BK 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding the Buckeye Pipeline?

A: The Buckeye Pipeline consists of two 12” steel pipes. One carries gasoline, and the other kerosene base aviation fuel.

B:The pipeline operates at 1,200 psig at Linden, New Jersey. The maximum service pressure on the terminal piping and delivery lines to shippers from the Long Island City terminal is 200 psig.

C: Manual shut off valves are generally located below ground in a valve housing under a hinged cover.

D:To shut the valves, utilize the appropriate wrench to turn the valve clockwise 48 full turns (84 half turns). The only exceptions are the valves located on the shipper’s lines extending from the Long Island City terminal which require 24 full turns (42 half turns) clockwise.

A

NextD xplanation:
To shut the valves, utilize the appropriate wrench to turn the valve clockwise 42 full turns (84 half turns). The only exceptions are the valves located on the shipper’s lines extending from the Long Island City terminal which require 24 full turns (48 half turns) clockwise.
AUC 149 1.1, 1.3, 2.3.2

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2
Q

Question 2:
If the address that you are responding to for a fire/emergency is not a CIDS building but is on the same side of the street and within ________house numbers of a CIDS building, the computer will identify the CIDS building to the Borough dispatcher?

A: 4

B:3

C:2

D: 1

A

BExplanation:
The dispatcher will notify the IC of this fact via radio if the preliminary or progress reports indicate that exposures are a consideration…..Remember, You are the IC until a higher rank is 10-84
Communications ch 4 sec 4.2.4

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3
Q

Question 3:
Hurricane season for the eastern Atlantic region is June 1st to November 30th. There are many other dates that are important to the Fire Department. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A:Units should determine special needs for storm preparation and obtain such supplies and equipment in advance of the start of hurricane season (June 1st).

B: Requisitioning for necessary storm preparation supplies shall commence March 1st to permit sufficient time for the various bureaus to obtain and deliver materials.

C:Items on requisition not received by June 1st shall be called to the attention of the Division Storm Operations Coordinator.

D: New York City is most at risk of being affected by a hurricane between August and October.

A

C Explanation:
Items on requisition not received by MAY 1st shall be called to the attention of the Division Storm Operations Coordinator. AUC 159 1, 4.7.1

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4
Q

Question 4:
During Building Inspection, you discover a single building with the address 100-112 Williams Ave. Upon return to qtrs, you are trying to figure out how many CIDS entries are required for a single building with a multi-number address range posted. You would be correct in which choice?

A: 1

B:2

C: 7

D: 12

A

B Explanation:
The unit officer must enter a CIDS message for the first and last posted address numbers of such range. The combined number 100-112 should also be included in the “Transmitted Data” portion of each CIDS entry (AKA 100-112 Williams Ave)
Communications ch 4 page 5

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5
Q

Question 5:
Which choice below is incorrect regarding subway ventilation fans?

A: There are approximately 200 ventilation fan plants located throughout the Transit System, with each fan plant having between one and four fans.

B: Most of the plants have a single fan. Plants serving under-river tubes may have up to four fans.

C: Not every subway station has an associated fan plant. Fans are not universally distributed throughout the subway system.

D:Most Transit System ventilation fans operate in the supply mode. A small number operate in the exhaust mode. Ventilation fans associated with under-river tubes are reversible, as are replacement fans.

A

D Explanation:
Most Transit System ventilation fans operate in the EXHAUST mode. A SMALL NUMBER operate in the SUPPLY mode. (*Hint: SS - Small number Supply). Ventilation fans associated with under-river tubes are reversible, as are replacement fans.
On some older type fans, the direction of the airflow can be changed by moving dampers.
AUC 207 Add 8 2.1, 2.3, 2,6

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6
Q

Question 6:
You are the first arriving officer to an overt biological event. You should establish an exclusion how many feet from the point of release?

A: 200

B:300

C: 500

D: 1000

A

B Explanation:
Restrict entry of any responder for at least 30 minutes to 1 hour to allow the biological agent to settle
ERP add 1 ch 7 sec A

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7
Q

Question 7:
Who is in charge of a “suspicious package” response?

A: FDNY Single Command

B:NYPD Single Command

C: FDNY / NYPD Unified Command

D:FDNY / NYPD (first to arrive)

A

B

AUC 276 5.1

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8
Q

Question 8:
During a cold water rescue pre-determined hand signals have been established to allow the Rescuer and Tether to communicate. Choose the correct hand signal

A: 2 hands placed on top of the rescuer’s head indicates the rescuer is ready to be pulled to shore

B: 1 arm waving in the air indicates let more slack out in line

C:1 arm waving in the air indicates additional help is needed

D:1 hand placed on top of the rescuer’s head indicates the rescuer is ready to be pulled to shore

A

D

B and C…….1 arm waving in the air indicates stop pulling
Emergency Procedures Water Rescue 2 Ice and Cold Water Rescue sec 8

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9
Q

Question 9:
Portable Generators issued to Fire Department units have many specifications. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A:If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical cord should be 100 feet or less. Electrical cords of longer lengths reduce the efficiency of the fan and may result in damage to the equipment being used.

B: The only maintenance required on the lights is bulb replacement. Bulbs may be procured from Technical Services. All other repairs to lights should be done by Technical Services.

C: Operate portable generators for 15 minutes weekly.

D: During the test of the generator, operate all lights for 5 minutes to test for proper working order of lights and generator under load. If lamps do not light while testing or using, check bulbs for tight connection.

A

A Explanation:
If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical cord should be 50 feet or less….
TB Tools 4 3.5, 3.8.1, 3.8.2

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10
Q

Question 10:
The following radio transmission is heard at a fire: “L-120 to Battalion 44, we have a fire in apartment 3D, we have door control and we are in the apartment.” This radio transmission indicates all of the following except?

A: L-120 inside team is conducting a search

B: The location of the fire apartment for the Engine Company, other members, and the IC

C: Confirms that interior conditions are tenable to begin operations and that the door is being controlled

D:Upon hearing this transmission, the Roof FF must still communicate and confirm with the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire apartment that the door is being controlled before vertical ventilation can begin

A

D Explanation:
The initial vertical ventilation must be coordinated with door control of the fire area. If the Roof FF does not hear the above transmission, he/she must confirm with the Ladder Company Officer that the door is being controlled on the fire floor before vertical ventilation can begin
FFP Ventilation sec 5

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11
Q

Question 11:
Members conducting drill on the Pak-Tracker identified which incorrect comment during their discussion?

A: The maximum range from an SCBA’s transmitter to a Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 900 feet line of sight. The range is dependent on the environmental conditions and anything that might cause interference or reflection of the personal transmitter signal.

B:The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is intrinsically safe and suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres.

C: Pak-Trackers are currently carried by all ladder, rescue and squad companies. Pak-Trackers shall be brought to the Incident Command Post (ICP) by the FAST unit, rescue and squad companies. A member of the FAST unit will monitor the Pak-Tracker. The rescue and squad Pak-Trackers will remain at the command post as a backup should the FAST unit be deployed.

D: A member of the FAST unit other than the member monitoring EFAS shall monitor the Pak-Tracker. This specific PakTracker must remain in the monitoring mode near the FAST unit’s assigned position.

A

B The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is NOT suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres.
TB SCBA Add 8 2.1, 3.1, 4.1, 4.2

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12
Q

Question 12:
The Company Journal shall be retained for how many years?

A: 25

B:20

C: 15

D: 10

A

B Explanation:
Company Office Record Journal is 10 years (15.3.1)
Company Fire Record Journal is 10 years (15.3.5)
Regs ch 15 sec 15.2.1.R

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13
Q

Question 13:
Battalion 99 is 1084 at a confirmed leak in the Iroquois Pipeline. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding department operations at this emergency?

A: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company or SOC Support ladder. If not available, the IC shall special call one for their metering capabilities.

B: Except in the event of immediate threat to life or property, no valves should be opened or closed without the approval of Con Edison/Iroquois personnel.

C:The primary consideration is the evacuation of the area involved.

D:Once the location of the leak is confirmed, fog lines shall be used to aid in the dissipation of the escaping gas.

A

C AUC 150
A – Incorrect – If Rescue, Squad, Soc Support not available, IC shall order available units 7.2.3
B – Incorrect – FD Incident Commander in consultation with Con Ed/Iroquois personnel. 4.5
C – Correct 7.2.1
D – Incorrect – Fog lines may hinder the dissipation of the gas. 7.1.2

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14
Q

Question 14:
At a confirmed chemical release in a subway,the first arriving units should perform all of the following correct operations except?

A:If a dispersal device is still operational, the first alarm units shall make every attempt to stop the device wearing bunker gear and SCBA

B: Members operating in bunker gear should not proceed in the Exclusion Zone any further than the farthest live victim when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims

C: The officer must monitor on-air time of members in order to ensure decontamination is completed before the air supply is depleted

D: Immediate actions onsite should include checking for secondary devices and monitoring radiation levelsA

A

A If a dispersal device is still operational, the first alarm units shall make NO attempt to stop the device
ERP add 2 page 6

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15
Q

Question 15:
Which feature of Brownstone buildings is listed incorrectly?

A: They are three to five stories in height with a cellar.

B: Their width is 20 to 25 feet, and their depth varies to about 60 feet.

C: The interior is of combustible construction, while the exterior shell is made of non-combustible material.

D:In Brownstones, the basement is below the first floor.

A

D

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16
Q

Question 16:
The Drag Rescue Device (DRD) integrated into the bunker coat can be used for all of the following except?

A: Dragging a non-ambulatory FF across the cellar floor to an area of safety

B:Dragging an unconscious FF up the cellar stairs to an area of safety

C: Dragging a non-ambulatory FF across an apartment floor to an area of safety

D: Dragging an unconscious FF across the roof of a building to an area of safety

A

D Explanation:
Any attempt to use the device for other than a horizontal drag could result in the member slipping out of their bunker coat. In addition, serious injury could occur to member’s upper torso. Members should not be dragged up stairs utilizing the DRD
MMID ch 3 add 2 pages 1-2

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17
Q

Question 17:
The” salient feature “common to all Rowframe buildings, regardless of variations in design, is?

A: the open interior stairs.

B: the high degree of combustible content.

C:the common cockloft spreading over all the buildings in the row.

D: the large amount of sleeping occupants.

A

C

18
Q

Question 18:
The Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/officer within _________ of the apparatus collision/incident?

A:4 days

B:72 hours

C: 7 days

D: 48 hours

A

A 96 hours/4 days
The officer in charge or the operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident shall prepare and forward a Collision Packet through the chain of command, which consists of 2 copies of the CD-19
2 copies of the MV-104(s) when required
2 copies of the PD accident report when required
SB 56 sec 10

19
Q

\

Two probationary firefighters were discussing roof construction in Brownstone buildings. The on-duty Officer has to correct which incorrect comment made?

A: The majority are flat construction with no parapet in the rear.

B: Some have a center peak which slopes toward the front and the rear.

C: There may be more floors in the rear than in front. The roof slopes to the front where there are small front windows making access to and removal of trapped persons from these areas difficult.

D:In flat roof buildings, the cockloft space between the top floor ceiling and the roof is approximately 4’ to 6’ in height and the roof is pitched toward the front of the building.

A

D

20
Q

Question 20:
In order to collect data on the events that lead to multiple injuries and to prepare strategies to prevent injuries, the Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to submit a report when?

A:3 or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour

B: 2 or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour

C: 3 or more members suffer minor injuries at the same incident resulting in no medical leave that tour

D: 2 or more members suffer minor injuries at the same incident resulting in no medical leave that tour

A

A

21
Q

Question 21:
Proper placement of the tip of the portable ladder provides for easier and safer mounting and dismounting. It also allows the user to maintain balance by providing a handhold. Which placement of the portable ladder is listed correctly?

A: Placed against a fire escape - Tip shall be level with the fire escape railing.

B: Placed at a window - Tip shall be slightly above the window sill.

C: Placed at a roof - Tip shall be at least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.

D:Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing.

A

D Explanation:
Placed against a fire escape - Tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.
Placed at a window - Tip shall be level with window sill.
Placed at a roof - Tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing.
Lads 1 7.4

22
Q

Question 22:
The most correct procedure for starting a fire pump in a High-Rise Office building can be found in which choice?

A: Move selector lever, close knife switch, close circuit breaker, push starting button

B: Close circuit breaker, move selector lever, close knife switch, push starting button,

C: Close circuit breaker, close knife switch, push starting button, move selector lever

D:Close knife switch, close circuit breaker, push starting button, move selector lever

A

D Explanation:
High-Rise Office Buildings sec 4.1.4

23
Q

Question 23:
At a row frame fire where the building is fully involved and there is fire in the exposures, a “holding operation” will be implemented. In this situation, where is the first hoseline stretched?

A:Into the fire building through the front door.

B: To the top floor of the most severe exposure.

C: Through an exposure to the rear yard.

D: In front of exposure one to operate on the exterior.

A

A Explanation:
RF 6.5 A

24
Q

Question 24:
When positioning at a building collapse, all of the following are correct except?

A: If possible, the 1st and 2nd arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains

B:Two of the second alarm ladder companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street

C: Initially, the first arriving TL should be the only unit in front of the collapse building, unless there is a specific need for additional units,

D: Aerial ladders and SOC support ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes

A

B Explanation:
Two of the second alarm ENGINE COMPANIES
FFP Collapse Operations page 6

25
Q

Question 25:
At vacant building fires, officers of aerial ladder companies shall consider the need for access and positioning of tower ladders in order to utilize their extinguishing capabilities. However, there are vacant building fires where the officer gives precedence to the positioning of their aerial apparatus. These situations are accurately listed in all choices below except?

A: The officer receives information or has prior knowledge that part of this building is used by vagrants or squatters.

B: The reach of the 100’ aerial is required to expedite or execute certain tasks or assignments.

C:A large caliber stream is expected to be utilized.

D: A building is not completely vacant.

A

C Explanation:
Lads 2 6.6.1

26
Q

Question 26:
Which color of smoke is not an indicator of a backdraft?

A: Dense black smoke

B:Orange/yellow

C: Dirty brown

D: Yellow/brown

A

B Explanation:
Gray/yellow
Taxpayers page 20

27
Q

Question 27:
Operating a Tower Ladder in hilly locations can be a challenge. An experienced officer would know all of the following to be accurate with the exception of which choice?

A: If possible, the apparatus should be facing downhill

B: If facing downhill, place the turntable past the objective

C: Position the apparatus parallel to the direction of the slope so that boom operations will be in the up-hill direction

D:Lower the jacks and outriggers and confirm all wheels remain off the ground

A

D Explanation:
Lower the jacks and outriggers and confirm all wheels remain on the ground to help prevent skipping
TL Ch 2 sec 2.4

28
Q

Question 28:
The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is designed for a maximum inlet pressure of ____ psi. Do not exceed this pressure.

A: 100psi

B:175psi

C:200psi

D: 300psi

A

B

Explanation:
TB Tools 38 4.1

29
Q

Question 29:
Choose the incorrect statement in regards to steam

A: Steam is invisible

B: When operating at a steam generating plant during a high pressure steam leak, verbal communications will be difficult

C:SOC companies such as Rescues and/or Squads will mitigate the emergency inside a steam generating plant

D: All units to respond to the designated mustering site outside the steam generating plant

A

C Explanation:
Plant personnel will mitigate the emergency. FDNY should only enter the plant to perform search and rescue for missing plant personnel
Emergency Procedures Steam System Emergencies pages 1-3

30
Q

Question 30:
Upon arrival as the FAST Unit, the officer and FFs must operate strictly according to the FDNY’s procedures regarding FAST Units. Select the incorrect procedure

A: If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall remind the IC of their designation

B: The FAST officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which would include any CIDS information that is available

C:When communicating between FAST unit members requires the word FAST after the unit designation Ex: L-100 Can FAST to L-100 FAST

D: When communicating to other units, the FAST officer and member’s radio designation shall include the word FAST after the unit designation. Ex: L-100 FAST to Command

A

C Explanation:
Does not require the use of the word FAST..Ex: L-100 Can to L-100
MMID ch 2 page 2

31
Q

Question 31:
All of the following choices correctly describe characteristics of Universal Gold 1%-3% AR-AFFF except?

A: AR-AFFF is freeze/thaw stable. If the product is frozen, upon thawing there is no performance loss.

B:When stored, AR-AFFF will remain effective for a maximum of 10 years.

C: AR-AFFF should not be mixed with any other type of foam product but can be used side-by-side with other foam products on the same fire, when necessary.

D: AR-AFFF foam can be generated with either fresh or salt water.

A

B Explanation:
Properly stored, AR-AFFF can remain effective for up to 25 years.
TB Foam 3.1

32
Q

Question 32:
During a fire, FFs face difficulties in communicating due to stream impact noise, power saw operations, opening up and ventilation noise. For Engine officers to over come these difficulties, a system of touch signals were developed. Choose the incorrect touch signal

A:If an emergency develops which requires the immediate withdrawal of the nozzle team, the officer or other member aware of the situation should indicate the fact by using 3 strong slaps on the shoulder of the members and then pull them in the direction of retreat

B: 1 or 2 slaps on the back or shoulder to open or close the nozzle

C: Tug or pull on the arm or nozzle to direct the stream

D: Pull back on shoulder, bunker coat or mask assembly to halt or stop advance

A

A Explanation:
4 strong slaps
Engine ops ch 5 page 4

33
Q

Question 33:
Wind can have a significant impact on fire operations in fireproof multiple dwellings. Of the the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The impact of the wind will be affected by the size of the window opening, the fuel load and the stage of the fire when the window failed.

B: When wind impacted fire conditions exist in a FPMD, the IC shall notify the Borough dispatcher.

C:The direction and speed of wind at the street level is a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.

D: It does not take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building. Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable.

A

C Explanation:
The direction and speed at the street level is NOT a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.
MD Add 3 2.1, 2.2 Note 2, 3.2.1

34
Q

Question 34:
The subway emergency key that opens the standard emergency exit is in what shape?

A:Triangle

B: Circle

C: square

D: rectangle

A

A Explanation:
FFP Under River Rail Ops page 5

35
Q

Question 35:
Lt. Smith was conducting a drill on ventilation and roof cutting at Old Law Tenement fires. Which statement made was incorrect?

A: Initially, approximately a 3’ x 6’ coffin cut is recommended.

B: One large, expandable hole is more efficient and safer than many smaller holes.

C:The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in two separate phases. First, cut the roof covering, then the roof boards.

D: Leave removed pieces of roof section next to openings to warn operating forces.

A

C Explanation:
The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in ONE operation. Sometimes the cut section can be lifted in one piece. When this cannot be accomplished, remove the roof covering first, then the roof boards. When many layers of roof covering are encountered, the saw blade may bind.
Lads 3 5.9.4-5.9.6

36
Q

Question 37:
At a fire on the 3rd floor of a 3-story rowframe, what is the most correct order of preference for the first-arriving Roof Firefighter to access the roof?

A: 1. Aerial Ladder. 2. Second Arriving Aerial Ladder. 3. Immediate adjoining building.

B:1. Aerial Ladder. 2. Second Arriving Aerial Ladder. 3. An adjoining building (not the immediate adjoining building).

C: 1. Aerial Ladder. 2. Immediate adjoining building. 3. Rear Fire Escape.

D: 1. Immediate adjoining building. 2. Aerial Ladder. 3. Rear Fire Escape.

A

B Explanation:
The “immediate” adjoining building should not be used for access to the roof due to the possibility of cockloft involvement.
RF 5.7 F

37
Q

Question 38:
The GasAlert Extreme CO meter is a pocket sized warning device issued to all units for monitoring CO gas in ambient air. A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given if the CO in the atmosphere exceeds _______PPM and a visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the CO in the atmosphere exceeds _______PPM.

A: 9, 35

B: 10, 36

C:35, 99

D: 36, 99

E:35, 100

A

E Explanation:
We use this meter everyday
36-100 would be during the low alarm
101 and higher would be the high alarm
Haz-Mat 4 add 1 sec 1

38
Q

At an Old Law Tenement fire, which size-up factor will determine the “severity of the life hazard and intensity of the fire?”

A:Time

B: Construction

C: Street Conditions

D:Occupan

A

D

39
Q

Question 40:
You are working in E-99 on Tuesday, November 27th, 2018 when you receive a ticket that shows: SIG 5 ERS-NC at the corner of Stone and Pitkin ave. What time of day is this?

A: 0900-1800 hrs

B: 0900-2100 hrs

C: 1800-2200 hrs

D:2300-0800 hrs

A

D Explanation:
Response to ERS boxes varies with the time of day. When a caller from an ERS box fails to make verbal contact with a dispatcher between 2300 and 0800 hours, one engine is dispatched. At other times the policy is “no contact, no response.”
Communications ch 2 page 18
Check out ABC 2-2011…This is a Group 1 Call Type, which means E-99 will be responding on a 10-20

40
Q
A