bk midterm

Question 1

Question 1:
Which description of unit activities at an Iroquois Pipeline emergency is incorrect?

A: The “primary consideration” is the evacuation of the area involved. Avenues of escape must remain open for civilians and FD personnel.

B:The “initial actions” of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter and eliminate sources of ignition.

C:Due to the extremely high pressure found in this pipeline system, members shall disperse escaping gas into the atmosphere using fog lines.

D: Except in the event of immediate threat to life or property, no valves should be opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Con Edison/Iroquois personnel.

Answer 1

c Explanation:
Due to the extremely high pressure found in this pipeline system, consideration shall be given to allow escaping gas to naturally disperse into the atmosphere WITHOUT the use of fog lines to assist in dispersal. The use of fog lines may actually hinder the dissipation of the gas.
AUC 150 4.5, 7.1.1, 7.1.2, 7.2.1

Question 2

Question 2:
When it comes to numbers, odors, and colors, choose the one that is most correct?

A: The vacant building marking is a 12”x12” square with 2” wide lines and the color is fluorescent orange

B:A “Nerve” chemical agent has a fruity odor

C: The victim location marking for collapse operations is the letter “V” approximately 12” in height

D: In the NYC subway system the power removal boxes and dry chemical extinguishers will be found 800 feet apart, and the Standpipe outlet valves will be found 600 feet apart

Answer 2

b Explanation:
A- 18”x18” square with 2” wide lines and the color is lime yellow (Vacants 1.3)
B- ERP add 2 page 18
C- Approximately 2 feet in height ( FFP Collapse Operations add 2 5.2)
D- power removal boxes and dry chemical extinguishers will be found 600 feet apart, and the Standpipe outlet valves will be found 200 feet apart (AUC 207 8.5)

Question 3

Question 3:
What is the correct order of preference for the first arriving Roof FF to access the roof at a fire in a Brownstone?

A:Aerial ladder, 2nd arriving aerial ladder (when available), adjoining building

B: Aerial ladder, 2nd arriving aerial ladder (when available), rear fire escape

C: Adjoining building, aerial ladder, rear fire escape

D: Aerial ladder, adjoining building, rear fire escape

Answer 3

a Explanation:
Most brownstones do not have fire escapes.
Bwst 2.6 F

Question 4

Question 3:
What is the correct order of preference for the first arriving Roof FF to access the roof at a fire in a Brownstone?

A:Aerial ladder, 2nd arriving aerial ladder (when available), adjoining building

B: Aerial ladder, 2nd arriving aerial ladder (when available), rear fire escape

C: Adjoining building, aerial ladder, rear fire escape

D: Aerial ladder, adjoining building, rear fire escape

Answer 4

a Explanation:
Most brownstones do not have fire escapes.
Bwst 2.6 F

Question 5

Question 4:
As the first arriving company office, it might be necessary to provide a preliminary signal to the incoming chief via department radio. From the list below, choose the most correct signal given.

A:10-38-2 for CO readings of 9 PPM

B: 10-40-3 for steam leak

C: 10-36-2 for an accident with injuries

D: 10-35-3 for an unnecessary alarm due to construction activities

Answer 5

a

Question 6

Question 5:
At a fire in the cellar of a Rowframe, where should the second hoseline be stretched when the first hoseline is being used to cover the first floor public hall, and a back up hoseline is not needed?

A: Await orders from the first arriving Battalion Chief before stretching.

B: Stretch via the front entrance to extinguish any fire on the first floor, then proceed to the top floor.

C: Stretch through the front door immediately to the top floor of the fire building.

D:Stretch into the cellar via the outside cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

Answer 6

d Explanation:
If the first hoseline is used to “cover the first floor public hall”, and a back up line is not needed, the second hoseline will be stretched into the cellar via the outside cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.
If the first hoseline has “advanced into the cellar,” and a back up line is not needed, the second hoseline shall extinguish any fire on the first floor then proceed to the top floor.
RF 6.2

Question 7

Question 6:
All company officers must be well versed in MAYDAY and URGENT transmissions in order to provide safety to all individuals on the fire ground. From the following choices listed below, choose the most correct MAYDAY or URGENT message given.

A: Ladder 400 Roof to Command, URGENT- Collapse Imminent

B: Ladder 400 OV to Command, URGENT- Collapse has occurred

C:Ladder 400 Chauffeur to Command, MAYDAY- Unconscious Member

D: Ladder 400 to Command, MAYDAY- fire extending

Answer 7

c Explanation:
A- MAYDAY
B- MAYDAY
D- Urgent
Communications ch 9 sec 9.4.1 and 9.4.2
***With the emphasis on MAYDAYS and URGENTS recently, know the exact terminology and reasons to transmit these messages for sure

Question 8

Question 7:
Which description of Rowframe type buildings is not entirely correct?

A: They vary in height from two to five stories.

B: They are twenty to thirty feet in width.

C: They have depths ranging from forty to sixty feet.

D:These buildings can be either balloon frame or platform construction.

Answer 8

D

Question 9

Question 8:
During a haz-mat incident, it is important to establish control zones based upon expected or known levels of contamination to reduce the potential for transfer of contamination. From the three zones that are typically established, choose one that is established correctly.

A: Yellow tape is used to identify the Exclusion Zone

B:Yellow tape is used to identify the Contamination Reduction Zone

C: Yellow tape is used to identify the Support Zone

D: Red tape is used to identify the Warm Zone

Answer 9

B Explanation:
A- Red (Hot Zone)
C- Outermost area of the site and is considered uncontaminated
D- Yellow (Contamination Reduction Zone)
ERP pages 3-6

Question 10

Question 9:
For a top floor fire in an Old Law Tenement, the 2nd arriving Extinguisher FF should bring all tools below except?

A: Handie-Talkie

B: Flashlight

C: 6’ hook

D:Pressurized Water Extinguisher

Answer 10

D Explanation:
For top floor fires, they should take two 6` hooks in lieu of the pressurized water extinguisher.
Lads 3 3.4.4

Question 11

Question 10:
The CIDS program utilizes the teleprinter or MDT dispatch message to provide critical information about specific buildings to responding units. Of the following choices listed below, choose the most correct statement made regarding the CIDS program.

A:If the address of the fire or emergency is not a CIDS building but is on the same side of the street and is within three house numbers of a CIDS building, the computer will identify the CIDS building(s) to the Borough dispatcher

B: After submitting an immediate CIDS entry via the eCIDS application, notify the administrative DC by phone

C:The teleprinter dispatch message can contain up to 180 characters

D: A non-fireproof structure renovated or repaired using any type of structural light-weight materials would be classified as “CL2LW”

Answer 11

A Explanation:
B- BC
C- 4 lines/160 characters
D- CL3LW
Communications ch 4 sec 4.2.4, 4.3.3, 4.4.1, 4.4.2.D.3

Question 12

Question 11:
At a fire in a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling, who shall confirm the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position? These are the Truck Companies assigned: L001, L002, L003, L004, L007F

A:The 2nd arriving Ladder Company Officer (L002).

B:The 3rd arriving Ladder Company Officer (L003).

C: The designated FAST Unit (L007F).

D: The 4th arriving Ladder Company Officer (L004).

Answer 12

B Explanation:
The 3rd ladder company officer shall confirm the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position. This may be accomplished by positioning members on the stairwell side of the evacuation stairway door(s) until the Fire Sector Supervisor and/or the IC deems that the situation no longer presents a hazard in that particular stairwell. There may be more than one evacuation stairway in a building. Any stairway not designated as the attack stairway is considered an evacuation stairway.
MD 6.16.2

Question 13

Question 12:
You are working in L-500 for the 9x6 tour when you receive a ticket to respond as the 1st due Ladder Company for a chemical attack in a subway. Upon arrival, along with L-400, you realize that conditions are such that an assessment of the incident can be made and decide to break your companies into 4 teams. Choose the only team that carried their duties out correctly.

A:L-500 Team 2 backed up L-500 Team 1

B: L-400 Team 1 performed site access control

C: L-400 Team 1 performs evacuation and hazard assessment

D: L-400 Team 2 backed up L-400 Team 1

Answer 13

A Explanation:
B- L-400 Team 2 does this
C- L-500 Team 1 does this
D- L-500 Team 1 backs up L-500 Team 2
First 2 ladder companies break up into 4 teams
1st arriving ladder team 1- Evacuation and Hazard assessment
1st arriving ladder team 2- Back up team 1
2nd arriving ladder team 1- Evacuation to Gross decon
2nd arriving ladder team 2- Site Access Control
ERP add 2 pages 6-8

Question 14

Question 13:
According to the Department’s SCBA Policy, all of the choices below are correctly stated except?

A: In all circumstances, where a member’s cylinder becomes depleted or his/her SCBA is malfunctioning cutting off the air supply, the member shall notify their Officer and immediately leave the contaminated area accompanied by another member using an SCBA.

B:When it is necessary for an Officer to leave the IDLH area to service their SCBA, they shall notify the Incident Commander (IC) of the operation (or the next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established) and exit to a safe area alone or accompanied by another member using an SCBA.

C: When an Officer leaves the IDLH area to service their SCBA, the Officer must ensure that temporary supervision is provided for the remaining member(s) under their direct supervision during their absence.

D: When an Officer leaves the IDLH area to service their SCBA, and circumstances prevent the Officer from providing temporary supervision, this shall require the withdrawal of all members under that Officer’s direct supervision

Answer 14

B

Explanation:
When it is necessary for an Officer to leave the IDLH area to service their SCBA, they shall notify the Incident Commander (IC) of the operation (or the next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established) AND BE ACCOMPANIED to a safe area by another member using an SCBA.
AUC 220 2.4, 2.6

Question 15

Question 14:
The FAST Unit officer is the most influential member of the FAST Unit. He or She has responsibilities that must be carried out upon arrival at a building fire or an emergency. From the choices listed below, choose the incorrect responsibility, upon arrival, for the FAST Unit officer.

A: Upon arrival, the FAST officer shall verify that the IC is aware of the unit’s presence and designation as FAST. If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall remind the IC of their designation

B:When dealing with large commercial or complex buildings, it is best to split into 2 teams to cover more ground

C: When communicating to other units, the FAST officer and member’s radio designation shall include the word FAST after the unit designation Ex: “L-500-FAST to Command”

D: The FAST officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP, which would include any CIDS information that is available

Answer 15

B Explanation:
Remain intact when dealing with large or complex buildings
MMID 7.4

Question 16

Question 15:
As the first arriving officer to a vacant building fire, you must determine as to conduct an exterior or interior attack on the fire. Your decision will be based on all of the following except?

A:Unit staffed with 4 or 5 FFs

B:Any known or indicated presence of life in the building

C: Location and extent of the fire

D: Exposure problems

Answer 16

A Number of units responding to initial alarm
look at choice “B”……It must be KNOWN or INDICATED presence of life in building
Vacants 1.4

Question 17

Question 16:
At a fire in a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling, who will coordinate the Wind Control Device (WCD) evolution, if initiated?

A: The 1st Ladder Company Officer.

B:The 2nd Ladder Company Officer.

C: The 3rd Ladder Company Officer.

D: The 4th Ladder Company Officer.

Answer 17

B

Question 18

Question 17:
At times, the FDNY will be called on to operate at fires involving transformers and other electrical components at Con Edison facilities. A conscientious Officer should know which statement below to be incorrect?

A: The decision to apply water streams to electrical components at Con Edison facilities can only be made by a Chief Officer above the rank of Deputy Chief (or a Deputy Chief operating as Car 421 or Car 422) in consultation with the Con Edison White Hat at the scene.

B:The priority of water stream application is to minimize damage to unaffected adjoining components. Handlines shall only be used on energized electrical components at Con Edison facilities when approved by the IC in consultation with the Con Edison White Hat at the scene.

C: The primary means of applying water to energized electrical components is through the use of a Tower Ladder.

D: Confirm all FDNY equipment inside the Con Edison property line is connected to the facility’s station ground grid prior to applying water. Con Edison maintains approved grounding cables at their sites and Con Edison personnel shall connect the grounding cable to the facility’s station ground grid and to such FDNY equipment.

Answer 18

B Explanation:
Handlines shall NEVER be used on “energized electrical components” at Con Edison facilities.
AUC 338 2.1, 4.2, 5.4, 5.6.1

Question 19

Question 18:
You just received a ticket to respond as the Systems Control Unit to a 10-76 in the great Borough of Manhattan. From the list below, which choice accurately depicts the Systems Control Unit?

A: E100S

B:E100Y

C: E100K

D: E100L

Answer 19

Explanation:Y
A- Communications Unit
C- Division Task Force
D- Lobby Control Unit
Communications ch 2 page 37

Question 20

Question 19:
Private dwellings may be complex, with many entrances and windows. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: When it is obvious that the dwelling has two or more families (separate entrances, multiple mailboxes or doorbells, etc.) bedrooms can be found on all floors.

B: When multiple secondary entrances (one with a stoop, one at ground level, etc.) are found adjacent to each other on the same side (exposure 2 or 4) of the building, this most likely indicates one secondary entrance at ground level with a few steps leading to the kitchen and also a half flight of stairs to the cellar. The other secondary entrance with the stoop typically has a staircase that runs to the second floor, and may be the only access to that level.

C: The presence of a stoop at a secondary entrance on the exposure 2 or 4 side of the building may indicate that the entrance leads to a second floor stairway. This is especially pertinent when there are multiple secondary entrances and only one or two offset windows are seen from the exterior on the same side of the dwelling as the stoop entrance.

D:When offset windows are seen from the exterior on the same side of the dwelling as the stoop entrance on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a building, these offset windows are at the top and/or bottom of the second floor staircase and are an excellent point for VEIS.

Answer 20

D Explanation:
These offset windows at the top and/or bottom of the second floor staircase and should NOT be used for VEIS.
PD Ch 1 4

Question 21

Question 20:
You are working in E-300 during the 6x9 tour when you receive a run for a fire on the 30th floor in a 50 story 100x100 HRFPMD. As you slide the pole, the HW FF shouts out that E-300 is 2nd due. En-route to the reported building fire, your chauffeur tells you that E-300 carries the High-Rise Nozzle (HRN). As a newly promoted officer, which engine company would you expect to put the HRN into operation if requested for this type of fire?

A: E-300-2nd assigned Engine Company

B: 3rd assigned Engine Company

C: 4th assigned Engine Company

D:5th assigned Engine Company

Answer 21

D Explanation:
Communications Ch 8 page 20

Question 22

Question 21:
At a fire on the 3rd floor of a New Law Tenement, prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics from the exterior, the second arriving OV FF may conduct horizontal ventilation (vent for extinguishment) after requesting permission from? The Response Ticket is as follows: *All units arrived as per the response ticket. E001, E002, E003, L001, L002, BC01

A: Engine 1’s Officer

B:Ladder 1’s Officer

C:Ladder 2’s Officer

D: Battalion 1

Answer 22

C Explanation:
Prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics from the exterior, the second OV shall request permission from THEIR Ladder Company Officer in order to coordinate ventilation tactics with interior operations.
Lads 3 3.4.6

Question 23

Question 22:
Officers of units reporting to the Command Post shall report in alone, after instructing their members to stand by at least _______ feet from the Command Post?

A: 10

B: 15

C: 20

D:25

Answer 23

D Explanation:
Regs ch 11 sec 11.3.25
Know this chapter

Question 24

Question 23:
An experienced officer should know which choice below to contain incorrect information regarding Fire Department foam operations?

A: Each Engine Company must carry at least three (3) five-gallon containers of ARAFFF (red band) foam concentrate.

B: Ladder Companies carry 2 ½-gallon hand-held AFFF extinguishers. In addition, Ladder Companies are required to carry two (2) five-gallon containers of AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate.

C:A first alarm assignment of three Engines and two Ladders will provide approximately 45 minutes of finished firefighting foam at a 3% setting on the eductor.

D: A first alarm assignment of three Engines and two Ladders should provide 13 five-gallon containers of foam which is a total of 65 gallons of AR-AFFF foam concentrate.

Answer 24

C Explanation:
A first alarm assignment of three Engines and two Ladders should provide 13 five-gallon containers of foam which is a total of 65 gallons of AR-AFFF foam concentrate. This will provide APPROXIMATELY 17 MINUTES of finished firefighting foam at a 3% setting on the eductor with the aerating foam nozzle.
TB Foam 7.2

Question 25

Question 24:
During a recent company drill, you made several key points when deploying the KO Curtain. You were incorrect in which one?

A:FFs should deploy the KO Curtain in the horizontal position

B: The deployment FF must have their facepiece on and full PPE donned when deploying the KO Curtain

C: When the receiving and deploying FFs are in position and ready, notify the 2nd arriving ladder company officer that the KO Curtain is in position and ready to be deployed

D: When deploying the KO Curtain, it will always be dropped, and never thrown, to cover target window

Answer 25

A Explanation:
The KO Curtain shall never be deployed in the horizontal position. The KO Curtain is designed and shall be deployed only in the vertical position
Evolution 34 sec 5.4
B- 5.2
C- 5.7
D- 5.8
Know this evolution for sure

Question 26

Question 25:
For fires in Tenements and multiple dwellings with rear fire escapes, the Fire Department is always responsible for rescuing trapped occupants. Of the following statements, which is incorrect?

A:Overcrowding on the fire escape in the rear is a very real possibility and Fire Department portable ladders are always the only option for rescuing these occupants from this position.

B: Because of its portability the 12’ hook ladder may be used to gain access to the various balcony levels by the Roof or OV firefighters for search and rescue. The ladder may be brought to the rear yard as mentioned above, or brought to the roof via Aerial, Tower Ladder or utility rope and lowered to the top balcony.

C: Portable ladders must, if possible, be taken through the 1st floor public hall, apartments or store to the rear yard to effect rescue.

D: In the event of a fire in a building constructed with party wall balcony fire escapes where the fire has spread to the adjoining building, thereby eliminating it as a second means of egress, occupants may be trapped on the fire escapes.

Answer 26

A Explanation:
Overcrowding on the fire escape in the rear may be relieved by members assisting occupants to the roof via the gooseneck ladder.
Lads 1 10.1 p16

Question 27

Question 26:
Which unit/position carried out their duties incorrectly at a High-Rise office building fire?

A: First arriving Ladder Company determined the location of the fire floor and selected a stairway with a standpipe that will provide the best attack on the fire

B: Third arriving Ladder Company proceeded to the floor above via a stairway other than the attack stair and determined which stairway is the best stairway to be used by the occupants for evacuation and advise the ICP

C:Fourth arriving Ladder Company proceeded to the roof area via an elevator that services the fire floor to conduct a primary search of the top five floors

D: Third and fourth Engine Companies stretched and operated the second hoseline to contain and confine fire spread and/or prevent fire wrapping around the core and endangering operation of the first line

Answer 27

C Explanation: If the fire is on a floor that is not serviced by the high-rise bank of elevators, the high-rise bank will be used if it is in a blind shaft If the fire is on a floor that is serviced by the high-rise bank of elevators, they shall proceed to a location below the fire floor and then use a stairway other than the attack stairway to proceed to the roof Look at choice “A”…..The 1st arriving ladder does not confer with 1st engine to select attack stair as they do in MDs 6.7.2 High Rise sec 8.3.1.E, 8.5.1.B, 8.6.1.A, 9.5.1.C

Question 28

Question 27:
When a hydrant malfunctions and is required to be shut down in the street, a knowledgeable Officer would know to follow all points below except?

A: Place the appropriate wrench on the fitting in the chamber and turn counter-clockwise 17 times.

B:The nut is usually found off-center on the street side of the chamber.

C:Not until about 9 full turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow.

D: When the cover is removed, you may have to direct some water into the chamber to clear it of mud and debris.

Answer 28

C Explanation:
Not until about 12 full turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow.
TB Emerg 3 6.2

Question 29

Question 28:
You have just arrived 1st due to a fire in a building under construction using wood forms to support the curing concrete. As you ascend the staircase, you start to remember the critical points for this type of building. Choose the incorrect point.

A:The fire load is created by the storage of sheets of plywood and wood studs previously stripped from a cured floor. This lumber is usually found stored on the floor below the most recently poured floor and serve as the forms for the next floor to be poured

B: To find out how long the concrete has been drying, units looked for a responsible person such as, a construction engineer, building superintendent, or concrete foreman

C: 4x4 studs placed every 8 feet are an indication the floor is in its curing stage and are usually found at least 8 floors below the most recently poured floor

D: If no responsible person on scene, units shall assume the most recently poured was poured in the last 24 hours and is indicated by 4x4 studs placed every 4 feet on center

Answer 29

A Explanation:
2 floors below the most recently poured floor
Safety Bulletin 66

Question 30

Question 29:
Cellar fires in private dwellings are challenging operations. Of the following choices, a competent firefighter considering how and where to stretch the first hoseline would know which to be incorrect?

A: In general, the first hoseline should be stretched to the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the cellar in order to extinguish the fire.

B: In detached and semi-attached PD’s, the secondary entrance found on the side or rear of the dwelling is usually the option that provides the quickest access to the cellar.

C:Bilco style doors may cover an exterior cellar entrance. This type of secondary entrance is indicative of an occupied cellar. Utilizing this type of entrance for line placement is the most desirable of the secondary entrances as forcible entry is usually easily accomplished.

D: In attached structures (rows of many attached PDs), stretching the first line through the front door to attempt an attack via the interior cellar stairs is generally the fastest option.

Answer 30

C Explanation:
Bilco style doors may cover an exterior cellar entrance. This type of secondary entrance often requires extensive forcible entry, and is more indicative of an UNOCCUPIED CELLAR. Utilizing this type of entrance for line placement is the LEAST DESIRABLE of the secondary entrances and shall not be utilized for hoseline placement unless it is the ONLY OPTION.
B) Note: Some PD’s have secondary entrances to the cellar in the front of the dwelling which lead directly into the cellar and provide quick access.

Question 31

Question 30:
The first arriving officer transmitting a 10-75 for a building fire shall also state what 3 points of information?

A: Dimensions, Height, Type

B:Height, Type, Occupied/Unoccupied

C: Occupied/Unoccupied, Dimensions, Height

D:Location of fire, Height, Type

Answer 31

D xplanation:
Location of fire (what floor)
Height of building (how many stories)
Type of building (What kind of occupancy)
Communications ch 8 page 18

Question 32

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 31:
One method to collect and preserve evidence at a possible arson fire is to use a completely air-tight container made from non-odorous materials. Of the following choices, which is your “best” choice for evidence collection and preservation?

A: A new, heavy gauge plastic bag, used in pairs.

B: A new, plastic container with a tightly fitting lid.

C: An old, one (1) gallon paint can stored on the apparatus, previously used for evidence collection.

D:A clean, glass jar with a tightly fitting lid.

Answer 32

Explanation:
A) A plastic bag can be used in an “emergency.” It should be new, of heavy gauge and used in pairs.
B) Try to avoid the use of plastic containers. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container.
C) This container should be a one (1) gallon metal can such as a NEW paint can. (Never use a can that was previously used.)
D) If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid.
TB Arson 5.3

Question 33

Question 32:
You are working in L-400 for the 9x6 tour on March 1, 2019, when you receive a ticket to respond on the 2nd alarm to 50-53 Main street in the Borough of Queens for a top floor fire in a 6 story 100x100 “H” type multiple dwelling. Upon arrival at the Command Post, the IC orders your company to the roof of the fire building and report into Roof Sector Supervisor B-100. Before leaving the Command Post, you tell your members, to bring what additional equipment?

A: 2 extra 6’ hooks, LSR, Hose Roller, Utility rope

B:Life Belt, LSR, Hose Roller, Utility rope

C: Life Belt, LSR, Hose Roller, Maul

D: Hose Roller, Maul, 2 lengths of hose, Controlling nozzle

Answer 33

B Explanation:
Acronym: HULL
H- Hose Roller
U- Utility rope
L- LSR
L- Life Belt
Regs ch 11 sec 11.3.23

Question 34

Question 33:
Each of the following situations require immediate notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITs) except?

A:Arrest of Department employees.

B: On-duty confrontations between Department members and members of the Police Department, or other government agencies which may lead to possible disciplinary action.

C:Misconduct by a Department employee not falling within the jurisdiction of the Inspector General.

D: On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol.

Answer 34

C Explanation:
C) - this is only a WRITTEN notification to BITs.
Also, immediate notification to BITs is required when there are physical altercations among members, serious confrontations with civilians, or dangerous misuse of Department vehicles.
ACRONYM: ABCD
Arrest / Alcohol on duty
Brawling among members
Confrontation with other agencies / confrontation (serious) with civilians
Dangerous Department vehicle misuse/ Drugs on duty
A

Question 35

Question 34:
When performing a fire escape stretch for a fire on the 5th floor, the hose shall be secured to balcony railing with hose straps on what floors?

A:2nd and 4th floors

B: 3rd and 5th floors

C: 1st and 3rd floors

D: 2nd, 3rd, and 4th floors

Answer 35

A xplanation:
Evolution 4 sec 3.4

Question 36

Question 35:
An officer working in an Engine Company designated a “Communications Unit” would know all of the following to be correct except?

A:To operate as a Communications Unit, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of three trained members. Trained officers count toward this total.

B:The Communications Unit always require a trained officer to be in service.

C: At large, complex operations that will extend over many operational periods (e.g. major collapses, natural disasters, recovery operations) the Communications Unit will be part of the Logistics Section, operating under the Communications Unit Leader.

D: Communications Units can be used to deploy a sound powered phone system or enhanced post radio in an underground IDLH atmosphere, activate and test building repeater systems, monitor command, tactical and auxiliary communication channels in use, and assist the IC in solving communications problems.

Answer 36

B Explanation:
The Communications Unit does NOT require a trained officer to be in service.
ICS Ch 2 Add 3 2.2, 2.3

Question 37

Question 36:
When accessing the Computer Injury Reporting System (CIRS) for an injury that occurred in quarters (non-response), what number shall be entered in the 16 digit space?

A:All 9s

B: All 7s

C: All 6s

D: All 1s

Answer 37

A Explanation:
Remember, All levels of command shall access CIRS DAILY to provide any required review/recommendations
Safety Bulletin 7 sec 3.4 and 6.1

Question 38

Question 37:
Two newly promoted Lieutenants discussing Fire Department subway operations pointed out which incorrect statement?

A: The first consideration on arrival at an operation involving electrified track will be a determination of whether the power is to remain on or turned off.

B: When power removal is required, it shall be accomplished at all times via apparatus radio through our own Dispatcher.

C:Emergency exits might prove the most direct means of access to a fire area and hoselines will always be given priority use of this means.

D: Engine Companies shall not connect to a hydrant until the fire is located. Determination of the most direct means to the fire will be made before a line is stretched.

Answer 38

C Explanation:
Emergency exits might prove the most direct means of access to a fire area. However, EVACUATING PASSENGERS will always be given priority use of this means. When ordered to use an emergency exit, the officer should check his TA emergency exit booklet and make sure that he is on the correct line and track before members are committed to the track area.

Question 39

Question 38:
The only unit that operated correctly during a Collapse Operation can be found in which choice?

A: 1st arriving Ladder Company shut utilities

B: 1st arriving Ladder Company cut, lifted, and removed load bearing members while conducting a preliminary void search looking for possible survivors

C: 3rd arriving Engine ensures a 3 1/2 supply line is stretched to the first TL

D:All units evacuated the area when they heard 3 short blasts from an air horn

Answer 39

D Explanation:
Collapse Operations sec 9.2
A- 2nd Ladder Company 7.6
B- DO NOT cut, lift, or remove load bearing members 7.5
C- 2nd arriving Engine 7.3

Question 40

Question 39:
Preparing to remove victims by means of an aerial ladder can be very stressful. Of the following choices, which is incorrectly stated?

A: The OV (tiller firefighter) sets chocks and stabilizers. An alternative method, when staffing is available, is to have one member assigned to the inboard stabilizer and chocks while the OV takes care of the outboard side. This would enable the OV to observe the building and be in a better position to ascend.

B: The OV must observe the building continuously while the chauffeur is operating the ladder. Someone may appear at another window or the trapped person may move to another location. At night, use the apparatus spotlight to pinpoint and reassure the victim.

C: Prepare for a rapid ascent as the trapped people may attempt to climb onto the ladder without assistance. Climbing the ladder while it is being extended or retracted is prohibited.

D:The chauffeur ascends the ladder followed by the OV, climbs in the window, assists the victim out head first to the OV, closes the door to the fire area, and then searches the area.

Answer 40

D xplanation:
The OV ascends the ladder followed by the CHAUFFEUR, climbs in the window, assists the victim out FEET FIRST to the chauffeur, closes the door to the fire area, and then searches the area. The victim may be unable to inform the member about other occupants.
A) Hint: O-O….OV at the Outboard side
Lads 2 5.2-5.6

Question 41

Question 40:
If present and servicing the fire area, who shall ensure the sprinkler system is supplied during a lower floor and upper floor fire in a Cast-Iron or Mill Loft type building?

A: 4th Engine

B:3rd Engine

C: 2nd Engine

D: 1st Engine

Answer 41

B Explanation:
Lofts 6.2.2, 6.2.3
During a cellar fire, if the 1st engine has not supplied it, a supply line shall be stretched to feed this system (Lofts 6.2.1)
In Taxpayers, the 3rd engine ensures it is supplied for a cellar, store, and cockloft fire (Taxpayers pages 44, 47, 48)

Question 42

Question 41:
Safety precautions are paramount when dealing with elevator emergencies. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department procedures?

A: Members are not to enter the shaft or remove passengers from the car until assured power has been removed.

B:When passengers are removed from a car stuck between floors they should be taken down and out of the car if practical. This allows for the safest and most efficient removal.

C: The elevator shall never be jacked up or moved in an upward direction. This action may free the car safeties causing the car to move either upward or downward depending on the live load in the car.

D: Members operating in the shaft are to be secured by a life saving rope.

Answer 42

B xplanation:
When passengers are removed from a car between floors they should be taken UP and OUT of the car if practical. This eliminates the possibility of a passenger falling down the shaft after exiting the elevator. IF they are removed to the lower landing, the shaft opening must be protected.

Question 43

Question 42:
During vacant building fires, Ladder Company operations are generally devoted to facilitating the engine company efforts in getting water on the fire. If a interior operation is absolutely necessary due to the fire location, Ladder Company operations should then include all of the correct safety tactics except?

A: When placing a TL into a vacant lot, the lot must be surveyed by the officer and chauffeur to determine the condition of the rubble and whether it will support the weight of the apparatus

B: A TL boom should not be operated at right angles to the chassis at low elevations

C:Since vacant buildings have a high victim potential, they should be searched as soon as possible to prevent the loss of life

D: During roof operations, 1 member with a radio must be dedicated to the roof area so he or she can listen for any messages or conditions that may affect roof operations . If power saws are being used, this member must be in a quiet area for effective monitoring of and transmission of messages

Answer 43

C Explanation:
Low victim potential. The vacant should be searched within the limits of safety after building conditions have evaluated and the fire has been largely extinguished
Vacants 4.1.1, 4.2.1

Question 44

Question 43:
There are many different types of lightweight systems in use today. Which of the following choices below is not among the most common types of lightweight systems that may be encountered in private dwellings?

A: Lightweight parallel chord truss

B:Pre-cast EIFS panels

C: Metal C-joists

D: Laminated wood I-beams

Answer 44

B Explanation:
Composite Truss
The four most common types of lightweight systems that may be encountered in private dwellings are:
Lightweight parallel chord truss
Laminated wood I-beams
Metal C-joists
Composite truss
PD Ch 6 3.1

Question 45

Question 44:
The 1” Nylon Tubular Webbing that is issued to every officer and member shall be inspected when?

A: Semi-annually

B:Monthly

C: Daily

D: Tourly

Answer 45

B Explanation:
Monthly and after each use
20’ lengths
Breaking strength 4000 lbs
Knotted breaking strength 3000 lbs
Made into a continuous loop by using a WATER knot
Shall only be used for dragging victims; no vertical lifts should be attempted
MMID ch 3 add 3 pages 1-2

Question 46

Question 45:
The probationary firefighter training notebook requires maintenance and proper entries. Which requirement listed below is not completely correct?

A: The Probationary Firefighter shall enter and date, in blue or black ink, when subject matter has been read and/or video has been viewed.

B: The Officer on duty shall initial and date in red ink when the subject matter has been reviewed or drilled on. The Officer on duty should review the notebook each tour the member works.

C: The Company Commander shall initial and date in red ink once a month. Company Commanders must ensure that modules and quizzes are being completed in a timely manner.

D:If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the Chief of Department within 90 days, outlining the details of the loss or destruction of the training notebook.

Answer 46

D Explanation:
If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative DIVISION within “30 days”, outlining the details of the loss or destruction of the training notebook.
AUC 323 2.4, Add 2 1.6, 2.1

Question 47

Question 46:
The FDNY has recently set forth a new policy and procedure for identifying all marked Department authorized apparatus/vehicles. Choose the incorrect policy/procedure.

A: All marked FDNY apparatus/vehicles, and voluntary hospital ambulances that have FDNY EMS 911 participant logos affixed to the cab doors, have been issued security decals.

B: Security decals shall be affixed adjacent to the driver’s side door in an area where it will be noticed when approaching the driver.

C: Previously issued apparatus/security decals, affixed to the driver’s side of the windshield, shall continue to be used for identification until replaced by the new security decal

D:Fire Officers/Firefighters observing a marked FDNY apparatus/vehicle or voluntary hospital ambulance that is part of the 911 system that does not have a vehicle security decal shall immediately contact their administrative Battalion

Answer 47

D Explanation:
Contact the appropriate Borough Dispatcher and report the number, type, and location of the vehicle after requesting a mixer-off message
*** If a decal on a fire apparatus becomes damaged, the apparatus shall remain in-service while awaiting a replacement decal from fleet services. All remnants of damaged decals shall be recovered and preserved. The Company Officer shall make immediate notification to Fleet Services to obtain a replacement decal. Record all necessary information in the Company Journal and forward a letterhead to Assistant Commissioner of Fleet Services/Technical Services. A copy of the letterhead, as well as the remains of the decal, will be forwarded to the Bureau of Fire Investigation, 9 Metrotech, 8th floor
Training Bulletin Apparatus C-2 add 2 p-1-3

Question 48

Question 47:
According to the Incident Command System (ICS), in general, the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should range from?

A: two to five with three being ideal.

B:three to seven with five being ideal.

C: one to ten with five being ideal.

D: three to five with four being ideal.

Answer 48

B

Question 49

Question 49:
An experienced officer of a Staten Island Aerial Ladder has to correct a member that made an incorrect comment during drill. Which comment made was incorrect?

A: If possible, chauffeurs should avoid running over hoselines. When it is necessary to traverse a charged line, it must be done slowly. Make certain when positioning apparatus that no wheel or stabilizer rests on the hose.

B: The Ladder Company chauffeur should remain on the turntable when members have entered the building by aerial ladder and are in precarious positions such as a floor over a heavy fire, the roof of a building with a heavy fire condition, etc.

C:When finished with the aerial ladder at a given location, always immediately retract the ladder away from the building before raising it off the building surface.

D: Never remove people via aerial ladder when they may be calmed and held safely at that location or removed via a safer means of egress. If, however, there is a time restriction due to fire conditions or other chauffeur responsibilities, then those occupants in danger must be removed.

Answer 49

C Explanation:
When finished with the aerial ladder at a given location, always RAISE the ladder away from the building before RETRACTING. This will prevent cornices or building material from being pulled to the street. Lads 2 7.3-7.5, 7.7

Question 50

Question 48:
Prior to the arrival of the FAST Unit, first arriving officers must ensure a Safety Team is established, especially when the BC is not on scene. In the case of when Engine 200 staffed with five FFs arriving 1st due, and E-300 staffed with four FFs arriving 2nd due are on scene with no Ladder Companies, which choice correctly describes the Safety Team?

A: Control FFs of both Engines

B: Control and Door FFs from E-200

C: Control and ECC from E-300

D:Control and Back-up FFs from E- 300

Answer 50

D

Question 51

Question 50:
As a newly promoted officer, you are expected once a tour to train/drill with the FFs for approximately one hour. During today’s drill, the topic was the Emergency Alert Button (EAB), which is found on all HTs. You made the following statements during drill about the EAB, but you were only correct in which statement?

A:When transmitting an URGENT or MAYDAY message, the member shall begin by depressing their EAB for approximately 1/2 second

B: In the event of an inadvertent activation, the EAB can be depressed and held down for approximately 1/2 second until a reset tone is heard

C:The Beacon tone is repeated at regular intervals (every 4 seconds)

D: Upon depressing the EAB, and Emergency Alert Tone will be sent out at 2 watts to facilitate better building penetration

Answer 51

C:The Beacon tone is repeated at regular intervals (every 4 seconds) Explanation:
A- 1/2 second has been updated to 1 second in Communications Ch 11 sec 3.5. Communications ch 9 add 4 will also reflect that change before your test. Know that it’s now 1 second.
B- 2 seconds
D- 5 watts
Communications ch 9 add 4 sec 3

Question 52

Question 51:
Some occupancies have Lexan panels instead of conventional glass in their windows. Portable ladders may be used to force these windows. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: At times, the Lexan panel is protected by a wire screen on the exterior. Remove the exterior screen.

B:Place the butt of the ladder on the Lexan window in the center of the window.

C: Three or four members apply a gradual leaning pressure against the window until it is forced inward.

D: If a section of window snaps off, continue forcing around the window perimeter until a sufficient opening has been made.

Answer 52

B Explanation:
Place the butt of the ladder on the Lexan window in the corner adjacent to the window frame.
Lads 1 10.3.1

Question 53

Question 52:
The color of smoke that can indicate a backdraft can be incorrectly described in which choice?

A:Reddish Brown

B: Dense Black

C: Dirty Brown

D: Gray Yellow

Answer 53

Explanation:
Yellow Brown
Taxpayers page 20

Question 54

Question 53:
Your unit, Engine 2, responds to a 5th alarm fire in Brooklyn where Operations has been staffed and is supervising four Sectors; the Fire Sector, Roof Sector, Exposure 2 Sector and Exposure 4 Sector. Your unit has not not been assigned to any particular sector. Routine transmissions from Engine 2 should be directed to?

A: the Fire Sector

B:Command

C: the Exposure 2 Sector

D:Operations

Answer 54

D Explanation:
Units/individuals not assigned to a sector/group shall report directly to “Command” (or Operations, if staffed).
CC Ch 2 2.3.3

Question 55

Question 54:
If a Taxpayer is equipped with a sprinkler system, which Engine Company ensures the sprinkler is supplied?

A: 1st Engine

B: 2nd Engine

C:3rd Engine

D: 4th Engine

Answer 55

C Explanation:
Taxpayers page 44

Question 56

Question 55:
Your unit, Engine 50, is dispatched to a gas leak in the Bronx located right around the corner from a working 3rd alarm fire. You know that both the first and secondary tactical channels are being used at the fire. As the first arriving unit and the IC, you would be most correct to have units responding to the gas leak operate on which recommended tertiary tactical channel?

A: 5

B: 8

C:6

D:4

Answer 56

C

Question 57

Question 56:
During a routine CFR run, Lt Jasper became aware that the facility his company responded to can be removed from the CFRD response matrix, because the facility meets all of the following criteria except?

A:On duty personnel are trained to EMT level or higher

B: Trained personnel are able to provide oxygen to the patient

C: On duty personnel are trained in the use of a defibrillator, and all the necessary equipment is available to the trained personnel

D: All equipment and appropriately trained personnel are available during all hours of operation

Answer 57

A y personnel are trained in CPR
Communications ch 4 add 1 sec 2.1

Question 58

Question 57:
A Lieutenant working a 6X9 tour in a Ladder Company designated a Ventilation Support Unit was incorrect in which comment made regarding utilization of positive pressure fans (PPF) for positive pressure ventilation?

A:PPFs in operation should never be left unattended; a radio-equipped member must continually monitor each operating fan. If negative results are encountered, immediately shut down the operating fan.

B: Stairwell pressurization will not be initiated until authorized by the Incident Commander.

C: Pressurization of the attack stairway is most effective if done simultaneously with the fire attack.

D: The optimum placement of the PPF is 4 to 6 feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor and directly facing the door to the stairwell at an angle tilt of 80 degrees.

Answer 58

A Explanation:
PPFs in operation should never be left unattended; a radio-equipped member must continually monitor each operating fan. If negative results are encountered, discontinue pressurization by THROTTLING DOWN fans to IDLE, and CLOSING THE DOOR to the stairwell that the fan is pressurizing.
AUC 349 6.3, 6.4, 7.1, 7.2

Question 59

Question 58:
When an operating Marine Company requires the assistance of land based personnel, the dispatcher shall special call an Engine Company to respond to a pick-up site selected by the Marine Company officer. Once the Engine Company arrives at the pick-up site, the most correct procedure can be found in which choice?

A: All members will board the fire boat to supplement their personnel

B:All members (except chauffeur) will board fire boat to supplement their personnel. Chauffeur to remain with apparatus and monitor radio

C: Officer and 2 members will board fire boat (remaining members stay with apparatus and monitor radio) to supplement their personnel

D: All members (except FF designated by officer) will board fire boat to supplement their personnel. FF designated by officer to remain with apparatus and monitor radio

Answer 59

B

Question 60

Question 59:
When dealing with an occupied, stalled suspended scaffold, first arriving units should keep in mind each of the points below with the exception of which choice?

A: Generally, there is no need for any firefighter to be lowered by a life saving rope to reach stranded workers. Unless the workers are in danger of falling, or some other imminently dangerous condition dictates immediate action, removal will be accomplished with high angle rope equipment.

B: As long as the workers are not injured, remain calm, and remain attached to their safety lines, they are in no danger.

C: It may be best to await the arrival of the scaffold mechanic to correct the condition.

D:A life saving rope evolution can be utilized to lower or raise a victim to safety if high angle equipment assigned to Rescue and Squad is not available.

Answer 60

D A LIFE SAVING ROPE evolution can ONLY LOWER a victim down and it is a very dangerous operation for the victim. With their high angle equipment all Rescue Companies, Squad 1, and Squad 41 can lower a victim OR create mechanical advantage systems to raise victims in complete safety. In utilizing the high angle equipment, the victim’s harness is utilized to provide a safer operation.

Question 61

Question 60:
Conducting an emergency roll call to account for members is difficult, especially for company officers since staffing can change during a tour due to ML, emergency leave, etc. When it comes to the emergency roll call, choose the most correct statement from the choices listed below.

A:Companies will be called individually. When called, company officers will account for FFs of their company that are within sight or hearing without using the HT

B: If a company officer does not answer when called, the Roll Call Officer (RCO) will move on to the next company to account for their members

C: During an emergency roll call, companies can interrupt the roll call with important transmissions such as “utilities are shut” and/or “sprinkler system has been shut down”

D: The company officer with will answer the RCO accounting for his/hers FFs in sight or hearing without using the HT and without stating the number of FFs the company arrived with

Answer 61

A

will either call a FF operating with that officer or call another company operating in the immediate area of that officer, in attempt to locate them.
C- Critical info such as a Mayday/Urgent of your own, critical info affecting the Mayday/Urgent, critical info regarding the on-going operation
D- Include with the number of FFs you arrived with
Communications ch 9 add 2 sec 4.7, 4.10, 5.1, 5.8