facilitates their killing by macrophages

77
Q

What is the function of major basic proteins (MBP) in eosinophils

A

it is the predominant component of the crystalline center of the eosinophil granule
it binds to and disrupts the membrane of parasites (binding is mediated by its Fc receptor)
It causes basophils to release histamine by a Calcium - dependent mechanism

78
Q

What is the function of Eosinophil cationic protein

A

It neutralizes heparin

together with MBP, it causes the fragmentation of parasites

79
Q

What is the size of a small lymphocyte

A

6-8 micrometers

80
Q

what is the size of a medium lymphocyte

A

10-12 micrometers

81
Q

What is the size of a large lymphocyte

A

up to 18 micrometers

82
Q

Describe the characteristics of a lymphocytes nucleus

A

Large round, sometimes slightly indented nucleus, fills most of the cell

83
Q

Precursor of plasma cell

A

B lymphocyte

84
Q

Can you visualize the difference of a B and T cell under a microscope

A

No

85
Q

Lymphocytes make up what percentage of white blood cells

A

20-40%

86
Q

Where do T lymphocytes complete their maturation

A

in the Thymus

87
Q

Where are T and B lymphocytes produced

A

In the bone marrow

88
Q

What is the largest Leukocyte

A

Monocytes

89
Q

What is the size of a monocyte

A

15-20 micrometers

90
Q

What are the characteristics of a monocyte nucleus

A

Eccentrically located, kidney-shaped nucleus

91
Q

Monocytes are precursors of what

A

macrophages and osteoclasts

92
Q

Monocytes have granular cytoplasm due to what

A

small lysosomes

93
Q

what percentage of circulating leukocytes are monocytes

A

2-8%

94
Q

How long do monocytes travel in the bloodstream

A

about 20 hours

95
Q

Macrophages are more efficient phagocytic cells than what

A

Neutrophils

96
Q

What are platelets derived from

A

Megakaryocytes

97
Q

How big are platelets

A

2 micrometers

98
Q

What is the volume of platelets in blood

A

200,000-400,000 per microliter of blood

99
Q

The adhesion of platelets involves what

A

Integrins

100
Q

Platelets release _______ which increases platelet aggregation

A

Thromboxane

101
Q

Endothelial cels release ____ which decreases platelet aggregation

A

prostacyclin

102
Q

What are the functions of platelets

A

enhance aggregation by release of factors, and they promote clot formation, retraction, and dissolution

103
Q

_______ is the elimination of bleeding

A

Hemostasis

104
Q

The most effective mechanisms for hemostasis occur in what

A

small vessels such as capillaries, arterioles, and venules

105
Q

What is the accumulation of blood in tissues called

A

A hematoma

106
Q

Hemostatic sequence of events (in small vessels)

A

First defense in slowing down blood loss- constriction of smooth muscles around vessels

  • constriction of vessels
  • slowing of blood
  • formation of platelet plug
  • blood clotting (coagulation)
107
Q

Platelets do not normally adhere to the endothelial cells that line the ________

A

blood vessel walls

108
Q

Why do platelets not normally adhere to the endothelial cells that line the blood vessel walls

A

untraumatized platelets produce prostacyclin from arachidonic acid

109
Q

In an injury, endothelial lining is disrupted, exposing the underlying _______

A

collagen fibers

110
Q

Platelets first adhere to what

A

collagen fibers

111
Q

After platelets adhere to collagen they release what

A

their contents of their secretory vesicles, including ADP

112
Q

What is the function of ADP when released from a platelets secretory vesicles

A

causes the conversion of arachidonic acid in the platelet plasma membrane to trhomboxane A2, which further stimulates platelet aggregation

113
Q

ADP and other factors cause the platelets to _____, forming a ____

A

Aggregate, plug

114
Q

What is the plasma protein, that is released form Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells, and facilitates the adherence of platelets to the walls of the damaged blood vessels

A

Von Willebrand factor

115
Q

What activates prothrombin

A

Factor XII

116
Q

What is prothrombin

A

It is an inactive form of an enzyme that is activated by factor XII
Prothrombin is always found in blood of normal individuals

117
Q

When is factor XII activated

A

when it contacts collagen in the damaged vessel wall

118
Q

What is thrombin

A

Active form of prothrombin

catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

119
Q

Where is fibrinogen formed

A

in the liver

120
Q

Is fibrinogen always present in the blood of normal individuals

A

yes

121
Q

What is fibrin

A

Meshwork in which platelets, blood cells, and plasma become entrapped to form the actual clot

122
Q

The fibrin meshwork forms in the presence of what

A

Factor XIII

123
Q

What activates Factor XIII

A

Thrombin

124
Q

what does the term factors refer to

A

proteins

125
Q

what converts fribinogen to fibrin

A

Thrombin

126
Q

Explain the reshaping of the clot by polymerization of fibrin

A
  • fibrinogen is split into a number of polypeptides by thrombin.
  • These polypeptides are then chemically linked by the enzymatic action of factor XIII
  • Erythrocytes and other cells are trapped in this mesh and become part of the clot
127
Q

Explain the dissolution of fibrin clots through activation of the plasminogen activator system and the action of plasmin

A
  • referred to as fibrinolysis
  • a cascade of protein plasminogen activators convert inactive plasminogen to its enzymatic form, plasmin
    - one of the plasminogen activators is tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) which is produced by endothelial cells and circulates in the blood
    - t-PA is weak enzyme in the absence of fibrin, so fibrin actually initiates its own destruction
  • plasmin and t-PA dissolve a clot
128
Q

what is the enzymatic form of plasminogen

A

Plasmin

129
Q

t-PA is what

A

a plaminogen activators
produced by endothelial cells and circulates in the blood
weak enzyme in the absence of fibrin

130
Q

t-PA is produced by

A

endothelial cells

131
Q

how many different cascade sequences are there and what are they

A

two, intrinsic and extrinsic pathways

132
Q

The two different cascade sequences lead to what

A

the same common pathway

133
Q

What two things dissolve a blood clot

A

Plasmin and t-PA

134
Q

What initiates the intrinsic pathway

A

injury to the endothelium of the blood vessel exposing collagen fibers.

135
Q

Everything necessary for the intrinsic pathways to occur is located

A

within the blood

136
Q

What is required as a cofactor for many of the sequential steps in the clotting cascades

A

calcium

137
Q

The extrinsic pathway involves the formation of

A

Tissue factor ( thromboplastin or factor III)

138
Q

Thromboplastin is a membrane-bound ______ expressed at sites of cell injury

A

lipoprotein

139
Q

Thromboplastin is derived form what

A

plasma or organelle membranes of damaged cells in the disrupted tissue and enters into the circulating blood

140
Q

Injury to endothelium of blood vessels exposing collagen fibers leads to the activation of ___________

A

Factor XII (Hageman Factor)

141
Q

Activated Factor XII activates ______ and _____

A

Factor XI and prekallikrein to kallikrein

142
Q

Kallikrein is involved in the formation of ________ in the kinin cascade and in the conversion of _____________ to _______ in the fibrinolytic system

A

Bradykinin, plasminogen, plasmin

143
Q

What is the function of bradykinin

A

increases vascular permeability

144
Q

Kallikrein can also feedback and activate more ________

A

Hageman factor

145
Q

In the intrinsic pathway activated factor XI activates ____

A

Factor IX (note that thrombin is also involved in the activation of Factor XI and Factor VIII)

146
Q

In the intrinsic pathway activated Factor IX Combines with activated Factor VIII and calcium to activate

A

Factor X

147
Q

Factor VIII is by

A

Thrombin

148
Q

In the extrinsic pathway damaged cell membranes from injured tissues release _____ into the blood

A

Thromboplastin

149
Q

In the extrinsic pathway activated Factor VII and Calcium activate

A

Factor X

150
Q

What is the common pathway

A

Either the intrinsic or extrinsic pathways lead to the common pathway

151
Q

In the common pathway activated factor X

A

combines with activated factor V and calcium to activate prothrombin

152
Q

In the common pathway Thrombin actives inactive _______ to ______

A

factor V to active factor V

153
Q

In the common pathway prothrombin (inactive factor II) leads to

A

Thrombin (activated factor II)

154
Q

The common pathway begins with activated factor ___

A

X

155
Q

The common pathway ends with the conversion of ______ to ____, followed by the cross-linking of fibrin by activated ______

A

Factor XIII

156
Q

In the common pathway thrombin with calcium converts ______ to _____

A

fibrinogen to fibrin

157
Q

In the common pathway thrombin with calcium activates _______

A

Factor XIII

158
Q

In the common pathway activated factor XIII is necessary in the cross-linking of _____ polymers to stabilize the ____ gel

A

fibrin, fibrin

159
Q

most of the clotting factors are synthesized in the

A

Liver

160
Q

_____ dysfunction may affect the clotting mechanism

A

Liver

161
Q

_______ is necessary in the synthesis of factors VII, IX, and X

A

Vitamin K

162
Q

Vitamin K is necessary in the synthesis of factors ___, ___, and ___

A

VII, IX, X

163
Q

nitric oxide is released by ________ and increases vascular permeability

A

Endothelial Cells

164
Q

______ leave the laminar flow and move toward the endothelium of the vessel wall

A

Leukocytes (i.e. Neutrophils)

165
Q

The homing mechanism for leukocyte extravasation is activated by various _______ released by _____, ____

A

cytokines, mast cells, platelets, damaged tissue cells

166
Q

What are the two phases of leukocyte extravasation involving cellular adhesion molecules

A

selectin phase, integrin phase

167
Q

In the selectin phase _____ are oligosaccharide lligands for P-selectin binding found on leukocyte membranes

A

Sialyl Lewis-x antigens

168
Q

In the selectin phase _____ appears on the cell surface when endothelial cells are activated by inflammatory signaling

A

P-selectin

169
Q

Oligosaccharide ligands on leukocytes bind to ________________ on the P-Selectins

A

Carbohydrate Recognition Domains (CRDs)

170
Q

The P-selectins are from ________ Bodies

A

Weibel-Palade

171
Q

Binding of ligands to the P-Selectins causes leukocytes to

A

roll along the endothelium

172
Q

During the Integrin phase integrin receptors are activated on the _______ membrane

A

leukocyte

173
Q

The integrin receptors bind to ____ and _____ on endothelial cells

A

ICAM-1 and ICAM-2 (Ig superfamily)

174
Q

Integrins ___ and ___ are activated on the leukocyte membrane

A

Beta1 and Beta2

175
Q

Integrins beta 1 and beta 2 once activated on the leukocyte membrane bind two what

A

VCAM and ICAM on the endothelial cell membranes

176
Q

Integrins interacting with endothelial ligands promote the

A

transendothelial migration of leukocytes

177
Q

What is Erythroblastosis Fetalis

A

This is an antibody-induced disease in the newborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus
This incompatibility occurs when the fetus inherits RBC antigenic determinants that are foreign to the mother. ABO and Rh blood group antigens are of particular interest
The intial exposure ot the Rh antigen during the first pregnancy does not cause erythroblastosis fetalis because IgM is produced and these are too large to cross the placenta. subsequent exposure to D antigen during the second or third pregnancy leads to a strong IgG response, and IgGs can cross the placenta

178
Q

What is the antigen that is the major cause of Rh incompatibility

A

D antigen

179
Q

Can IgG cross the placenta

A

Yes

180
Q

Can IgM cross the placenta

A

No it is too large

181
Q

What are Rh neg mothers given soon after delivery of an Rh+ baby

A

Anti-D globulin (RhoGam)

182
Q

What does Anti-D antibodies do

A

it masks the antigenic sites on the fetal RBCs that may have leaked into the maternal circulation during childbirth

183
Q

Hemolysis in erythroblastosis fetalis results in

A

Hemolytic anemia, which causes hypoxic injury to the heart and liver leading to generalized edema (hydrops fetalis)
Jaundice which causes damage to the CNS
Hyperbilirubinemia

Histology Exam 2 Material (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions