Blood Flashcards
1
Q
What is blood’s pH range
A
7.35-7.45
2
Q
What is plasma
A
Blood minus the formed elements
3
Q
What is Serum
A
Plasma without the blood-clotting proteins
4
Q
if you heparinized and centrifuged blood what would you end up with
A
Plasma (supernatant)
Leukocytes (buffy coat)
sedimented Red blood cells (precipitate)
5
Q
What is a normal hematocrit
A
42-47%
6
Q
What is serum lacking
A
Fibrinogen
7
Q
What percentage of total body weight is blood
A
8%
8
Q
Females typically have how many liters of blood
A
4-5 liters
9
Q
Males typically have how many liters of blood
A
5-6 liters
10
Q
What is the typical hematocrit for females
A
38%
11
Q
Males typically have how many liters of blood
A
5-6 Liters
12
Q
What is the typical hematocrit for males
A
42%
13
Q
what is the percentage of formed elements in female blood
A
38-48%
14
Q
What is the percentage of formed elements in male blood
A
44-54%
15
Q
What are the 3 major blood proteins
A
Fibrinogens, Albumins, Globulins
16
Q
Where is fibrinogen made
A
In the liver
17
Q
what is fibrinogen main function
A
in blood clotting
18
Q
What is the target of thrombin
A
Fibrinogens
19
Q
Where is albumin made
A
in the liver
20
Q
What is the major function of Albumins
A
exert major osmotic pressure on blood vessel walls
21
Q
Where is erythropoietin produced
A
By the Kidney
22
Q
What are the major components of erythrocytes
A
Lipids, ATP, Carbonic anhydrase, Hemoglobin
23
Q
what percentage of proteins are integral membrane proteins
A
50%
24
Q
what are two examples of peripheral proteins
A
Spectrin and Actin (bound via ankyrin)
25
Erythrocytes are devoid of what
Granules and organelles
26
what is the content of erythrocytes in males
4.3-5.5 x 10^3 microliter
27
How many erythrocytes do females have
3.5-5 x 10^3 microliter
28
What are the two major transmembrane proteins exposed to the outer surface of the red blood cell
Glycophorin and Anion transporter (band 3)
29
What is the function of the anion transprter (band 3) in erythrocytes
allows HCO3- to cross the plasma membrane in exchange for Cl-. This exchange facilitates the release of CO2 in the lungs
30
What is the function of ankyrin in erythrocytes
anchors spectrin to band 3 (Anion transporter channel)
31
Spectrin tetramers are linked to a complex formed by what three proteins
Short actin (composed of 13 G-actin monomers), Tropomyosin, Protein 4.1
32
What is the function of Protein 4.1 in the erythrocyte
links the actin-tropomyosin complex to glycophorin
33
What is the function of Adducin in erythrocytes
is a calmodulin-binding protein that stimulates the association of actin with spectrin
34
Spectrin is a large dimeric protein consisting of two polypeptides
Spectrin alpha (240kd) and Spectrin beta (220kd)
35
Spectrin alpha and spectrin beta associate in ______ pairs to form a rod about ______ nm long
antiparallel, 900nm
36
The two chains of spectrin join head to head to form a ______, found in the _____ region of the red blood cell
Tetramer, Cortical
37
What is hereditary spherocytosis (HS)
Red blood cells are spheroidal, less, rigid, and subject to destruction in the spleen
This alteration is caused by cytoskeletal abnormalities involving sites of interactions between spectrin alpha and spectrin Beta and protein 4.1
38
Erythrocytes have no ____ or _____
nucleus or organelles
39
What is the principal determinant of an erythrocytes cell shape
the Cortical cytoskeleton
40
What is the major structural component of erythrocytes
Spectrin
41
Spectrin is a member of what family of actin-binding proteins
Calponin
42
Spectrin is a _____ of two polypeptide chains, ___ and ____
Tetramer, alpha, beta
43
The ends of spectrin tetramers associate with _________, resulting in the _________
Short actin fliaments, resulting in the spectrin-actin network
44
_______ links the spectrin-actin network and the plasma membrane by binding to spectrin and a transmembrane protein (band 3)
Ankyrin
45
______ binds spectrin-actin junctions and the transmembrane protein glycophorin
Protein 4.1
46
The beta chain and alpha chain of spectrin are connected by what
a beta sheet domain
47
The calcium binding domain of spectrin is on what chain
the alpha chain
48
The actin binding domain is on what chain of spectrin tetramer
Beta chain
49
Neutrophils are also referred to as what
polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
50
How large is a neutrophil
7-9 micrometers
51
how many lobes does a neutrophil have
3-5 nuclear lobes with connecting strands
52
Neutrophils are active ______ phagocytes
amoeboid
53
Neutrophils have small, numerous _________
specific granules
54
Neutrophils have larger, less numerous __________
azurophilic granules
55
How long do neutrophils remain in circulation
for 10-12 hours
56
How long do neutrophils live after living circulation
1-2 days
57
What is the function of a neutrophil
secrete a class of enzymes capable of destroying certain bacteria by formation of free radicals (superoxide) as well as the release of lysozyme and lactoferrin, which destroy bacterial walls.
58
You can sometimes see what in blood cells that tells you it is a female's blood
Barr bodies
59
Primary (azurophilic) granules of a neutrophil contain what
elastase and myeloperoxidase
60
secondary (or specific) granules of a neutrophil contain what
lysozyme and other proteases
61
What is the most common blood stain used
Wright-Giemsa stain
62
Neutrophils migrate to ______ where they recognize and phagocytose ______
sites of infection, bacteria
63
Neutrophils represent ____ to ____ of total leukocytes
50-70%
64
What are the granules in a neutrophil that are clearly visible are what
secondary (or specific) granules
65
What is the size of a Basophil
7-9 micrometers
66
The initial inflammatory response is _______ and happens during the first ____ to ____
infiltration of neutrophils, first 24-48 hours
67
A basophil has a ____ nucleus
lobulated (bilobed)
68
Basophils contain large, mebrane-bound ______ granules
Basophilic
69
The large, membran-bound basophilic granules of a basophil contain what
Vasoactive substances:
- Serotonin
- Heparin (anticoagulant)
- Kallikrein (attracts eosinophils)
- can produce leukotrienes:
70
What are the functions of leukotrienes
Increases vascular permeability, slow contraction of smooth muscles
71
What is the size of an Eosinophil
9-10 micrometers
72
Eosinophils have what kind of nucleus
Bilobed
73
What are the specific granules in an eosinophil
Major Basic Proteins (MBP):
- Disrupts parasite membrane
- Causes basophils to release histamine
- Peroxidase
- Cationic Protein
74
What is the function of cationic proteins in eosinophils
neutralizes heparin and is anti-parasitic
75
What is the function of a Eosinophil
Respond in allergic diseases and parasitic infections
| Phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes and parasites
76
What is the function of Eosinophil Peroxidases
it binds to microorganisms and facilitates their killing by macrophages
77
What is the function of major basic proteins (MBP) in eosinophils
it is the predominant component of the crystalline center of the eosinophil granule
it binds to and disrupts the membrane of parasites (binding is mediated by its Fc receptor)
It causes basophils to release histamine by a Calcium - dependent mechanism
78
What is the function of Eosinophil cationic protein
It neutralizes heparin
| together with MBP, it causes the fragmentation of parasites
79
What is the size of a small lymphocyte
6-8 micrometers
80
what is the size of a medium lymphocyte
10-12 micrometers
81
What is the size of a large lymphocyte
up to 18 micrometers
82
Describe the characteristics of a lymphocytes nucleus
Large round, sometimes slightly indented nucleus, fills most of the cell
83
Precursor of plasma cell
B lymphocyte
84
Can you visualize the difference of a B and T cell under a microscope
No
85
Lymphocytes make up what percentage of white blood cells
20-40%
86
Where do T lymphocytes complete their maturation
in the Thymus
87
Where are T and B lymphocytes produced
In the bone marrow
88
What is the largest Leukocyte
Monocytes
89
What is the size of a monocyte
15-20 micrometers
90
What are the characteristics of a monocyte nucleus
Eccentrically located, kidney-shaped nucleus
91
Monocytes are precursors of what
macrophages and osteoclasts
92
Monocytes have granular cytoplasm due to what
small lysosomes
93
what percentage of circulating leukocytes are monocytes
2-8%
94
How long do monocytes travel in the bloodstream
about 20 hours
95
Macrophages are more efficient phagocytic cells than what
Neutrophils
96
What are platelets derived from
Megakaryocytes
97
How big are platelets
2 micrometers
98
What is the volume of platelets in blood
200,000-400,000 per microliter of blood
99
The adhesion of platelets involves what
Integrins
100
Platelets release _______ which increases platelet aggregation
Thromboxane
101
Endothelial cels release ____ which decreases platelet aggregation
prostacyclin
102
What are the functions of platelets
enhance aggregation by release of factors, and they promote clot formation, retraction, and dissolution
103
_______ is the elimination of bleeding
Hemostasis
104
The most effective mechanisms for hemostasis occur in what
small vessels such as capillaries, arterioles, and venules
105
What is the accumulation of blood in tissues called
A hematoma
106
Hemostatic sequence of events (in small vessels)
First defense in slowing down blood loss- constriction of smooth muscles around vessels
- constriction of vessels
- slowing of blood
- formation of platelet plug
- blood clotting (coagulation)
107
Platelets do not normally adhere to the endothelial cells that line the ________
blood vessel walls
108
Why do platelets not normally adhere to the endothelial cells that line the blood vessel walls
untraumatized platelets produce prostacyclin from arachidonic acid
109
In an injury, endothelial lining is disrupted, exposing the underlying _______
collagen fibers
110
Platelets first adhere to what
collagen fibers
111
After platelets adhere to collagen they release what
their contents of their secretory vesicles, including ADP
112
What is the function of ADP when released from a platelets secretory vesicles
causes the conversion of arachidonic acid in the platelet plasma membrane to trhomboxane A2, which further stimulates platelet aggregation
113
ADP and other factors cause the platelets to _____, forming a ____
Aggregate, plug
114
What is the plasma protein, that is released form Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells, and facilitates the adherence of platelets to the walls of the damaged blood vessels
Von Willebrand factor
115
What activates prothrombin
Factor XII
116
What is prothrombin
It is an inactive form of an enzyme that is activated by factor XII
Prothrombin is always found in blood of normal individuals
117
When is factor XII activated
when it contacts collagen in the damaged vessel wall
118
What is thrombin
Active form of prothrombin
| catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
119
Where is fibrinogen formed
in the liver
120
Is fibrinogen always present in the blood of normal individuals
yes
121
What is fibrin
Meshwork in which platelets, blood cells, and plasma become entrapped to form the actual clot
122
The fibrin meshwork forms in the presence of what
Factor XIII
123
What activates Factor XIII
Thrombin
124
what does the term factors refer to
proteins
125
what converts fribinogen to fibrin
Thrombin
126
Explain the reshaping of the clot by polymerization of fibrin
- fibrinogen is split into a number of polypeptides by thrombin.
- These polypeptides are then chemically linked by the enzymatic action of factor XIII
- Erythrocytes and other cells are trapped in this mesh and become part of the clot
127
Explain the dissolution of fibrin clots through activation of the plasminogen activator system and the action of plasmin
- referred to as fibrinolysis
- a cascade of protein plasminogen activators convert inactive plasminogen to its enzymatic form, plasmin
- one of the plasminogen activators is tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) which is produced by endothelial cells and circulates in the blood
- t-PA is weak enzyme in the absence of fibrin, so fibrin actually initiates its own destruction
- plasmin and t-PA dissolve a clot
128
what is the enzymatic form of plasminogen
Plasmin
129
t-PA is what
a plaminogen activators
produced by endothelial cells and circulates in the blood
weak enzyme in the absence of fibrin
130
t-PA is produced by
endothelial cells
131
how many different cascade sequences are there and what are they
two, intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
132
The two different cascade sequences lead to what
the same common pathway
133
What two things dissolve a blood clot
Plasmin and t-PA
134
What initiates the intrinsic pathway
injury to the endothelium of the blood vessel exposing collagen fibers.
135
Everything necessary for the intrinsic pathways to occur is located
within the blood
136
What is required as a cofactor for many of the sequential steps in the clotting cascades
calcium
137
The extrinsic pathway involves the formation of
Tissue factor ( thromboplastin or factor III)
138
Thromboplastin is a membrane-bound ______ expressed at sites of cell injury
lipoprotein
139
Thromboplastin is derived form what
plasma or organelle membranes of damaged cells in the disrupted tissue and enters into the circulating blood
140
Injury to endothelium of blood vessels exposing collagen fibers leads to the activation of ___________
Factor XII (Hageman Factor)
141
Activated Factor XII activates ______ and _____
Factor XI and prekallikrein to kallikrein
142
Kallikrein is involved in the formation of ________ in the kinin cascade and in the conversion of _____________ to _______ in the fibrinolytic system
Bradykinin, plasminogen, plasmin
143
What is the function of bradykinin
increases vascular permeability
144
Kallikrein can also feedback and activate more ________
Hageman factor
145
In the intrinsic pathway activated factor XI activates ____
Factor IX (note that thrombin is also involved in the activation of Factor XI and Factor VIII)
146
In the intrinsic pathway activated Factor IX Combines with activated Factor VIII and calcium to activate
Factor X
147
Factor VIII is by
Thrombin
148
In the extrinsic pathway damaged cell membranes from injured tissues release _____ into the blood
Thromboplastin
149
In the extrinsic pathway activated Factor VII and Calcium activate
Factor X
150
What is the common pathway
Either the intrinsic or extrinsic pathways lead to the common pathway
151
In the common pathway activated factor X
combines with activated factor V and calcium to activate prothrombin
152
In the common pathway Thrombin actives inactive _______ to ______
factor V to active factor V
153
In the common pathway prothrombin (inactive factor II) leads to
Thrombin (activated factor II)
154
The common pathway begins with activated factor ___
X
155
The common pathway ends with the conversion of ______ to ____, followed by the cross-linking of fibrin by activated ______
Factor XIII
156
In the common pathway thrombin with calcium converts ______ to _____
fibrinogen to fibrin
157
In the common pathway thrombin with calcium activates _______
Factor XIII
158
In the common pathway activated factor XIII is necessary in the cross-linking of _____ polymers to stabilize the ____ gel
fibrin, fibrin
159
most of the clotting factors are synthesized in the
Liver
160
_____ dysfunction may affect the clotting mechanism
Liver
161
_______ is necessary in the synthesis of factors VII, IX, and X
Vitamin K
162
Vitamin K is necessary in the synthesis of factors ___, ___, and ___
VII, IX, X
163
nitric oxide is released by ________ and increases vascular permeability
Endothelial Cells
164
______ leave the laminar flow and move toward the endothelium of the vessel wall
Leukocytes (i.e. Neutrophils)
165
The homing mechanism for leukocyte extravasation is activated by various _______ released by _____, ____
cytokines, mast cells, platelets, damaged tissue cells
166
What are the two phases of leukocyte extravasation involving cellular adhesion molecules
selectin phase, integrin phase
167
In the selectin phase _____ are oligosaccharide lligands for P-selectin binding found on leukocyte membranes
Sialyl Lewis-x antigens
168
In the selectin phase _____ appears on the cell surface when endothelial cells are activated by inflammatory signaling
P-selectin
169
Oligosaccharide ligands on leukocytes bind to ________________ on the P-Selectins
Carbohydrate Recognition Domains (CRDs)
170
The P-selectins are from ________ Bodies
Weibel-Palade
171
Binding of ligands to the P-Selectins causes leukocytes to
roll along the endothelium
172
During the Integrin phase integrin receptors are activated on the _______ membrane
leukocyte
173
The integrin receptors bind to ____ and _____ on endothelial cells
ICAM-1 and ICAM-2 (Ig superfamily)
174
Integrins ___ and ___ are activated on the leukocyte membrane
Beta1 and Beta2
175
Integrins beta 1 and beta 2 once activated on the leukocyte membrane bind two what
VCAM and ICAM on the endothelial cell membranes
176
Integrins interacting with endothelial ligands promote the
transendothelial migration of leukocytes
177
What is Erythroblastosis Fetalis
This is an antibody-induced disease in the newborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus
This incompatibility occurs when the fetus inherits RBC antigenic determinants that are foreign to the mother. ABO and Rh blood group antigens are of particular interest
The intial exposure ot the Rh antigen during the first pregnancy does not cause erythroblastosis fetalis because IgM is produced and these are too large to cross the placenta. subsequent exposure to D antigen during the second or third pregnancy leads to a strong IgG response, and IgGs can cross the placenta
178
What is the antigen that is the major cause of Rh incompatibility
D antigen
179
Can IgG cross the placenta
Yes
180
Can IgM cross the placenta
No it is too large
181
What are Rh neg mothers given soon after delivery of an Rh+ baby
Anti-D globulin (RhoGam)
182
What does Anti-D antibodies do
it masks the antigenic sites on the fetal RBCs that may have leaked into the maternal circulation during childbirth
183
Hemolysis in erythroblastosis fetalis results in
Hemolytic anemia, which causes hypoxic injury to the heart and liver leading to generalized edema (hydrops fetalis)
Jaundice which causes damage to the CNS
Hyperbilirubinemia
