bk 13 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, E400, L600, L700, B5. You go 10-84 and transmit the 10-60 for an explosion and the collapse of several private dwellings. All units are now 10-84. From the following choices listed below, which is the only unit in the correct position?

A: E100 established the Triage Transfer Point and assumed control until relieved by B5

B:E200 confirmed the location of the Point of Impact and properly position the apparatus, established water supply, and stretched a precautionary 2 1/2 hoseline

C: L600 established the Incident Command Post and awaited further orders

D:L700 reported to the Triage Transfer Point and assisted in the removal of patients to either Treatment Areas or the Transportation Sector

A

d Explanation:
ERP add 3
A- 2nd arriving Engine does this…..5.3.2
B- 1st arriving Engine does this….5.3.1
C- 1st arriving Ladder enters the POI and begin conducting rapid assessment…..5.3.4
D- 5.3.5

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2
Q

Question 2:
Due to space and weight considerations aboard the helicopter, the only tools and equipment the High Rise Roof Team should have in the High-Rise Roof Kit include all of the following except?

A: 6 SCBA with 1-hour cylinder

B:1 Life Saving Rope

C: 2 Halligan Tools and 2 Axes

D: 2 Search Ropes and 1 Rabbit Tool

A

b Explanation:
1 Bolt Cutter
Acronym: BRASHR B
Bolt Cutter (1)
Rabbit Tool (1)
Axes (2)
SCBAs with 1-hour cylinders (6)
Halligans (2)
Ropes (Search) (2)
Bag for tools (1)
AUC 269 Add 1 3.3.1

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3
Q

Question 3:
A CFRD company, once on scene of a non-breathing/cardiac arrest patient, shall provide resuscitation efforts until released by EMS. The exceptions of withholding resuscitation efforts include all of the following except?

A: Obvious death

B:Presented with a Health Care Proxy

C: Dependent lividity

D: Decomposition

A

b Explanation:
Health Care Proxies are NOT recognized in the pre-hospital environment
* Obvious Death
* Dependent lividity
* Rigor Mortis
*Decomposition
* Valid DNR
CFR ch 2 sec 4.4 and ch 2 add 1 sec 3.6

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4
Q

Question 4:
For a fire on the first floor of a Brownstone-type Row Frame building, where should the second hoseline be positioned if not needed to back up the first hoseline?

A: Stretched to the top floor of the fire building.

B: Stretched into an exposure.

C:Stretched through the front door on the second (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.

D: Stretched through the front door on the first floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.

A

c Explanation:
In a Brownstone type Row Frame, the first hoseline shall be stretched through the front door on the first floor to extinguish the fire. The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched through the front door on the second (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.
RF 6.3 B

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5
Q

Question 5:
To eliminate the “stuck button” problem on all FDNY H/Ts, after 30 seconds the continuous transmission is cut off and is replaced with a continuous tone. However, before this occurs, the remote microphone will receive a warning tone after how many seconds?

A: 16 seconds

B: 22 seconds

C:26 seconds

D: 28 seconds

A

c Explanation:
Communications ch 11 sec 3.4

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6
Q

Question 6:
Two company officers discussing search tactics in private dwellings of lightweight construction were able to identify which incorrect comment?

A:The importance of conducting search operations in buildings built with traditional construction materials is less for buildings with lightweight construction.

B: Newer, lightweight buildings are more susceptible to collapse from the effects of fire and high heat; and a careful risk-reward evaluation must be conducted to ensure that firefighters are not placed at undue risk.

C: When lightweight components are exposed to fire or high heat, the IC should advise all members not to enter the fire area and the area(s) directly above; a defensive strategy should be strongly considered.

D: Searches must be conducted with consideration that interior operational time will be of limited duration. The only exception is when immediate action must be taken to address a known life hazard; in this situation, risk should be minimized by utilizing only the personnel needed to safely execute the rescue.

A

a Explanation:
The importance of conducting search operations in buildings built with traditional construction materials is THE SAME for buildings with lightweight construction.
PD Ch 6 4.5

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7
Q

Question 7:
Several FFs during a recent study group debated standpipe operations. Choose the incorrect statement made by one of those FFs on standpipe operations

A: All hoselines stretched from the standpipe shall be 2 1/2 hose with controlling nozzle and 1 1/8” main Stream Tip. All hoselines stretched from standpipes shall be connected to outlets on floors below the fire floor unless stated differently in CIDS

B:If a pressure reducing/restricting device (PRD) is found on the standpipe outlet, it must be removed. If the PRD cannot be removed, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, then consider a hand stretch

C: Always connect in-line pressure gauge to standpipe outlet to ensure correct nozzle pressure.

D: Controlling nozzle must always be carried attached to the folded lead length

A

b Explanation:
If a pressure reducing/restricting device )PRD) is found on the standpipe outlet, it SHOULD be removed. If the PRD cannot be removed, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, then it is permissible to use an outlet with a PRD
***UPDATE- Pressure Gauges shall NOT be pre-connected to a folded length of hose.
Evolution 9 p-3
Note for choice A. In Engine Operations ch 9 section 9.4.2 it states “variations from stretching initial hoselines from standpipe outlets on a floor below the fire due to building configuration shall be approved by Division Commanders and entered into the CIDS program”

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8
Q

Question 8:
How often is routine maintenance conducted on the Akron New Yorker Multiversal?

A: Monthly

B: Weekly

C: Semi-annually

D:Quarterly

A

d Explanation:
AFTER EACH USE, the spikes in the portable ground base shall be inspected. If the flats on the end of the spikes exceed 1/16” in diameter, the spikes must be sharpened or replaced in accordance with the instructions contained in the Manufacturer’s Manual, which has been issued to units.
TB Tools 17 3.6, 6.1

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9
Q

Question 9:
When operating at a Toyota Rav4 electric car incident, FFs in an emergency, can disconnect the traction batteries from all vehicle systems and circuits by using the “service plug.” To disconnect the “service plug” FFs must perform all of the following procedures except?

A: Make sure the motor switch is off

B:Peel back the carpet from the passenger side rear passenger footwell

C: Turn the lock knob and remove the service plug cover

D:Carefully raise the handle of the service plug and pull it out

A

b Explanation:
Safety Bulletin 86 sec 6
B- Drivers side rear passenger footwell
Remember: DO NOT CUT THE ORANGE COLORED WIRE HARNESS….sec 3

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10
Q

Question 10:
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) consists of important pieces of equipment the FDNY members are issued to protect themselves in countless different FDNY operations. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A:In all cases you must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood.

B: The wearing of suspenders is mandatory.

C: The hood is part of the PPE and its use is mandated by the Department. The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp, or saturated with moisture.

D: Bunker pants shall never be worn without knee pads in place. It is prohibited to remove or alter any part of the bunker gear.

A

a Explanation:
You must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, UNLESS the area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline.
AUC 310 6.3, 6.6-6.8

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11
Q

Question 11:
The correct action level at a radiological event can be found in which choice?

A:1 mR/hr

B:2 mR/hr

C: 3 mR/hr

D: 4 mR/hr

A

a Explanation:
ERP add 4 p-18
The Department uses 1 mR/hr as an action level. The Hotline (defining the Hot Zone) should be established at a rate of 2 mR/hr

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12
Q

Question 12:
Forcible entry is an important part of firefighting. During a recent drill, which comment made was incorrect?

A: On the inside, the “police lock” has a metal rod extending down into a metal receptacle in the floor. This receptacle is about 2’ from the door so that the rod is placed at an angle from the lock.

B: The body of a “rim lock” is attached to the inside of the door and the tongue slides into a metal receptacle, which is attached to the door frame. The cylinder extends through a hole drilled in the door and is secured on the outside by a metal ring that protrudes about 1/8 “ on the public hall side of the door.

C:In no case should a panel of a door be removed under any fire condition; it will not be possible to isolate the fire area while waiting for water.

D: The use of the axe and halligan tool to force open a door is a team operation. The member holding the halligan tool is the coordinator of the action, telling the axe firefighter when to strike. To avoid injury, the axe firefighter shall never strike without being specifically instructed to do so by the member holding the halligan tool.

A

c Explanation:
A panel of a door should not be removed EXCEPT FOR a relatively minor fire when difficulty has been encountered using normal forcible entry procedures. If a heavy body of fire exists and a panel is broken out of the door, it will not be possible to isolate the fire area while waiting for water.
TB FE 2 1.1 C, 1.2, 1.4 A, B

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13
Q

Question 13:
High visibility reflective/fluorescent safety vests have been issued to all units, one for each riding position. Choose the incorrect statement in regards to these Safety Vests.

A: Department policy requires all members to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways at all times, day or night

B: Exemptions from wearing high visibility safety vests are for members directly involved and in the immediate vicinity of firefighting, hazardous material mitigation, or technical rescue

C: The high visibility safety vests are designed to be worn over bunker gear and are flame resistant

D:Vests must be donned prior to leaving quarters for a call

A

d Explanation:
Vests shall be donned prior to leaving the apparatus OR in an area that is blocked by an apparatus and protected from vehicular traffic
Safety Bulletin 88 pages 1-2

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14
Q

Question 14:
Safety is a top priority in Tower Ladder operations. Which choice below contains incorrect information?

A:Tower ladders are not designed to operate with outriggers and jacks down on one side only. If apparatus is not level, lower the jacks and outrigger on the high side first, then the jacks and outrigger on the low side. The preferred placement of manual pins for outriggers shall be at the lowest hole available once extended.

B: When encountering streets that are narrow and lined with parked cars, the apparatus may have to be parked so that the outrigger can be placed between parked cars. A Guide Firefighter, typically the Outside Vent Firefighter, should assist the chauffeur in positioning the apparatus so that the outriggers will clear parked cars and other obstructions such as hoselines, manholes, curbs, etc.

C: When operating with a 75’ Tower Ladder, a 6’ hook may be utilized as a gauge to determine if the outriggers will clear all obstructions. When the apparatus is set on an angle, ensure that the measurement is taken from that part of the outrigger that is nearest to the obstruction. A 95’ Tower Ladder needs 6’8” for the outrigger to clear an obstruction.

D: If a member commences to set up a Tower Ladder apparatus for an operation and then decides to abort the operation, the member must return all outriggers and jacks to the pre-setup position.

A

a Explanation:
If the apparatus is not level, lower the jacks and outrigger on the low side first, followed by the jacks and outrigger on the high side until the green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed.
TL Ch 1 page 2

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15
Q

Question 15:
Select the most correct position/tactic used when operating at a Taxpayer fire.

A:The Forcible Entry Team can use the Bam-Bam tool and screwdriver to pull padlock cylinders on case hardened locks

B: When operating at a cockloft fire, the 2nd arriving Ladder Company is responsible to shut down gas and electric supply

C:When the member going to the roof is carrying the saw, a hook must also be taken. Members going to the roof subsequently should bring an axe or iron with the saw if available

D: Ladder Companies on the 1st alarm assignment shall report in with their 10 and 12 foot hooks besides their normal tool complement

A

c Explanation:
Taxpayers
A-The Bam-Bam tool and screwdriver are used to pull padlock cylinders. Brass padlocks are being replaced by “case hardened” materials. The Bam-Bam tool is ineffective on these locks….8.4.3
B- 1st arriving Ladder Company…8.3.3
C- 8.4.3.C
D- Other than 1st or 2nd arriving Ladder Companies on the initial alarm should report in with their 10 and 12 foot hooks besides their normal tool complement ….8.4.4

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16
Q

Question 16:
For a fire in a LRFPMD where a LSR rescue operation is required in order to rescue a victim at a window, which choice below contains the option of first priority?

A: The 2nd Roof Firefighter should immediately be directed to the apartment directly above the fire apartment to deploy the LSR.

B:Operate from the roof, if practical.

C: The IC should direct the Squad, Rescue, or an Engine Company to bring an available LSR to the apartment directly above the fire apartment to be deployed.

D: A LSR rescue should never be attempted in a LRFPMD.

A

b Explanation:
MD 7.11

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17
Q

Question 17:
The correct 10 code for a vehicle accident with no injuries and no wash down can be found in which choice?

A: 10-36-1

B:10-36-2

C: 10-36-3

D: 10-36-4

A

b Explanation:
A- Vehicle accident or emergency requiring washdown
C- Vehicle accident with injuries
D- Vehicle accident, with or without injuries, with a trapped victim requiring extrication
Communications ch 8 p- 10

18
Q

Question 18:

Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding the Incident Command System (ICS)?

A: Incident Command is not a static concept.

B: It is the responsibility of the initial Incident Commander, whether an Officer or a Chief, to implement the necessary functions within ICS based on the needs of the incident.

C:If any function is not delegated, it becomes the responsibility of additional units as they report in to the Incident Commander(s).

D: Delegation is the key to ICS.

A

c Explanation:
If any function is not delegated, it REMAINS the responsibility of the Incident Commander.
ICS Ch 1 1.5, 3.3.5, 4.1.6, 5.2

19
Q

Question 19:
If a radiological incident occurs, emergency management officials will determine which radioactive substances are present before recommending that people including FDNY members take Potassium Iodide tablets (KI). From the choices listed below, the correct location to store the KI tablets on all Engines and Ladders can be found in which choice?

A: First compartment behind the Officer

B: First compartment behind the Chauffeur

C: KI tablets are not stored on Engines and Ladders

D:In the glovebox

A

d Explanation:
ERP add 4C sec 5.2
Engines, Ladders, Squads, Rescues, Battalions, Divisions, Borough Commanders and Command Chiefs shall carry 130 mg Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets in the glovebox of their apparatus/vehicle

20
Q

Question 20:
At times, a Company Officer may be directed to have a premises secured with a padlock as directed by the Battalion Chief. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?

A: When the Battalion is ready to leave the scene of operations prior to the arrival of the Police Department, these padlocks can be used in a commercial occupancy where a very minor fire or emergency incident had occurred.

B: Upon return to quarters, the dispatcher shall be notified of the securing of the premises for entry on the Secured Premises List.

C:Upon return to quarters, appropriate journal entries shall be made and the key shall be placed at the Housewatch Desk.

D: Upon receipt of instructions from the dispatcher that the owner or other appropriate person is at the premises, the company shall respond to the premises as soon as practicable, secure positive identification of the person desiring entry, have the appropriate receipt signed and remove the padlock.

A

c Explanation:
Upon return to quarters, appropriate journal entries shall be made and the key shall be put in a SECURE PLACE ON THE APPARATUS selected by the officer on duty.
AUC 231 2.1, 4.2-4.4

21
Q

Question 21:
The Department-issued Prehospital Care Report (PCR) is a three-part form and contains protected health information, which by law is confidential. From the choices listed below, choose the one that inaccurately describes the PCR.

A: A separate PCR is to be completed for each patient

B: A PCR is not required when a CFRD Company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFRD assignment unless patient care is provided

C: A PCR must be completed when patient care is provided by a CFRD certified member regardless of response type and/or Unit assignment ..e.g. CFRD certified member in a Ladder Company

D:Members shall document the assessment and patient care provided by the CFRD Company and by the EMS crew on scene

A

d Explanation:
Members shall document only the assessment and patient care provided by the CFRD Company. Do not document care provided by the EMS crew or other EMS providers other than where applicable
CFR ch 5 p-1

22
Q

Question 22:
Maintenance of portable ladders is crucial to their effectiveness. Which form of maintenance below is described incorrectly?

A: Pulleys on all extension ladders usually have a ball bearing center that requires 1 to 2 drops of oil once a year.

B: The halyards on the 24’ extension ladders are generally made of manila rope. The halyards on the 35’ extension ladders are made of a poly blend. When either rope becomes frayed or twisted from usage, it should be replaced.

C:On all ladders, plain candle wax or paraffin shall be applied every six months to all contacting surfaces of multiple section ladders to ensure smooth operation. Apply the candle wax or paraffin where there is contact between rungs, guides or side rails.

D: Grease is normally used only for internally guided aluminum truss ladders. The grease shall be cleaned from the guiding grooves, and they shall be recoated each year, or when the grease has dried out and is no longer an effective aid to sliding.

A

c Explanation:
On all ladders, plain candle wax or paraffin shall be applied every THREE MONTHS to all contacting surfaces of multiple section ladders to ensure smooth operation. Apply the candle wax or paraffin where there is contact between rungs, guides or side rails.
Lads 1 13.3

23
Q

Question 23:
The use of 1 3/4 inch hose would be inappropriate and a company officer should not order it stretched for all of the following conditions except?

A: The line is expected to be used from a purely defensive position

B: An advanced fire on arrival

C:A large volume of water is required to cool a superheated fire area

D:A large body of fire in a large compartmented area

A

d Explanation:
A large body of fire in a large UNcompartmented area
Also: When the officer cannot determine the size or extent of the fire or fire area
Engine Operations ch 7 sec 7.6.3

24
Q

Question 24:
Two members discussing the Department’s use and inspection of fire hydrants identified which incorrect comment?

A: Individual members can be utilized for hydrant inspections.

B:Hydrants reported unserviceable or those with drain valves plugged shall only be inspected semi-annually.

C: DEP will deliver hydrant caps and spray caps to Divisions. Units can request hydrant / spray caps through the chain of command.

D: An open fire hydrant discharges approximately 1,000 gallons of water per minute whereas a spray cap discharges 25 gallons per minute.

A

b Explanation:
Hydrants reported unserviceable or those with drain valves plugged shall be inspected FREQUENTLY to determine their condition and availability for use.
AUC 205 2.2, 2.3, 5.2

25
Q

Question 25:
The correct priority order of victim removal when operating at an Under River Rail incident can be found in which choice?

A: 1) Non-Ambulatory victims (redtag then yellow tag), 2) Ambulatory victims, 3) Victims requiring Disentanglement/Extrication (red tag then yellow tag), 4) Black tag

B:1) Ambulatory victims, Non-Ambulatory victims (redtag then yellow tag), 3) Victims requiring Disentanglement/Extrication (red tag then yellow tag), 4) Black tag

C: 1) Victims requiring Disentanglement/Extrication (red tag then yellow tag), 2) Non-Ambulatory victims (redtag then yellow tag), 3) Ambulatory victims, 4) Black tag

D: 1) Black tag, 2) Victims requiring Disentanglement/Extrication (red tag then yellow tag), 3) Non-Ambulatory victims (redtag then yellow tag), 4) Ambulatory victims

A

b Explanation:
Under River Rail Operations sec 7.1

26
Q

Question 26:
Brownstone buildings were built in the late 1800’s as private dwellings. Which building feature below is listed incorrectly?

A: The first floor (basement) was composed of a kitchen in the rear with a dining room in the front, and an interior stairway to the second floor (parlor) and cellar. There is also a large closet.

B:The second floor (parlor) contained the front and rear parlor rooms, a hall, bedroom in the rear and the main entrance to the building. This is the only floor with two means of egress to the outside.

C: The third and fourth floors contained two bedrooms each, with hall rooms in the front and the rear, off the stairway. These may have been bedrooms or bathrooms.

D: The entrance to the second floor (parlor) is usually by way of exterior stair or stoop. Entrance to the first floor (basement) is through a doorway located under the exterior stoop.

A

b Explanation:
B) The first floor (basement) is the only floor with two means of egress to the outside.
Bwst 2.1.2, 2.1.3

27
Q

Question 27:
When operating as a Water Safety Unit, the only position that operated correctly can be found in which choice?

A:The company officer usually assumes the position of Rescue Coordinator. In a 4-FF Engine Company, the officer will also assume the responsibilities of the Spotter until an additional unit arrives

B: The Spotter position is usually given to the chauffeur in a Engine Company where they can keep sight of the victim. This may include using the apparatus as a vantage point

C: Primary Rescue Team will consist of Primary Rescuer in a cold water suit tended by a member controlling the tether line

D: Secondary Rescue Team will consist of an additional Rescuer in a PFD also tended by a member controlling the tether line. The primary objective of this team is to rescue additional victims

A

a Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Water Rescue 2
A- 3.7.1
B- A FF designated by the company officer …3.7.2
C- Primary Rescue Team will consist of Primary Rescuer in a PFD tended by a member controlling the tether line…..3.7.3
D- Secondary Rescue Team will consist of an additional Rescuer in a PFD also tended by a member controlling the tether line. The primary objective of this team is to ensure the safety of the Primary Rescue Team, although they are permitted to enter the water for a second victim….3.7.4

28
Q

Question 28:
In the event the power saw is not in-service, available or an option in performing a roof cut on a nonfireproof residential building, members may have to resort to using an axe. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: Determine the location of the hole. Cut through the roof covering and remove it, exposing the sheathing. The roof sheathing is placed at right angles to the beams and generally run front to rear.

B: Remove the cut sheathing from the opening with a member on each end of the cut section working in unison to remove tar, tin and nails. Push down the ceiling of the top floor with a 6` hook.

C: The approximate location of the beam may be determined by “sounding” with the back of the axe.

D:When there is a tin covering between the asphalt covering and the roof boards, a single, accurate cut will be sufficient. This single cut will always go through the tar, tin and roof boards.

A

d Explanation:
When there is a tin covering between the asphalt covering and the roof boards, it will require an accurate cut to separate the tin from the roof boards. This FREQUENTLY requires TWO cutting operations. The first cut is the tar and the tin which is removed prior to cutting the roof boards. It is obvious that this will cause a slight delay in obtaining a roof opening.
A) Note: Cut through the sheathing at opposite sides of the proposed opening close to the beam to lessen the bounce of the axe and the resultant binding action when the axe goes through a springy portion of the sheathing.
Lads 3 5.9.7

29
Q

Explanation:
When there is a tin covering between the asphalt covering and the roof boards, it will require an accurate cut to separate the tin from the roof boards. This FREQUENTLY requires TWO cutting operations. The first cut is the tar and the tin which is removed prior to cutting the roof boards. It is obvious that this will cause a slight delay in obtaining a roof opening.
A) Note: Cut through the sheathing at opposite sides of the proposed opening close to the beam to lessen the bounce of the axe and the resultant binding action when the axe goes through a springy portion of the sheathing.
Lads 3 5.9.7

A

b Explanation:
MMID ch 2
A- 5.1
B- Whether EFAS trained or not, the FAST Unit member assigned to monitor EFAS and/or the FAST Radio shall remain in the Battalion vehicle, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment, until relieved….5.1
C- 7.3
D- 7.4

30
Q

Question 30:
All units should be aware of the proper procedure when the IC of a fire decides to transition to an exterior attack. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The communication from the IC to all units must be an Urgent Transmission.

B: The IC’s Emergency Alert Button shall be depressed prior to giving the appropriate transmission.

C:The IC shall transmit us

Question 30:
All units should be aware of the proper procedure when the IC of a fire decides to transition to an exterior attack. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The communication from the IC to all units must be an Urgent Transmission.

B: The IC’s Emergency Alert Button shall be depressed prior to giving the appropriate transmission.

C:The IC shall transmit using the following terminology: “URGENT - GET OUT OF THE BUILDING - GET OUT OF THE BUILDING.”

D: On transmission of the message, the IC will immediately contact each unit individually via HT to confirm receipt of the message and to verify they are in compliance. The IC shall also ensure a roll call.

ing the following terminology: “URGENT - GET OUT OF THE BUILDING - GET OUT OF THE BUILDING.”

D: On transmission of the message, the IC will immediately contact each unit individually via HT to confirm receipt of the message and to verify they are in compliance. The IC shall also ensure a roll call.

A

c Explanation:
“URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Command to all units, URGENT - ALL UNITS BACK OUT, WE ARE TRANSITIONING TO AN EXTERIOR ATTACK”
CC Ch 4 2.3

31
Q

Question 31:
The correct procedure for starting the the fire pump in a High-Rise Office Building can be found in which choice?

A:1) Close knife switch, 2) Close Circuit breakers, 3) Push starting button, 4) Move selector lever

B: 1) Close knife switch, 2, Push starting button, 3) Close Circuit breakers, 4) Move selector lever

C: 1) Move selector lever, 2) Close knife switch, 3) Push starting button, 4) Close Circuit breakers

D: 1) Close knife switch, 2) Close Circuit breakers, 3) Move selector lever, 4) Push starting button

A

a Explanation:
High-Rise Office Building sec 4.1.4

32
Q

Question 32:
As the officer in charge of an aerial ladder, your unit responds to a severe fire in a large frontage building (over 30’) with no people showing. All of the following are correct with the exception of which choice?

A: If no condition exists in front of the building requiring a definite position, place the center of the turntable approximately 15’ from the side wall passed on your approach.

B:Immediately set up the truck for aerial ladder operations for a fire at any location within the building.

C: If there is a condition requiring possible aerial ladder operations or possible use of the ladder pipe (especially large commercial or public occupancies), then position the ladder for maximum coverage.

D: If you approach the building in the same direction as the engine, the operation will be more efficient and coordinated.

A

b Explanation:
Do not set up the truck for aerial ladder operations UNLESS the fire is at the end of the building you have approached and the far end seems relatively safe.
Lads 2 3.5.1 - 3.5.3

33
Q

Question 33:
The Search Assessment Marking system is a 2’x2’ marking that when completed, will form the letter “X” with designated markings in each quadrant. From the list below, choose the correct information that would be written in the top quadrant.

A:The time and date that the company/team personnel left the structure

B: FDNY Company or Team designation given at the Command Post

C: Personal hazards to units/teams (e.g., utilities, open shafts, dangerous areas, rats

D: Number of live and/or expired victims still inside the structure/area

A

a Explanation:
Collapse Operations add 2 p-3
B- Left quadrant
C- Right quadrant
D- Bottom quadrant
It is made using the same lime-yellow colored spray paint currently used to mark vacant buildings

34
Q

Question 34:
The officer of the second arriving Ladder Company at a peaked-roof private dwelling fire should know which choice below to be incorrect?

A: If a Battalion Chief is not on the scene, communicate with the first arriving ladder as to what areas were not searched and if any assistance is required. It is critical that the second Ladder Officer contact the first Ladder Officer to determine their location.

B:When necessary, assign members to assist the outside team of the first ladder with portable ladder operations. Additionally, members of the second ladder should initiate and/or augment removal of window bars on both the front and rear of the building early in the operation. (Search and rescue duties may preclude window bar removal).

C:After proceeding to the floors above via the interior stairs, notify company officers operating on the fire floor. When operating above the fire floor, a secondary means of egress should be secured as soon as possible.

D: At top floor fires, check floors below to ensure fire did not start on or drop down to lower floors. Be available to assist or relieve the first ladder on the top floor. Members must remain on the floor below until needed.

A

c Explanation:
PRIOR TO proceeding to the floors above via the interior stairs, notify company officers operating on the fire floor. When operating above the fire floor, a secondary means of egress should be secured as soon as possible.
PD Ch 4 5.5

35
Q

Question 35:
Inflatable Water Rescue Hose (2 1/2”) may be used during Water/Ice incidents involving one or more conscious victims. Every company, including Battalions, carry the Yellow Water Rescue Fittings to put this into operation. From the choices listed below, choose the most correct statement made about this hose.

A: The Inflatable Water Rescue Hose may be filled directly from a SCBA cylinder

B:One 45 minute cylinder can fill 10 lengths of 2 1/2” hose in approximately 5 minutes

C:The apparatus air outlet can fill five lengths of hose in approximately 1 minute

D: When deployed as a loop it increases buoyancy and can be used for multiple victims. Each looped length is capable of supporting approximately 15 people

A

c Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Water Rescue 2 add 1 sec 3.3
A- Supply air from either a SCBA or FAST-PAK using the Hansen fitting. Do not fill the hose directly from the cylinder. If close enough, the apparatus air outlet may be used…2.1
B- One 45 minute cylinder can fill 5 lengths of 2 1/2” hose in approximately 1 minutes…3.2
C- 3.3
D- Each looped length is capable of supporting approximately 10 people …..4.1

36
Q
Question 36:
Every officer (whether on-duty or while in any Department premises, property or vehicle(s)) who reasonably suspects or knows that any member has engaged in alcohol use on duty shall take all of the following actions except?

A:Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery from leaving the premises without permission of the investigating officer.

B: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty and immediately have the affected unit placed out of service.

C:Notify the administrative Battalion Chief or, if appropriate, the next superior officer. Also notify the Inspector General (“IG”).

D: Document the incident in the company journal.

A

c Explanation:
Notify the administrative Battalion Chief or, if appropriate, the next superior officer. Also notify the Bureau of Investigations and Trials (“BITs”)
A) Note: If any member is permitted to leave the premises during an investigation, the investigating officer shall document the reason for the release in a report to be sent to the Chief of Department via the chain of command.
AUC 202 5.5

37
Q

Question 37:
The incorrect maintenance of Handi Talkie equipment can be found in which choice?

A:Items such as keys, and key FOBS are permissible to be attached directly to the HT, case, antenna, or remote mic

B: External battery charging contacts may be cleaned with an eraser if a coating is observed on the contacts. Never use an abrasive

C: If the remote microphone becomes wet, or submerged water trapped inside the speaker grille and microphone can be removed by shaking the unit well

D: When HTs are sent for repair, they should be sent complete (radio, antenna, battery, and external remote microphone) with defect and company number recorded on tag. Leather goods (cases and straps) should not be sent unless they need repair

A

a Explanation:
NOT PERMISSIBLE
Communications ch 11 p-10

38
Q

Question 38:
An Engine Officer conducting drill on Row Frame operations had to correct a member who made which incorrect statement?

A: Fires in row frame houses are particularly vulnerable to the quick spread of fire due to their basic design and use of combustible construction material. Speed, operating in close quarters, and mobility of operation are of prime importance, therefore all interior hoselines stretched will be considered 1 ¾”.

B: Officers of all engines arriving at fires will take positions at serviceable hydrants. They shall be alert to initiate in-line pumping when it would increase the speed of the operation, and make hoselines available in front of the fire building.

C: The officer should realize that the use of booster tank water, while the ECC is hooking up to hydrant, will make for a speedier operation. The officer must be informed when the pumper is receiving water from the hydrant.

D:An engine company, ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of an exposure for purposes of extinguishing the fire in the cockloft, should take an extinguisher can in addition to the hoseline.

A

d Explanation:
An engine company, ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of an exposure for purposes of extinguishing the fire in the cockloft, should take a six-foot hook to pull ceilings.
RF 6.1

39
Q

Question 39:
The primary objective of the Chemical Protective Company (CPC) is found in which choice?

A:Perform rescue operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone

B: Perform rescue operations of ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Exclusion Zone

C:Perform rescue operations of non-ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Contaminated Reduction Zone

D: Perform rescue operations of ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or Contaminated Reduction Zone

A

a Explanation:
ERP sec 8.9

40
Q

Question 40:
When operating retractable bollards, members should realize there is a tamper alarm on the control box. It is a local alarm and does not transmit to the DOT operations center. If the key is not placed in the key switch and turned within _____ after opening the control box door, the system will switch to “Tamper Mode,” causing an alarm to sound and power to automatically be cut from the system.

A: 10 seconds

B: 15 seconds

C:30 seconds

D: 60 seconds

A

c Explanation:
Likewise, the alarm will activate if the control box door is not closed within 30-seconds of removing the key from the key switch.
TB Tools 35 3.1

41
Q
A