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Medicine - Year 1 > Block 1 - Foundations of Medicine - Weeks 1-3 > Flashcards

Block 1 - Foundations of Medicine - Weeks 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of cell looses normal function?

A

A cancer cell

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2
Q

How are cancer cells arranged?

A

They’re disorganised

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3
Q

6 characteristics of cancer

A
  • Loss of normal controls of cell division
  • Can’t keep the cell inside tissue boundaries
  • Evades bodily defence mechanisms
  • Recruits blood vessels to the tumour
  • Migrates into the blood/lymphatics
  • Establishes tumours in the ‘wrong’ tissue
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4
Q

How thick is a specimen for a light microscope?

A

1cm

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5
Q

What is the difference between bright field and fluorescence light microscopy?

A

Bright field: Dense stains and dead specimins

Fluorescence: Increased sensitivity and precise localisation to see organelles

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6
Q

How many membranes does mitochondria have?

A

2

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7
Q

How does the mitochondria divide and why?

A

Independently as they have their own DNA

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8
Q

2 reactions that occur in the mitochondrial matrix?

A

Citric cycle reactions

Fatty acid metabolism

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9
Q

How abundant are peroxisomes compared to mitochondria?

3 reactions

A

Less abundant than mitochondria

Metabolism, detoxification and oxidative reactions

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10
Q

What do oxidative reactions generate in peroxisomes?

What enzyme is involved?

A

Hydrogen peroxide –> Water and Oxygen

By catalase

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11
Q

What happens to molecules at the golgi apparatus?

Example

A

They are modified

e.g. Glycosylation (adding a polysaccharide chain)

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12
Q

What stores molecules ready for a signal?

A

Secretory granules

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13
Q

What will a vesicle transfer the molecule to when it is taken up by the plasma membrane?

A

Endosome

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14
Q

What are the 3 types of filaments in the cytoskeleton of the cell?

A

Intermediate
Actin
Microtubules

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15
Q

What are intermediate filaments and where are they found?

A

Structual components

Throughout the cell

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16
Q

Where are actin filaments found?

A

Near the cell surface

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17
Q

Where are microtubules found?

A

Throughout the cell

Extends from a centrosome in the cell centre

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18
Q

What 2 things do viruses hijack in the cell other than the cytoskeleton network?

A

Synthesis pathways and the endocytotic pathway

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19
Q

8 roles of the cytoskeleton

A

Basis of cilia and microvilli, Cell division, Cell shape, Contractility, Internal organisation, Mechanical strength, Movement, Vesicle transport

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20
Q

What does a low carb diet mean?

A

Low sucrose

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21
Q

4 main minerals absorbed in the diet?

A

Calcium, Sodium, Iodine and Iron

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22
Q

How much more energy dense is fat compared to glucose?

A

2x as energy dense

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23
Q

What are the two differences between the glycogen and fat store?

A

Glycogen: Finite (ST)
Fat: Infinite (LT)

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24
Q

4 places in the body where anaerobic respiration is needed?

A

Red blood cells, kidney medulla, eye lens and tumour cells

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25
Q

What happens to lactate?

A

It is converted back to pyruvate, glucose or glycogen in the liver by gluconeogenesis in the CORI CYCLE

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26
Q

How many carbon atoms does glucose phosphate have?

A

6 carbon atoms

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27
Q

What is each molecule made by/ what does each molecule produce in glycoslysis?

A

GP made by 2 ATP

Pyruvate made by 4 ADP and NAD –> 4 ATP and 1 NADH

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28
Q

Which stage of the link reaction produces the reduced coenzymes?

A

Pyruvate –> Acetate (1st stage)

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29
Q

What theory is oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Chemiosmotic theory

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30
Q

How much ATP is produced from NAD and FAD?

A 
10 NAD (3 ATP each)
2 FAD (2 ATP each)
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31
Q

Where does gluconeogenesis occur?

A

Liver and kidney

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32
Q

How is acetyl CoA converted to ketones?

A

By ketogenesis

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33
Q

What are the three waste products from ketogenesis?

A

Acetoacetate, acetone and beta-hydroxybutyrate

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34
Q

What is the purpose of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A
  • Pentoses for DNA/RNA synthesis

- NADPH for fat synthesis

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35
Q

2 methods to produce acetyl CoA from fat?

A

Beta oxidation: Fat - Acetyl CoA in the mitochondria

Pentose-phosphate pathway: Fatty acid - Fatty acetyl CoA - Acetyl CoA

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36
Q

What is the barrier in the plasma membrane called?

A

Permeability barrier

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37
Q

5 things that receptors recognise

A

Extracellular matrix, growth factors, hormones, neurotransmitters, proteins

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38
Q

4 roles of complex lipids in the bilayer

A
  • Create a fluid and dynamic environment
  • Permeability barrier
  • Matrix for protein localisation
  • Signal transduction
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39
Q

7 roles of proteins, glycoproteins and glycolipids in the plasma membrane

A
  • Receptor, enzyme and carrier
  • Junctions
  • Signal transduction
  • Links to cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix
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40
Q

What is signal transduction

A

Causes foreign DNA to be introduced into the cell

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41
Q

2 reasons why the bilayer is asymmetric

A

2 halves of the bilayer are different

2 halves of the protein inserted are different

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42
Q

How do water soluble substances produce intracellular effects without entering the cell?

A

They bind to a receptor which then carries out the intracellular signalling cascade

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43
Q

Which isomer decreases the melting point?

A

The cis isomer

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44
Q

What is the structure of most phospholipids in regards to melting point?

A

Saturated fatty acid in chain 1

Cis unsaturated fatty acid in chain 2

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45
Q

How can the shape of the protein influence the fluidity of the membrane?

A

The protein can change shape

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46
Q

5 factors which influence the fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Chain length, charge, cholesterol presence, headgroup size, hydration

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47
Q

What is another word for ‘dual affinity’?

A

Amphiphatic

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48
Q

What structure do proteins which associate with the membrane have?
Name them

A

Secondary

Alpha helix or Beta pleated sheet

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49
Q

Second messenger cascade for adrenaline and noradrenaline in muscle cells

A

Adenylate cyclase - cAMP - Protein kinase A - Phosphorylate kinase - Glucose phosphorylase - Gluconeogenesis

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50
Q

Second messenger cascade for adrenaline and noradrenaline in fat cells

A

Adenylate cyclase - cAMP - Protein kinase A - Lipase - Lipolysis - Fatty acid release

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51
Q

What is the diffusion rate proportional to in passive diffusion? (aside from concentration gradient)

A

Hydrophobicity of molecule

Increased hydrophobicity = faster diffusion

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52
Q

What is the rate limiting step of simple diffusion?

A

Getting the molecule through the hydrophobic part of the bilayer

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53
Q

What water souble molecules can and cannot pass by simple diffusion?
5 e.g.

A

Uncharged polar molecules (e.g. water, urea, glycerol, glucose and sucrose)
NO IONS

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54
Q

Difference between the direction of transport between carrier and channel proteins

A

Carrier: Both ways
Channel: One way

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55
Q

How do transporters work?

A

One substrate binds at a time –> conformational change

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56
Q

Difference between an antiporter and a symptorter?

A

Antiporter: 2 molecules in opposite directions
Symporter: 2 molecules in the same direction (one down and one against)

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57
Q

What direction will a uniporter move its molecule?

A

Down its concentration gradient

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58
Q

3 roles of nucleotides

A

Energy carriers (ATP)
Signalling (cAMP)
Enzyme co-factors (CoA)

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59
Q

What are the different names of nucleotides depending on the number of phosphate groups?

A

Nucleotide monophosphate, diphosphate, triphosphate

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60
Q

What is the backbone of DNA called?

A

The sugar-phosphate backbone

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61
Q

What direction do nucleotides read in?

A

FIVE –> THREE

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62
Q

How many genes does mitochondrial DNA have?

A

37

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63
Q

Define chromatin

A

DNA and associated proteins

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64
Q

Percentage of nuclear mass made from chromatin?

A

80%

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65
Q

Define euchromatin

A

Single strand of nucleotides

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66
Q

Define heterochromatin

A

Densely packed chromatin fibre

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67
Q

What is the chromosome scaffold made from?

A

Super-coiled chromatin fibres associated with non-histone proteins

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68
Q

Define centromere

A

Point of attachment to the mitotic spindle

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69
Q

Which arm is the long and short part of the chromosome?

A

Q: LONG
P: SHORT

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70
Q

Define homologous

A

Same

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71
Q

Define Karyotype

A

Stereospecific number and shape of chromosomes as seen during metaphase

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72
Q

How do the chromosomes condense?

A

They condense around the protein scaffold

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73
Q

Define cell cycle

A

An ordered series of events that leads to the division of a cell into 2 identical daughter cells

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74
Q

What are the 5 stages of the cell cycle and their timings

A 
G0: hours to years
G1: 18-30 hours
S: 2-10 hours
G2: 2-10 hours
M: 30-60 minutes
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75
Q

What happens during the G0 stage of the cell cycle?

When does the cell move from G0 to G1?

A

Resting phase

Moves to G1 when it gets a signal to divide

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76
Q

What 2 things happen during the stage G1?

A

Proteins made

2nd growth phase

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77
Q

What 4 things happen during prophase?

A

Chromosomes condense
Nucleoli disperse
Centrosomes separate
Mitotic spindle forms

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78
Q

What 3 things happen during protemetaphase?

A

Nuclear envelope fragments
Spindle attaches to the centromere
Chromosomes move to the cell centre

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79
Q

What is the equator of the cell called?

A

Metaphase plate

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80
Q

What 4 things happen during telophase?

A

Chromosomes uncoil
Nucleoli redevelop and fuse
Spindle is disassembled
Nuclear envelope is reformed

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81
Q

What is the mitotic spindle made from?

A

2 centrosomes made from microtubules

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82
Q

Define centrosomes

A

Areas where the spindle forms

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83
Q

Define kinetochore

A

A complex structure made from proteins which binds to specific DNA sequences
They also help microtubules to attach to the chromosome

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84
Q

2 ways of preventing genetic conditions from occuring

A

Surgery

Designer baby

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85
Q

2 characteristics of genetic information

A

Seen/hidden

Significant/non-significant

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86
Q

Define polymorphic

A

2 or more variants of an allele

Found introns and exons

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87
Q

What are the three types of polymorphism

A

Single nucleotide polymorphisms
Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
Short tandem repeats

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88
Q

Where in the genome do SNP’s occur?

A

Introns and exons

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89
Q

What is the section of DNA which is amplified called in STR’s
Where in the genome are they most common

A

Motif

Increased in introns than exons

90
Q

What are restriction fragment length polymorphisms?

A

A single nucleotide/ row of nucleotides are different

91
Q

6 uses of polymorphisms

A

Disease analysis, genetic fingerprinting, gene localisation and identification, genetic markers, linkage analysis, tissue typing

92
Q

How can RFLP’s be used to screen for sickle cell?

A

The nucleotide is A instead of T so the restriction fragment will not cut the DNA

93
Q

What units are chromosome markers distanced in?

What is this distance based upon?

A

CentiMorgans

A distance based on the probability that STR’s will combine

94
Q

What is linkage analysis?

A

The genetic fingerprints of a family are analysed

95
Q

Define evolution

A

Change of frequencies of allels in the gene pool of a population

96
Q

What 7 things does Hardy Weinberg state that evolution needs?

A

Fixed population size, genetic drift, gene flow, migration, mutation, natural selection, non-random mating

97
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

Random change in allele frequency due to random choices in mating which randomly increase the proportion of certain alleles

98
Q

What is Confer Survival?

Example

A

People who are carriers of a disease may have a selective advantage
E.g. sickle cell

99
Q

Define gene flow

A

Migration between populations

100
Q

What does gene expression change in regards to disease?

A

How genes are identified and treated

101
Q

What percentage of DNA is made from introns and exons?

A

Introns: 2%
Exons: 98%

102
Q

How is DNA removed in splicing?

A

In loops

103
Q

Define gene

A

An ordered nucleotide sequence which is part of a chromosome and determines the order of monomers in a polypeptide/ nucleic acid

104
Q

What determines when and where a gene is transcribed?

A

Promoter and regulatory sequences

105
Q

What are the two strands of DNA called?
Which one does polymerase bind to?
Which strand does it make a copy of?

A

Sense and antisense

Binds to antisense to make a copy of sense

106
Q

What direction does polymerase move down the DNA?
Which end of the growing chain does it add nucleotides to?
Which direction does the ribosome read mRNA?

A

From 3’ to 5’
Adds nucleotides to the 3’ end
Reads from the 5’ end

107
Q

What end of the RNA chain is capping and a poly-A tail added?

A

Capping: 5’

Poly-A tail: 3’

108
Q

How many adenine bases is a poly-A tail made from?

How are they added?

A

100-300 bases

Added by the enzyme poly-A polymerase

109
Q

What is the stop codon recognised by?

What does it cause to happen?

A

A releasing factor

Causes the two parts of the ribosome to fall apart

110
Q

What does AUG code for?

A

The amino acid METHIONINE

111
Q

What is ubiquitination?

A

Degradation of misfolded proteins by adding small chemical groups called ubiquitin

112
Q

What is the function and localisation of a protein determined by?

A

Structure, sequence and post-translational modifications

113
Q

What signal do proteins in the nucleus have?

A

Nuclear localisation signal

114
Q

What signal do proteins in the plasma membrane have?

Where are they transported to?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum sequence

Golgi apparatus for more modification

115
Q

What proportion of fluid in the body is intracellular and extracellular?

A

2/3 intracellular

1/3 extracellular

116
Q

What percentage of the extracellular fluid is interstitial and what percentage is blood?

A

Interstitial: 80%
Blood: 20%

117
Q

Which holds more water: fat or muscle?

A

Muscle

118
Q

What happens to water content if you are a:
Female?
Infant?
Elderly?

A

Female: Decreased as more fat than muscle
Infant: Increased as more muscle than fat
Elderly: Decreases with age

119
Q

What is trans-cellular fluid?

4 places where it’s found?

A

A type of extacellular fluid

Cerebro-spinal, Eyes, Synovial and Serous

120
Q

Define homeostasis

A

Maintaining the EXTRACELLULAR FLUID at a constant space

121
Q

Where is the highest level of: Na, K and Non-carbohydrate?

Where is the lowest level of protein?

A

Na: Highest in blood and interstitial fluid
K: Increased in intracellular
Non-carbohydrate: Increased in blood
Protein: None in the interstitial fluid

122
Q

What 6 factors in the extracellular fluid NEED to be kept constant?

A

Carbon dioxide, glucose, ion concentration, osmotic pressure, oxygen, temperature

123
Q

Define hydrostatic pressure

A

Pressure exerted by the blood onto the capillary walls

124
Q

Define osmotic pressure

What is another name for it

A

Negative pressure created by proteins in the plasma
Proteins cannot leak out so a vacuum is created which sucks fluid in from the intracellular fluid

Colloid pressure

125
Q

Where are the leakiest lymphatic capillaries found?

A

Kidneys, intestines and liver

126
Q

What happens to vessels as they move away form the heart?

Why?

A

They get more permeable so diffusion can increase

127
Q

Does a leaky endothelial require energy?

A

No - there is free movement

128
Q

2 examples of molecules which pass the membrane by free diffusion

A

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

129
Q

Which molecule cannot pass through the membrane?

A

Vitamins

130
Q

Define primary active transport
What pump is used?
Example

A

Against the concentration gradient using ATP
Antiport
Na/K pump

131
Q

Define secondary active transport
What pump is used?
Example

A

One molecule moves down whilst one molecule moves against
Symport
Na and glucose

132
Q

Explain why osmosis is needed in the body

A

If 2 cells have different solute concentrations and a permeable membrane then they will diffuse to reach equilibrium
If the membrane is not permeable then water will diffuse

133
Q

Define molarity

A

Number of moles per litre

134
Q

Define osmolarity

A

Number of molecules per litre

135
Q

Define tonicity

A

Number of non-penetrating molecules per litre

136
Q

What two things does drinking too much cause?

How?

A

Confusion and vomiting

Cell is hypotonic

137
Q

Where is ADH released form?

A

Pituitary gland

138
Q

Why is the kidney system slow?

A

Salt takes a few days to be excreted

139
Q

What can RBC do to maintain pH?

A

Mop up hydrogen ions

140
Q

What do proteins do in a low and high pH?

A

Low pH: Cellular proteins release H+

High pH: Cellular proteins release NH4+

141
Q

What is protoza?

A

A class of pathogen

142
Q

Define commensalism

A

One organism benefits and the other is unaffected

majority

143
Q

Define mutualism

A

BOTH organisms benefit

144
Q

Define parasitism

A

One organism benefits at the expense of an other

145
Q

What is the envelope surrounding a virus made from?

A

Lipids

146
Q

How many chromosomes do prokaryotes have?

A

1

147
Q

What is pili?

A

Used for attachment in bacterial cells

148
Q

What is the gram + cell wall made from?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

149
Q

What is the gram - cell wall made from?

A

Peptidoglycan

150
Q

3 ways can bacteria be classified?

A

Cell wall (+/-)
Shape
Size

151
Q

What are myobacteria?

A

Gram + bacteria with a waxy and acidic coat

152
Q

Explain the three stages of bacterial replication

A

Genome replication: Begins at the origin of replication and regulated by DNA polymerase

Septum formation: Folding of plasma membrane and in-growth of cell wall

Cell division: Gives the bacteria its shape

153
Q

What type of viruses are bacteriophages?

A

Lytic viruses

154
Q

What are the two pathways by which lytic viruses can kill bacteria?

A

Virulent pathway: Kill the host immediately

Lysogenic pathway: Reside for long periods

155
Q

What is the life-cycle of a parasite like?

A

Dual life cycles with extensive replication

156
Q

What are the three classes of helminth parasites?

A

Cestodes, Nematodes, Trematodes

157
Q

Give an example of a parasite

A

Malaria

158
Q

What are the two ways of classifying fungi?

A

Type of infection: Superficial or deep

Appearance: Filamentous (branching) or yeasts (spherical)

159
Q

Which class of bacteria do lysosomes treat?

A

Gram +

160
Q

How does the innate immune system recognise pathogens?

What do they specifically recognise and what do they then do?

A

By germ-line receptors which are already on the surface of the phagocyte
Broad classes of antigens –> phagocytosis

161
Q

What do the receptors in the adaptive immune system require?

A

Sophisticated rearrangement of receptor genes

162
Q

2 examples of primary immune tissue

A

Bone marrow and thymus

163
Q

3 examples of secondary immune tissue

A

Spleen, Lymph nodes and Peyer’s patches

164
Q

Where do immune cells also arise from in chronic inflammatory conditions?

A

Spleen and lymph nodes

165
Q

What is the complement system?

A

A multi-catalytic system which involves blood proteins with enzyme activity

166
Q

Give an example of a protein which has enzyme activity

What can genetic disorders do?

A

Proteases

Genetic disorders can activate these incorrectly

167
Q

What is the complement system activated by?

A

Pathogens

168
Q

What are the roles of the complement system?

A
  • Coat pathogens to allow them to be recognised by phagocytes in opinisation
  • Kill pathogens directly by membrane lysis
  • Regulate acute inflammation by working with acute phase proteins (e.g. CRP)
169
Q

Where do macrophages reside?

A

Peripheral tissues

170
Q

What is the relationship between PRR and PAMP

A

Phagocyte has a PRR (pattern recognition receptor) that is a receptor for the PAMP (pathogen associated molcular pattern) on the phagocyte

171
Q

What is another role of PAMP?

A

Discriminates between bacteria

172
Q

3 components of a lysosome

A

Antimicrobial peptides, decreased pH and high levels of reactive oxygen species

173
Q

What is the most common white blood cell?

A

Neutrophils

174
Q

What are the two main immune system phagocytes?

A

Polymorphonuclear neutrophil

Mononuclear phagocyte

175
Q

4 characteristics of polymorphonuclear neutrophils

A

Kill ingested pathogens
Short lived
Rapidly recruited
Release toxic granules

176
Q

3 characteristics of mononuclear phagocytes

A

Activate acquired response
Kill pathogens by playing host
Long lived

177
Q

Give 3 types of mononuclear phagocytes

A

Blood monocytes
Tissue and blood dendritic cells
Tissue macrophages

178
Q

How big are natural killer cells?

A

Larger than B and T cells

179
Q

3 roles of natural killer cells

A

Release toxic granules and interfering gamma

Causes local inflammation

180
Q

Stages of differentiation for B and T cells

A

Recombination + rearrangement –> maturation –> clonal expansion

181
Q

4 roles of helper T cells

A

Activate macrophages
Help B cells make antibodies
Help cytotoxic T cells
Regulate the response

182
Q

4 roles of dendritic cells

A

Chops peptides and presents them to T cells
Fills gap between innate and adaptive
Phagocytosis
Surveillance

183
Q

What are the 4 classes of somatic cells?

A

Connective
Epithelial
Muscle
Nervous

184
Q

What is the nucleus called in the zygote?

How is it formed?

A

Nucleus is a PRONUCLEI

Formed by a process called SINGONY

185
Q

What happens when the zygote is 4 and 8 cells big

A

4 cells: Genome activated

8 cells: Cell-cell junctions form

186
Q

When does specialisation begin to occur?

A

64 cells

187
Q

What do cells outside the embryo become when specialisation begins to occur?
2 things they form
1 characteristic

A

Become TROPHECTADUM cells
Terminally specialised
Form the placenta and trophoblast

188
Q

What do cells inside the embryo become when specialisation begins to occur?
How?

A

Express transcription factors and made a FATE DECISION to become INNER MASS CELLS (IMC)

189
Q

What 3 things happen between 5 and 7 days?

A

The blastocyst begins to expand by osmosis
Menstruation stops
The embryo moves into the uterus from the fallopian tubes

190
Q

Another name for the inner mass cells

A

Pluriblast

191
Q

What are the two layers which from the bilaminar disc?
What are the cavities in these structures called?
What is the epithelium like?

A

Epiblast: Proamniotic cavity
Hypoblast: Blastocel cavity

STRUCTURED epithelium

192
Q

What are the three layers which form the trilaminar disc
What are they made from?
What is the epithelium like?

A

Ectoderm: Made from the epiblast
Mesoderm: Made from the epiblast
Endoderm: Made from the hypoblast

Mesoderm DISRUPTS the epithelium

193
Q

What 2 things from the primitive streak?

A

Made from the primitive node and mesoderm cells pushing through the ecotderm

194
Q

What epithelium does the ectoderm become?

A

The epithelium which lines the inner body

195
Q

What is the amnion, chorion and yolk sac made from?

A

Amnion: Ectoderm and mesoderm
Chorion: Trophoblast and mesoderm
Yolk sac: Endoderm and mesoderm

196
Q

What does the ectoderm form?

A

Brain, nervous system and skin

teeth and eyes

197
Q

What does the endoderm form?

A

Inner lining of systems (e.g. digestive) and organs e.g. liver, lungs and pancreas

198
Q

What does the mesoderm form?

A

Circulatory, muscular, respiratory, reproductive and skeletal systems

199
Q

Which parts of the trilaminar disc form epithelium and which form esenchyme?
What is esenchyme?

A

Epithelium: Ectoderm and endoderm
Esenchyme: Mesoderm (looser structure)

200
Q

9 functions of epithelium

A

Barrier, communication, lubrication, maintenance, movement, protection, secretion, stimuli transduction, transport

201
Q

What is the structure of stratified epithelium?

A

Many layers of cells

202
Q

What are the 8 types of ducts?

A

Simple tubular - Simple branched tubular - Simple coiled tubular - Compound tubular
Simple acinar - Simple branched acinar - Compound acinar
Compound tubuloacinar

203
Q

2 other names for the basement membrane

A

Basalaminar

Extracellular matrix

204
Q

What 2 things is the basement membrane made from?

A

Ground substance and collagen

205
Q

3 examples of basement membranes?

A

Bone, cartilage and connective tissue

206
Q

What is the main component of cartilage?

A

Proteoglycans

207
Q

What cells maintain cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes

208
Q

What are the two main structural proteins?

A

Elastin and collagen

209
Q

What is collagen secreted by?
What strength does it have - why?
What is the main amino acid?

A

Secreted by fibroblasts
High tensile strength due to a triple helix
Glycine

210
Q

What are the two main amino acids in elastin?
Is it hydroxylated?
What is its structure when it is relaxed?

A

Glycine and proline
No hydroxylation
Coiled

211
Q

What is the ground substance made from?

A

Protein and polysaccharide complexes

e.g. proteoglycans and glycoproteins

212
Q

What is a proteoglycan mesh?

A

A hydrated gel made from collagen and elastin which bind to proteins

213
Q

What is the role of adhesive glycoproteins?

A

Stick the epithelium to the basement membrane at the basal lamina

214
Q

What is the role of the basal lamina?

A

Support and organise tissue

Permeable so allows movement

215
Q

2 examples of adhesive glycoproteins

A

Fibronectins and Laminins

216
Q

What are integrins?

A

Protein dimers which stick to the extracellular matrix through the RGD domain
Cluster at the bottom of cells –> hemidesmosomes

217
Q

What forces do collagen, elastin and glycoaminoglycans resist?
How?

A

Glycoaminoglycans: Resist compressive forces as they are VISCOUS
Collagen and elastin: resist tensile forces as they are FIBROUS

218
Q

What is the difference between dense and loose connective tissue?

A

Dense: More collagen
Loose: More fibroblasts

219
Q

What is the membrane ABOVE the junction called?

A

Apical

220
Q

What is the membrane BELOW the junction called?

A

Basolateral

Medicine - Year 1 (20 decks)

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