BK 4 Flashcards
Question 1:
An Engine Officer conducting a drill on Buckeye Pipeline operations was incorrect in which statement?
A: Engine companies responding from quarters on the second alarm for a street box associated with a leak should place additional cans of foam on the apparatus.
B: Engine companies out of quarters, receiving a notification to respond to a second alarm for a pipeline leak must not return to quarters for the additional cans of foam.
C:Units performing isolation duties will announce 10-84 at valve locations, and inform the dispatcher of valve closures as well as completion of patrol duties. Upon completion of these assigned duties, the unit shall report to the Command Post, or other assignment as directed by the Incident Commander.
D:If ignition occurs before arrival of the first Fire Department unit, the duties required by the UAAC and Instruction Card are no longer necessary. Control of the fire is now the primary consideration.
D Explanation:
If ignition occurs before arrival of the first Fire Department unit, the duties required by the UAAC and Instruction Card must still be performed, and additional alarms transmitted immediately. Isolation of the pipeline by closing manually operated valves is still of primary importance to reduce the amount of fuel released.
AUC 149 4.11, 4.12, 6.2.6, 6.3
Question 2:
The most correct way to make a notification of an on-duty injured member can be found in which choice?
A: Immediate phone call to FDOC with full particulars
B: Via Dept radio to the Borough dispatcher with name and/or unit of member
C:Via Dept radio to the Borough dispatcher without requesting the mixer off with no name or unit number of member via dept radio
D:Via Dept radio to the Borough dispatcher requesting mixer off without transmitting the name or unit number of member
D Explanation:
As soon as possible thereafter, particulars shall also be telephoned to FDOC….THIS IS FOR AN INITIAL NOTIFICATION OF A FATALITY OR SERIOUS INJURED ON-DUTY MEMBER
The name or unit number of a member with a minor injury may be transmitted over dept radio after requesting “Mixer Off”
Also, Signal 10-45 shall not be used to indicate a fatality or injury to an on-duty member
Comm ch 8 sec 8.2.5 and 8.2.6
Question 3:
Which operational consideration below is not in accordance with Department procedures for brush fire operations?
A: Initial attack operations should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures.
B: In general, avoid attacking from or operating in front of the fire. If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces. An on-rushing wall of fire can endanger operating forces.
C:Streams should be directed at the flames above the burning brush, not the burning brush itself.
D: Use two-firefighter teams working with Indian pumps and brooms along the flanks near the head of the fire. The majority of brush fires are controlled in this manner.
C Explanation:
Streams should be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush.
Question 4:
The staffing of companies varies from tour to tour based on the citywide personnel levels. The number of FFs riding in any company can and does change during a tour due to medical leaves, emergency leaves, details after the start of the tour, etc. To over come this confusing during an emergency roll call, the company officer shall answer when called by the Roll Call Officer (RCO) how?
A:The company officer will answer when called by the RCO stating the number of FFs they responded with and accounting only for the members within sight or hearing without using the HT
B: The company officer will answer when called by the RCO stating the number of FFs they responded with and accounting only for the members within sight or hearing using the HT
C:The company officer will answer when called by the RCO stating the number of FFs they responded with and accounting only for the members within sight only
D: The company officer will answer when called by the RCO stating the number of FFs they responded with and accounting only for the members within sight or their known/expected location
A
Explanation:
Comm ch 9 add 2 sec 1.4
Question 5:
Manhole fires and emergencies are often challenging. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A:Members shall attempt to move vehicles located in the danger area when it will facilitate operations.
B: When operating at manhole emergencies, the location of traffic control boxes must be taken into consideration when deciding the size and location of the “AREA OF DANGER”. The smoke and gases from a manhole incident can travel up the hollow pole of a nearby light stanchion and at times accumulate with considerable pressure. The gaseous mixture may be ignited by a spark inside the control box.
C: When a manhole cover blows, do not run. Keep your eyes on the cover so you can approximate where it will land.
D: Members should not pull covers off electrical manholes at manhole fires or if a manhole fire is in the area. It is the responsibility of utility crews to open manhole covers at these incidents.
A
Explanation:
Members shall NOT attempt to move vehicles located in the danger area.
D) Note: This does not change Department policy of pulling electric manhole covers under certain circumstances at gas emergencies.
AUC 180 2.3, Note 2, 3, 5
Question 6:
There are four types of chemical agents, which are nerve, blister, blood, and choking agents. Which one has a distinctive odor of fruit?
A:Nerve agent
B: Blister agent
C: Blood agent
D: Choking agent
A Explanation:
B- Garlic
C- Burnt almonds
D- Chlorine or grass
ERP add 2 sec 2
Question 7:
Your unit, an aerial ladder, arrives second at a top floor fire in a Brownstone. Which tools should your Roof Firefighter bring to the roof?
A:Saw and 6ft halligan hook
B: Saw and 6ft hook
C: Halligan and 6ft halligan hook
D: Halligan, 6ft hook and life saving rope
A Explanation:
Bwst p19
Question 8:
To operate as a SOC Support Ladder Company, the unit shall be staffed with a minimum of how many trained members?
A: 1 trained officer or acting trained officer and at least 1 trained FF
B: 1 trained officer or acting trained officer and at least 2 trained FFs
C:1 trained officer or acting trained officer and at least 3 trained FFs
D: 1 trained officer or acting trained officer and at least 4 trained FFs
E: At least 3 trained members
C
Question 9:
In HRFPMDs, cellars may contain compactor rooms, storage areas, meeting rooms, sprinkler protected motor vehicle garages, laundry rooms and utility meter rooms. Each of the following choices contains correct information regarding cellars of these buildings except?
A: These areas may also contain HVAC equipment with its associated duct work. The entire run of ducts should be checked to their termination points. The duct work venting dryers from laundry rooms should be checked to their termination point as well.
B:All cellar fires in HRFPMDs shall be controlled using a hand stretch into below grade areas. In no case shall members connect to a standpipe to stretch into below grade areas.
C: Motor vehicle fires in these cellars can create an extremely heavy smoke condition, which can delay locating the vehicle, even though the sprinkler system may be discharging water. A search line should be used in these situations and a limited number of personnel should be used.
D: Access to below grade areas may be via the interior, enclosed, fireproof stairways or outside ramps and driveways.
B Explanation:
Consider a hand stretch into below grade areas. When the fire is controlled by the sprinkler system and connecting to a standpipe outlet would not expose our members to an IDLH, an Engine officer can, with sound judgment, use the standpipe and notify the IC.
MD 6.30
Question 10:
Which gas valves should FFs not operate
A: Master meter valve
B: Head of service valve
C: Exterior gas riser valve
D: Curb valve
E:Main valve
E Explanation:
Main Valves are usually located on the street side of the curb and are used to isolate large sections of the natural gas main. They can look like curb valves/service valves but control distribution lines usually running under the street (these lines can also be found under sidewalks and unpaved areas). FDNY is not permitted to shut a Main Valve.
Emergency procedures natural gas page 25
Question 11:
Two members discussing the “Life Saving Rope” identified which incorrect statement?
A:A life saving rope subjected to the weight of one person shall be placed out of service forthwith and replacement requested.
B: All units, except Engine Companies, shall inspect and repack the Life Saving Rope every Monday on the 9x6 tour. Engine Companies shall inspect and repack on Tuesdays on the 9x6 tour. Record the inspection on the Life Saving Rope Card (RP-100).
C: The actual length of the life saving rope may be less than the nominal length of 150 feet due to natural shrinkage after several years in the field. Over a period of time some ropes have shrunk 8 to 10 feet.
D: Each Division has been supplied with two (2) life saving ropes to facilitate a rapid exchange to field units when needed. No exchange will be permitted without the completed SCF-2.
A life saving rope subjected to the weight of TWO PEOPLE shall be placed out of service forthwith and replacement requested.
Immediately after a life saving rope has been subjected to the weight of ONE PERSON, the rope shall be carefully examined for any signs of damage or abrasion before being placed back in service. Proper journal entries shall be made by the company officer of the results of such examination. An entry shall also be made in red on the Life Saving Rope Record Card (RP-100). The officer, after supervising the examination of the rope, shall notify the Safety Command by telephone of the incident.
TB Rope 1 1.6, 4.2, 4.3, 4.15, 5.4
Question 12:
You are working the 9x6 tour in L-300 when you receive a ticket to respond as an additional ladder company for a one story Taxpayer fire in the Borough of Brooklyn. Upon arrival, the IC tells you to take your whole company to the roof and prepare to start a trench cut in an attempt to cut off the fire. As you are ascending the ladder to the roof, you remember that all of the trenching procedures are correct except?
A:The width of the trench should be at least two feet wide
B: Trenching does not take the place of ventilation holes. A trench may serve as an additional ventilation source. Its main purpose is to prevent the fire from passing that point at which the cut is made
C: It is not practical to trench a large roof area of a taxpayer where fire has seriously involved a major portion of the cockloft.
D: The Roof Sector Supervisor can order a trench to be cut, but must immediately notify the IC
E: In the event of a cellar fire or a serious first floor fire where successful operations are doubtful and it is feared that fire may eventually extend into the cockloft, a trench as a defensive measure may be advisable
F: When making a trench take advantage of shafts, chimneys, bulkheads, scuttles, etc.
A Explanation:
At least 3 feet wide
Taxpayers sec 5.6
Question 13:
What is the most common type of peaked roof found in private dwellings of lightweight construction?
A:the open-web lightweight wood truss
B:the open-web steel truss
C: Laminated I-beam rafters
D: Solid wood rafters
A
Question 14:
As a FAST officer under deployment to rescue a FF, you would know all of the following to be correct except?
A:Once a member is located, a FAST PAK must be called for immediately only if the member is low on air
B: If the condition of the distressed member’s SCBA is in doubt, do not provide air via the high pressure system
C: If the FAST Pak is not at your location, start the removal procedure
D: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve half way to allow a constant flow of air
E: To ID an unconscious FF, turn them on their right side to gain access to name on back of bunker coat, PRA which will provide the unit and position, and the engraved ID number on the side of the HT
A Explanation:
Once a member is located, a FAST PAK must be called for immediately, regardless of whether the member has air or not
MMID ch 3 pages 3-6
Question 15:
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has strict requirements when it comes to PCBs. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: As per the EPA, combustible materials must not be stored within a “PCB Transformer” enclosure, within 5 meters of a “PCB Transformer” enclosure or within 5 meters of an unenclosed “PCB Transformer.”
B:EPA precautionary markings consist of letters and striping on a white or yellow background, on a 6” x 6” square down to 2” x 2” square depending on the size of the equipment.
C: According to the EPA, a “Permanent Storage Site” is a facility with strict requirements for the prevention of PCB release to the environment. Storage for up to a period of one (1) year is allowed for PCB items and PCB liquids.
D:According to the EPA a “Temporary Storage Site” is an outdoor or indoor area with less strict requirements than a permanent storage site. Storage of “PCB” items (500 or > PPM PCB) and “PCB” liquids (500 or > PPM of PCB) are allowed for up to a period not exceeding thirty (30) days.
D Explanation:
According to the EPA a “Temporary Storage Site” is an outdoor or indoor area with less strict requirements than a permanent storage site. Storage of “PCB” (500 or > PPM PCB) items and “PCB CONTAMINATED” liquid (50-499 PPM of PCB) allowed for up to a period not exceeding thirty (30) days. PCB liquids (500 or > PPM PCB) are NOT allowed to be stored in a Temporary Storage Site.
A) Note: 5 meters = 16.4 feet
AUC 266 3.2, 3.3
Question 16:
Which 10 code would be most correct to use when requesting an ambulance?
A:10-44
B: 10-47
C: 10-48
D: 10-85
A Explanation:
B- Police response (crowd or traffic control etc.)
C- Police response (FFs are being harmed)
D- Fire Marshal requires emergency police assistance
Comm ch 8 pages 13 an 22