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Medicine - Year 1 > Block 6 - Psychological Medicine 2 > Flashcards

Block 6 - Psychological Medicine 2 Flashcards

1
Q

2 characteristics of Schizophrenia

A

Relapsing

Remitting

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2
Q

What type of symptoms are thought disorder and decreased speech?

A

Thought disorder: +

Decreased speech: -

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3
Q

4 examples of extra pyramidal side effects

A

Acute Dystonia
Akathinisia
Parkinsons
Tardive Dyskinesia

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4
Q

Give 3 examples of infundibular side effects

How are they all caused?

A

Decreased periods, Decreased breast milk production, Infertility

Decrease in prolactin

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5
Q

Which disorder is classed as a syndrome?

A

Depression

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6
Q

What is the hypothesised cause of Schizophrenia?

A

+ symptoms: Increased dopamine in mesolimbic tracts

- symptoms: Decreased dopamine in mesocrotisol tracts

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7
Q

What are the arguments for and against the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?

A

FOR: Antipsychotics work on domamine; drugs that increase dopamine cause psychosis, changes in dopamine activity on brain scans

AGAINST: Drugs take a while to work (another mechanism?)

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8
Q

What causes a hypertensive crisis when consumed with MAO’s

A

Tyramine

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9
Q

What is the hypothesised cause of depression?

4 other theories

A

Decreased in neurotransmitters that are broken down by MAO

Behavioural, cognitive, physiological and endocrine

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10
Q

What are the arguments for and against the MAO hypothesis for depression?

A

FOR: Drugs that decrease MAO work; there are less precursors to MAO neurotransmitters in the blood

AGAINST: Drugs take weeks to work, some drugs don’t target neurotransmiters, cocaine mimics neurotransmitters but is not an antidepressant

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11
Q

What do autoreceptors do?

A

Cancel out the effects of neurotransmitters

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12
Q

What hormone does anxiety increase the level of?

A

Cortisol

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13
Q

How do calcium ion changes occur when you are having a panic attack?

A

Decreased carbon dioxide levels

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14
Q

9 physiological symptoms of anxiety

A

Decreased concentration and memory
Fear, panic, worry, irritability
Fear of death, danger, losing control

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15
Q

5 unhelpful behaviours associated with anxiety

A

Avoidance, coping mechanisms (e.g. drugs), pacing, safety behaviours, wringing hands

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16
Q

Define learning

A

Permanent change in behaviour due to experience

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17
Q

What area of the brain is involved in learning?

A

Amygdala

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18
Q

Why do we learn?

A

To adapt and survive

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19
Q

What are the 4 types of learning?

A

Associative
Complex
Factual Transmission
Vicarious

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20
Q

What is associative learning?

2 e.g.

A

Learning that events come together

e.g. classical and operant

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21
Q

What is vicarious learning?

e.g.

A

Learning by observation

e.g. modelling

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22
Q

What is complex learning?

2 e.g.

A

Learning in social situation

e.g. emotional intelligence

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23
Q

What is factual transmission?

A

Doing things with information to incorporate it into your brain

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24
Q

What is the difference between continuous and partial conditioning?
Which is more common?

A

Continuous: Every experience is reinforced
Partial: Reinforcement doesn’t happen every time

Partial is more common

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25
Q

What are the four types of partial conditioning?

A

Interval schedules: Depends on the time interval
Fixed: Predictable
Ratio schedules: Depends on the number of responses
Variable: Unpredictable

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26
Q

Explain ‘Thornicke’s Law of Effect’

A

Successful behaviour will be repeated

The reinforcer is IMMEDIATELY linked

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27
Q

Give an example of a primary and secondary reinforcement mechanism

A

Primary: Food
Secondary: Money`

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28
Q

Define shaping

What type of reinforcement is it?

A

Rewarding smaller behaviours with the aim of rewarding the desired and more complex behaviour
Positive

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29
Q

Define chaining

What type of reinforcement is it?

A

Breaking down complex behaviours into a series of simple acts which reinforces the next
Positive

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30
Q

Define phobia

A

A marked and persistent fear triggered by a specific object/situation that leads to avoidance

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31
Q

What are the three types of phobia?

A

Agoraphobia
Social phobia
Specific phobia

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32
Q

Define Agoraphobia

Give and example

A

Fear of public places

e.g. crowds

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33
Q

Define social phobia

Give and example

A

Fear of public performance

e.g. eating in public

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34
Q

Define specific phobia

Give and example

A

Specific fear

e.g. spiders

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35
Q

What type of reinforcement maintains phobia?

A

Negative

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36
Q

What are SMART targets?

A

A set number of targets which each increase in difficulty to treat anxiety or phobias

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37
Q

4 problems with punishment

A

Aggression
Fear or person
Physical/emotional harm
May increase the behaviour (e.g. child knows they get attention if they are naughty)

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38
Q

What are the symptoms of depression?

mneumonic

A 
Depressed mood
Energy loss/fatigue
Pleasure lost 
Retardation/agitation
Eating changes 
Sleep changes
Suicidal thoughts
I'm a faliure (loss of self-esteem and confidence)
Only me to blame (guilt)
No concentration
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39
Q

What is Annedonia

A

Decrease in pleasure

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40
Q

What is the difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous system?

A

Somatic: External environment
Autonomic: Internal environment (systems and homeostasis)

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41
Q

What are the somatic nervous system neurones, neurotransmitters and effectors?

A

Neurones: Single LMN from the CNS
Neurotransmitter: Excitatory ACh
Effector: Skeletal muscle

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42
Q

What are the enteric nervous system plexuses?

A

Myenteric and submucosal

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43
Q

How is the enteric system up/down regulated?

A

By the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

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44
Q

What are the neurotransmitters and effectors for the autonomic nervous system?

A

Neurotransmitter: ACh and noradrenaline
Effector: Cardiac smooth muscle, glands and organs

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45
Q

Where are the pre and post ganglionic neurones for the autonomic nervous system?

A

Pre-ganglionic: CNS, horn cells and cranial nerve nuclei

Post-ganglionic: In the ganglia

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46
Q

Where do the preganglionic neurones from the parasympathetic nervous system arise from?

A

Cranial nerves 3, 7, 9 and 10

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47
Q

Where do the preganglionic neurones from the parasympathetic nervous system end?

A

S2-S4

lateral part

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48
Q

Where is the postganglionic neurone from the parasympathetic nervous system?
What does this mean for the lengths of the pre and post ganglionic neurones

A

Near the organ

The pre ganglionic neurone is a lot longer than the psot ganglionic neurone

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49
Q

2 places where preganglionic axons do not travel

A

Within rami communicants or spinal nerves

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50
Q 
What class of neurones are in the parasympathetic nervous system?
What are the differences between them?
A

Cholinergic
Post-ganglionic: Nicotinic
Pre-ganglionic: Muscarinic

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51
Q

What type of secretion is the parasympathetic nervous system responsible for?

A

Secretomotor

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52
Q

Where do the pelvic splanchnic nerves arise from?

A

S2-S4

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53
Q

What are the lengths of the pre and post ganglionic neurones in the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic: The pre-ganglionic neurone is longer than the post ganglionic neurone
Sympathetic: The post-ganglionic neurone is longer than the pre-ganglionic neurone

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54
Q

What class of neurones are in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Post-ganglionic: Nicotinic cholinergic

Pre-ganglionic: Noradrenaline

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55
Q

Where are paravertebral ganglia?

A

Sympathetic trunk in the thorax

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56
Q

How do pre-ganglionic neurones leave the spinal cord and enter the body?

A

Pre-ganglionic neurones leave the spinal cord and enter the paravertebral sympathetic trunk
Spinal rami transport the pre-ganglionic neurones to the body

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57
Q

What does the adrenal medulla act as?

A

A ganglion with no post ganglionic neurones

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58
Q

What are the three thoracic splanchnic nerves?

A

Greater
Lesser
Least

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59
Q

What does the greater splanchnic nerve supply?

A

Coeliac ganglion

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60
Q

What does the lesser splanchnic nerve supply?

A

Superior mesenteric ganglion

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61
Q

What does the least splanchnic nerve supply?

A

Inferior mesenteric ganglion

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62
Q

Which post- ganglionic neurones release NO?

What does it lead to?

A

Nitroxidergic

Vasodilation

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63
Q

What is the role of the limbic system?

A

Emotions about neurological function

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64
Q

What is ptosis?

A

Lazy upper eyelid

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65
Q

What is anhydrosis?

A

No sweating on one side of the face

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66
Q

What is miosis?

A

Constricted pupil

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67
Q

Explain the parasympathetic and sympathetic control of the bladder?

A

Parasympathetic: Always excitatory
Sympathetic: Inhibitory to the muscle and excitatory to the sphincter

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68
Q

What is Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

A

Sensory loss (pain and temperature contralateral) and motor loss due to hemisection

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69
Q

9 side effects of overstimulating muscarinic and nicotinic neurones

3 for muscarinic specifically
4 for nicotinic specifically

A

Both: Diarrhoea, lacrimination, mitosis, perspiration, salivation, vomiting

Muscarinic: Bradycardia, coma, confusion
Nicotinic: Agitation, hypertension, tachycardia, tachypnoea

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70
Q

What is the structure of a muscarinic cholinergic receptor?

What type of response does it produce?

A

G protein receptor with 7 transmembrane protein that uses ATP to cause an indirect response

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71
Q

What is the structure of a nicotinic cholinergic receptor?

A

Ligand gated ion channels

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72
Q

What is the difference between uptake pathway 1 and 2?

A

Uptake pathway 1: Uptake at the neurone (e.g. breaking down the neurotransmitter)
Uptake pathway 2: Away from the neurone (e.g. MAO in liver)

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73
Q

How does the adrenal medulla release adrenaline?

A

Adds a methyl group

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74
Q

Which adrenergic neurone does adrenaline mainly work on?

A

Beta

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75
Q

What is the structure of an adrenergic receptor?

A

7 transmembrane G protein

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76
Q

What two behaviours are impaired in a learning disability

A 
Adaptive behaviour (reading, writing, maths)
Social functioning
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77
Q

Give 3 examples, other than IQ, of intelligence tests

What do they look for

A

Stanford-Binet Scale: Compared children to age based norms

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale: Less biased as it has verbal and performance scales

Culture Free Intelligence Tests: Identify congitive impairments without looking at language or formal education

78
Q

When do you have a learning disability on an IQ scale?

A

-2SD below the norm

79
Q

What are the 4 categories of learning disability?

What are the IQ’s for each one?

A

Mild (50-70)
Moderate (35-50)
Severe (20-35)
Profound (0-20)

80
Q

Define advocacy

A

The patient cannot make decisions

81
Q

What is death by indifference?

A

When people with learning disabilities find it harder to go to the hospital so they are neglected

82
Q

What is it called when you provide a quiet room for a patient with a learning disability to sit in if they get anxious when there is a lot of people

A

Reasonable adjustment

83
Q

6 major causes of learning disability

A 
Genetic
Infection
Metabolic
Trauma
Toxins
Tumours
84
Q

Give an example of a toxin which can cause a learning disability
Give 5 symptoms

A

Foetal alcohol syndrome

small head, short nose, underdeveloped jaw, flat midface, thin upper lip

85
Q

Give an example of a tumour which can cause a learning disability
How does it cause a learning disability

A

Tuberous sclerosis

Calcified growths form which can press on the brain

86
Q

5 things that increase in risk if you have Down’s Syndrome

A 
Increased risk of cardiac effects
Hypothyroidism
Leukaemia
Epilepsy
Chest Infections
87
Q

What is cerebral atrophy?

What increases the risk of it?

A

A brain morphology

Alzheimer’s

88
Q

Give an example of a metabolic condition which can cause a learning disability
Explain what happens and how it is diagnosed

A

Phenylketonuria
No phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme to hydrolyse phenylalanine
Epilepsy, autism, ADHD, odour (increased ketones)
Heel prick test

89
Q

Give 5 examples of infections which can cause a learning disability

A

Herpes, HIV, Rubella, Syphilis and Toxoplasmosis

90
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

A complication when contracting herpes

91
Q

Define psychosis

A

Fundamental and characteristic distortions of thinking and perception by inappropriate or blunted affect
Maintenance of consciousness and intelligence

92
Q

3 criteria for a schizophrenia diagnosis

A

1 or 2 syndromes for at least one month
No maniac or depressive episodes before this
Not caused by brain disease, alcohol/drug intoxication, dependence or withdrawal

93
Q

What is the average IQ of a person with schizoprehnia?

What may happen to this?

A

95

It may decrease

94
Q

What are 5 positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A 
Thoughts
Delusions
Hallucinatory voices
Disordered thought
Catatonic behaviour
95
Q

What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Give 7 examples

A

An absence of something that shouldn’t be there

Apathy, Avolition, Anergia, Algolia, Anhedonia, Ascociality, Affective flattening, impaired Attention

96
Q

What 4 things can happen to your thoughts in schizophrenia?

A

Echoed, inserted, withdrawn or broadcast

97
Q

Two characteristics of schizophrenic delusions

What does the patient think of them?

A

Persistent and impossible

A vague idea that they’re untrue

98
Q

3 characteristics of disordered thought

A

Derailment, irrelevance and inchoherance

99
Q

3 characteristics of catatonic behaviour

A

Excitement, mutism and unconciousness

100
Q

What are the three groups of psychosis?

A

Reality distortion: Hallucinations and delusions
Disorganisation: Thought disorder and inappropriate affect
Psychomotor poverty: Poverty of speech and blunt affect

101
Q

What happens to the ventricles, cortex and neurones in schizophrenia?

A

Ventricle volume increases
Cortex volume decreases
There are more neurones with decrease connections

102
Q

Which brain area is responsible for auditory hallucinations?

A

Broca’s Area

103
Q

Which brain area is responsible for negative symptoms?

A

Prefrontal cortex

104
Q

Which brain area is responsible for passivity?

A

Cingulate gyrus

105
Q

7 examples of risk factors for schizophrenia before and after birth

A

Prematurity, unwanted preganncy, rubella, influenza, malnutrition, LBW, brain abnormalities, birth complication

106
Q

2 examples of childhood risk factors for schizophrenia

A

Late milestones

Mixed handedness and hand eye dominance due to brain lateralisation

107
Q

Give 5 examples of drugs which can increase the risk of schizophrenia

A

Cannabis, hallucinogens, amphetamines, cocaine and crack

108
Q

What risk factor will give an earlier onset of schizophrenia?

A

A biological risk factor

109
Q

What area of the brain are D2 receptors most hyperactive in schizophrenia?

A

Striatum

110
Q

What three functions is dopamine involved in?

Which one is important for schizophrenia and why?

A

Reward, learning and salience

Salience: Filters irrelevant things, without this, irrelevant things become important

111
Q

8 conditions which have a similar diagnosis to schizophrenia

A 
Schizoffective disorder
Schizoid /schizotypal personality
Autism spectrum disorder
Intoxication
Delirium
Depressive psychosis
Bipolar effective disorder
Persistent delusion disorder
Acute transient psychotic disorder
112
Q

What are the symptoms of Acute transient psychotic disorder

What is their timescale

A

ACUTE onset of delusions, hallucinations and incoherent speech
In LESS THAN 2 WEEKS
Younger patients have a larger gap

113
Q

Give 7 examples of non-pharmacological treatments/help for psychosis

A

Family therapy, CBTp
Housing, employment, education and community support
Treatment for substance abuse

114
Q

Define ‘at risk mental state’

A

+ symptoms that are not severe enough for a psychosis diagnosis
Family history
Decline in psychological functioning

115
Q

Why is primary prevention and early intervention important for psychosis treatment?

A

Decreases the risk of aggressive treatment

116
Q

What support are you given if you have an ‘at risk mental state’?

A

Open referral
2 weeks for assessment
3 years support
6 month treatment

117
Q

Define personality

A

Stable characteristics that differentiate one person from another
Demonstrated in the consistent an predictable way that people behave in different situations over an extended period of time
Habitual patterns of behaviour, cognition and emotion over time and situation

118
Q

What do psycho-dynamic theories believe that personality is due to?

A

Unconscious internal conflicts between pleasure-seeking impulses associated with childhood; and social demands associated with adult life

119
Q

What are Freud’s 3 levels of awareness?

A

Conscious mind: Contact with the outside world
Pre-conscious mind: Just below the surface (easy to retrieve)
Unconscious mind: Well below the surface (hard to retrieve)

120
Q

Which level of awareness plays the biggest role in personality?

A

Unconscious mind

121
Q

What are the two types of personality which the psychodynamic theory developed by freud discovered?
Which personality balances this?

A

The id and the superego

The reality

122
Q

What 4 things is the id based on?
What does it avoid?
When does it want to do everything?

A

Based on life and death instincts, pleasure and biological urges
Avoids pain
Do everything now

123
Q

Define eros

A

Life instinct

124
Q

Define thantos

A

Death instinct

125
Q

How does the ego combine the id and superego?

What does decisions does it make?

A

Combines the two through conscious processing by higher mental processes
Looks at consequences and makes rational decisions and compromises

126
Q

What 3 things is the superego based on?
What does it stop us from doing?
What does it suggest?

A

Based on morality, reality and societal roles
Stops us from causing harm
Knows some things are not right

127
Q

Define conscience

A

The notions of right and wrong

128
Q

Define egoideal

A

How we’d ideally like to be

129
Q

What did Freud believe that personality develops because of?

A

Unresolved conflicts in early childhood

130
Q

What are Freud’s 5 stages of personality development?

What ages do they occur at?

A 
Oral (0-18 months)
Anal (18-36 months)
Phalic (3-6 years)
Latency (6 years - puberty)
Genital (puberty onwards)
131
Q

What do defence mechanisms do?

What does this reduce?

A

Balances tension between the id and superego to reduce anxiety

132
Q

Give 6 examples of defence mechanisms

A 
Repression
Projection
Denial
Displacement
Sublimation
Regression
133
Q

Define repression (as a defence mechanism)

A

Removing threatening thoughts from awareness

134
Q

Define projection (as a defence mechanism)

A

Projecting your attributes onto others

135
Q

Define denial (as a defence mechanism)

A

Refusal to recognise a threatening situation/thought

136
Q

Define displacement (as a defence mechanism)

A

Substituting a less threatening object for impulses

137
Q

Define sublimation (as a defence mechanism)

A

Challenging impulses to socially acceptable outlets

138
Q

Define regression (as a defence mechanism)

A

Return to a less mature state

Increase anxiety and decrease behaviour

139
Q

What was Carl Jung’s theory of personality? (2)

A

Personal vs collective unconsciousness

Introvert vs extrovert

140
Q

What was Alfred Alder’s theory of personality?

A

The superiority complex

141
Q

What do humanistic theories believe personality is based upon?

A

Experiences

Humans have choices and these choices help to shape our personality

142
Q

Define self-actualisation

A

Realise your personal potential

Fulfilment and personal growth is more important than what other people think

143
Q

Who were the two people who produced humanistic theories of personality?

A

Carl Rodgers and Maslow

144
Q

List Maslow’s heirachy of needs

A

Physiological - Safety - Love/belonging - Self-esteem - Self-actualisation

145
Q

Define self-concept

A

Own perception of ourselves

146
Q

What was Carl Rodger’s personality theory based on? (2)

When do you get anxious?

A

Self-concept
Your personality is based on experience and what you see other people doing
Anxiety: When you are not being yourself

147
Q

What do trait theories identify?

What is the scale?

A

The basic traits that differ between people

You have more/less of a trait

148
Q

Who were the three people who produced trait theories of personality?

A

Jung, Eysenck and Cattell

149
Q

What is Eysenck’s three factor theory?

A

Introvert vs Extrovert
Emotional stability vs Neuroticism
Impulse control vs Psychosis

150
Q

What did Cattell discover?

What three types of data did he use?

A

The 16 personality factors

L, Q and T data

151
Q

What is L-data?

A

Life record

152
Q

What is Q-data?

A

Personality questionnaire

153
Q

What is T-data?

A

Objective tests which ‘trap’ personality

154
Q

What are the ‘Big Five Personality Factors’

What is the mneumonic

A 
Openness (to experience)
Consciousness
Extroversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism
155
Q

What does Openness (to experience) include?

A

Curiosity, imagination, insight,intellectualism, interests

156
Q

What does Consciousness include?

A

Thoguhtful, organised, impulse control, goal irected behaviour, careful, persistant, dependable, responsible

157
Q

What does Extroversion include?

A

Assertive, excitable, expressive and talkative

158
Q

What does Agreeableness include?

A

Affection, generosity , kindness selflessness, trust and warmth

159
Q

What does Neuroticism include?

A

Anxiety, insecure, instability, irritable, moody, sad

160
Q

Positives and negatives of the Big 5 personality factors

A

+ Used in mental health and jobs

- No comment on development and misused

161
Q

Explain the difference between the internal and external locus of control

A

Internal: You control your own destiny (failing is your fault)
External: Fate controls your density, you cannot stop it (failing is the teacher’s fault)

162
Q

Three ways of measuring personality

A

Personality Assessments
Objective Personality Tests
Assessment Centres
Projective Personality Tests

163
Q

How do objective personality tests work?

A

If x happened would you do y or z

164
Q

Which personality test is this?

‘Subject responds to an ink blot on a piece of paper’

A

Projective Personality Test

165
Q

Three words to describe a ‘Type A’ behaviour

A

Competitive, dominant and hostile

166
Q

7 effects of having a Type A behaviour

A

CHS, stroke, somatic illness, emotional instability, bipolar, schizophrenia, personal life effects

psychosis and somatic illness

167
Q

Define ‘personality disorder’

A

A diverse category of psychiatric disorders which are characterised by long term behaviour that deviates from cultural expectations

168
Q

3 characteristics of the behaviour of a person suffering from personality disorder

A

Pervasive, inflexible and stable over time

169
Q

What are the three types of personality disorders?

A 
Cluster A (weird)
Cluster B (wild)
Cluster C (worried)
170
Q

What are the characteristics of someone with a Cluster A personality disorder?

A

Eccentric, Odd, Paranoid, Suspicious

Finds faults with people

171
Q

What are the characteristics of someone with a Cluster B personality disorder?

A

Dramatic, emotional, erratic, impulse, narcissistic
Caught in their own self image
Outgoing and bubbly to crisis

172
Q

What are the characteristics of someone with a Cluster C personality disorder?

A

Anxious, avoidant, compulsive, dependent, fearful, obsessive

173
Q

Define attachment

A

A deep and enduring emotional bond that connects two people across time and space
It’s evolutionary purpose is to protect the baby by keeping it safe with its mother

174
Q

Define attachment disorder

A

Disorders of mood, behaviour and social relationships due to a failure to form attachments to primary caregivers in early childhood

175
Q

What percentage of the population are secure?

A

50-55%

176
Q

What percentage of the population are insecure-avoidant?

A

20-25%

177
Q

What percentage of the population are insecure resistant?

A

10-15%

178
Q

Explain secure attachment

  • protection…
  • when caregiver leaves…
  • caregiver response…
  • explore…
  • distress…
A

Children feel protected by their caregiver
Distressed when they leave but compose themselves as they know they will return
Caregiver responds to the child’s needs
The child uses the caregiver’s secure base to explore their environment
The child seeks the caregiver when distressed and is comforted by them

179
Q

Explain insecure-avoidant attachment

  • distress…
  • child’s needs…
  • explore…
A

Children do not seek the caregiver when distressed
Caregiver neglects the child’s needs
Child does not use the caregiver to explore

180
Q

Explain insecure-resistant attachment

  • relationship…
  • security…
  • explore…
  • comfort…
  • response…
A 
Child is clingy but also rejects
No security from the caregiver
Child will not explore the environment
Child is hard to comfort
Caregiver gives an inconsistent response
181
Q

Explain disorganised attachment

  • child’s feelings…
  • attachment…
  • comfort…
A

Child is fearful, depressed and withdrawn
Lack of attachment
Seeks comfort but freezes

182
Q

What type of attachment will lead to long term outcomes of anxiety, depression and stress

A

Disorganised

183
Q

What ages are the different ways to measure attachment used?

A 
1-2 years: Strange situation procedure
2-4: Preschool attachment assessment
4-7 years: Story stem
7-15 years: Child attachment interview
15+ years: Adult attachment interview
184
Q

How would an insecure-avoidant child react during the strange situation procedure?

A

No crying

Plays throughout

185
Q

How would an insecure-resistant child react during the strange situation procedure?

A

Cries when both leave

Comforted by the stranger and cries when the parent returns

186
Q

What is the difference between an insecure avoidant and insecure resistant child in a story stem attachment interview?

A

Resistant: Mummy angry
Avoidant: No parents

187
Q

Explain how Video Interaction Guidance works

What three things does it enhance?

A

3 filmed video interactions to pick up on the positives

Enhances relationships, communication and social well-being between the parent and child

188
Q

Explain how parent-child psychological therapy works

How does it improve the relationship

A

Varying sessions with the parent AND child / parent OR child

Improve the relationship by improving interaction with the social environment

189
Q

Explain how the home-visiting programme works

  • Timescale
  • How does it improve the relationship
A

12 weekly/monthly sessions for 30-90 minutes across 1 8 months
Improve the relationship with positive reinforcement

190
Q

Explain how parental sensitivity and behaviour training works

  • What does it encourage
  • Types
  • Timescale
A

Encourage understanding and management of the child’s behaviour to improve parental sensitivity and quality
Many types with the parent alone/group/ parent and child
5-15 weekly sessions

Medicine - Year 1 (20 decks)

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