bk 14

Question 1

Question 1:
Choose the most correct solution when transmitting a lengthy message using the apparatus radio.

A:Release and depress the transmitting button at interval of one minute or less

B: Release and depress the transmitting button at interval of 45 seconds or less

C: Release and depress the transmitting button at interval of two minutes or less

D: Release and depress the transmitting button at interval of twenty seconds or less

Answer 1

a Explanation:
If the transmitting button on the apparatus radio is depressed for longer than one minute, an audible signal will alert the user that the transmission has been automatically interrupted
Communications ch 8 sec 8.4.6

Question 2

Question 2:
The FDNY Air Support Personal Flotation Device will increase the safety of members operating in a helicopter. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The High Rise Roof Chief (HRRC) and the High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) will don PFDs over their bunker gear prior to boarding the aircraft.

B:PFDs must be inflated manually by the member before exiting the aircraft.

C: The PFD is fully capable of supporting a member while wearing full Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) including a Self Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA). The PFD, when worn as directed and activated properly, will enable a firefighter to remain buoyant.

D: If the manual inflator does not inflate a PFD within 5 seconds of pulling the activation tab, the member must inflate the PFD by the oral inflator.

Answer 2

b Explanation:
PFDs must be inflated manually by the member only after exiting the aircraft.
AUC 269 Add 2 3.1.2, 3.2.1, 6

Question 3

Question 3:
During an active shooter incident the initial Rescue Task Force may be limited to seven FDNY members and NYPD force protection. The optimal team consists of 1 Fire Officer, 1 EMS Officer, 2 EMTs, 3 FFs, and 4 NYPD SRG Officer. When the Rescue Task Force enters the Warm Zone to operate, which correct formation will you expect the team to form?

A: Wide “A” formation

B:Rolling “T” formation

C: Rolling “I” formation

D: Wide “V” formation

Answer 3

b Explanation:
3 SRG members will lead the formation, and 1 will provide rear security. FDNY members will move in pairs at the center of this formation. The RTF Leader will be closest to rear security. The NYPD rear security controls the movement of the team. Members shall focus on care and removal of Red Tag patients
ERP add 3A sec 11.2.2 and 11.6

Question 4

Question 4:
At a fire operation in a Brownstone building, the 10 foot scissor ladder is a useful tool for the OV firefighter. It can be used to accomplish each of the following except?

A: In the closed position it can be used for venting.

B: Access to the 2nd floor for VEIS. Prior to VEIS, the OV firefighter shall be teamed up with another available member.

C:Access to the roof of 2 story setback.

D: Access to the 3rd floor from the roof of a setback for ventilation. Prior to entry and search, the OV firefighter shall be teamed up with another available member.

Answer 4

c Explanation:
Access to the roof of 1 story setback.
Note: It also provides a means of climbing fences.
2.6 E B

Question 5

Question 5:
When operating at a Haz-Mat incident, the first two Ladder Companies on scene will break into two teams each. The first arriving Ladder Company Team 2 will be responsible for which correct duty?

A: Define Initial Exclusion Zone

B:Assist site assessment

C: Hazard Identification

D:Information Resources

Answer 5

d Explanation:
A- Second arriving Ladder Team 2
B- Second arriving Ladder Team 1
C- First arriving Ladder Team 1
ERP Hazardous Materials Pgs - 20-22

Question 6

Question 6:
For a top floor fire in an Old Law Tenement, the first arriving OV FF should take all of the following tools except?

A: Handie-talkie

B: Flashlight

C: Halligan

D:6’ Hook

Answer 6

d Explanation:
For “top floor fires” the saw is taken in place of the hook.
Lads 3 3.2.5

Question 7

Question 7:
When the fire is on the first floor of a 2 sty Taxpayer, operations will be similar to those for 1 sty Taxpayers, but with added emphasis on all of the following except?

A: Completely ladder the second floor. Utilize portable ladders

B:Do not provide ventilation holes on the upper floor due to providing an avenue of fire extension and hindering other operations

C: If the fire originated in the cellar it may require flooding of the first floor as a last resort

D: The possibility of a large open stairway must not be overlooked if the occupancy on the second floor is a dance hall, meeting hall, etc

E:The need for an Aerial Ladder to roof for ventilation

Answer 7

b Explanation:
Ventilation holes cut on upper floors can provide venting for areas below and facilitate other operations
Taxpayers sec 9

Question 8

Question 8:
Operation of the aerial ladder “ladder pipe” may be necessary under certain circumstances. In which choice below would fire units be acting inappropriately?

A: If the street has a severe crown, check both Inclinometers. Both bubbles must be in the GREEN ZONE. If in the RED ZONE, level apparatus or, if necessary, reposition.

B:For horizontal sweep, operate the turntable slowly and smoothly. This is done by feathering the turntable controls. For more control, the throttle control switch can be disengaged; this will reduce the speed of the ladder.

C: It is of utmost importance that interior forces be removed from the area into which the ladder pipe will operate. This is the responsibility of the Incident Commander. Handi-Talkie communication facilitates this removal.

D:Even after confirmation of the withdrawal of members from the area, as a warning, sweep the stream vertically and into windows, stopping at windows with visible fire.

Answer 8

d Explanation:
Even after confirmation of the withdrawal of members from the area, as a warning, sweep the stream HORIZONTALLY across and into the windows WITHOUT hesitating or stopping.
Lads 2 7.8.1

Question 9

Question 9:
The most correct way to create a CIDS entry can be found in which choice?

A: The priority order of a CIDS entry is FD Designation, Description of Building,Occupancy

B: A single building that has an address range posted on the building (100-112 Williams ave) the company officer shall submit one CIDS entry for 100-112 Williams ave

C:When interconnected/attached buildings and building complexes have a separate house number posted on each building (20 Watkins st, 30 Watkins st, 40 Watkins st), the officer shall only submit a CIDS entry for the first and last posted address numbers of such range

D:A Non-Fireproof structure renovated or repaired using any type of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified as CL3LW

Answer 9

d Explanation:
A- FD Designation, Occupancy, Description of Building (height, dimensions, construction class)
B- The officer shall submit a CIDS entry for the first and last posted address numbers of such range. The combined number 100-112 should also be included inthe “Transmitted Data” portion of each CIDS entry
C- The Officer shall submit a separate CIDS entry for each address
Communications ch 4 pages 5-7

Question 10

Question 10:
At elevator emergencies, side exit removal can be useful under conditions of partial power loss in multi-car hoistways. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this procedure?

A: Bring the rescue car even with the stuck elevator. If an elevator mechanic is present, use his/her operating key to bring the car level with the stuck car.

B: Open the side exit in the rescue car; a key or forcible entry is required to open the panel from inside the car. Open the side exit of the stuck car which is openable by hand from the shaft side.

C:Planks of sufficient lengths (3’ or longer) should be used as a bridge between cars.

D: This procedure may not be useful where a structural beam blocks a side exit or the rescue car can’t be brought level with the stuck car.

Answer 10

c Explanation:
Planks of sufficient lengths (6’ or longer) should be used as a bridge between cars.
TB Emerg 1 3.7.2 B

Question 11

Question 11:
Which 10 code was transmitted correctly?

A:10-34-2 for a surge in system (sprinkler)

B: 10-33-2 for a smoke condition caused by a nearby working fire

C: 10-28-1 for a defective oil burner

D: 10-35-2 for an unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing

Answer 11

a Explanation:
Communications ch 8
B- 10-33-1 for a smoke condition caused by a nearby working fire
C- 10-32 for a defective oil burner
D- 10-35-2 is for an unnecessary alarm caused by construction activities

Question 12

Question 12:
Your unit receives a response for a man who has a small ring stuck on his finger. As an experienced Lieutenant, you know each of the following considerations to be correct in this scenario with the exception of which choice?

A: Use a soapy water as lubricant for ring removal

B: The finger may be cooled which will decrease swelling and allow ring removal.

C: Use or call for a ring cutter which will safely cut the ring off the finger in a short period of time - less than a minute.

D:Only the ring cutter is capable of cutting stainless steel.

Answer 12

d Explanation:
Sometimes it is preferable to use regular cutting pliers because the ring cutter will not cut stainless steel.
TB Emerg 3 17.1

Question 13

Question 13:
The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter will alarm at all of the following LCD readings except?

A: 10 percent of the LEL

B: 23.5 percent oxygen

C: 19.5 percent oxygen

D:31 percent oxygen

Answer 13

d Explanation:
Above 30 percent will display a series of three large crosses along the screen under the O2 icon
Emergency procedures add 2 MSA Altair 2.5 and 5.3

Question 14

Question 14:
A number of new requirements have come about to decrease the risk of cancer in firefighters. Of the following, which is not described correctly?

A:The firefighter protective ensemble shall only be kept at the designated storage area on the clothing rack, at the designated location on or near the apparatus for rapid donning by on-duty members, or in a member’s personal locker.

B: A supply of “No Bunker Gear” signs have been distributed to all units. These signs shall be displayed at the entrances to all living areas that adjoin any area where the wearing of bunker gear is permitted (e.g., apparatus floor).

C:Replacement or additional “No Bunker Gear” signs can be obtained by contacting Safety Command.

D: Members are prohibited from conducting a drill or packing the lifesaving rope wearing bunker gear in designated “living areas”.

Answer 14

a Explanation:
Firefighting protective ensembles shall NOT be stored in personal lockers.
AUC 310 Add 3 2.1, 3.1, 3.2, 3.4

Question 15

Question 15:
When operating in reverse gear, certain precautions should be followed. Choose the incorrect precaution.

A: When an officer is present, all operations shall be under his/her command

B:The officer should take a position in the rear of the apparatus on the chauffeur’s side in view of the chauffeur’s mirror

C: Members of the unit should be assigned to positions flanking the rear of the apparatus on each side, and directed to walk alongside the apparatus as it moves in reverse gear for the following reasons; as guides for the officer and chauffeur; to prevent apparatus from hitting vehicles or pedestrians

D: When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be brought to a full stop before backing into the intersection until the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so

Answer 15

b Explanation:
The officer should take a position along the right side (officer’s side) of the apparatus near the cab. In this position, the officer can look to the rear of the apparatus and also be in position to give immediate and required orders to the chauffeur. The windows on both the chauffeur and officer’s side of the front cab shall be lowered
Safety Bulletin 71 sec 3.3

Question 16

Question 16:
Hoseline operations can be quite complex when operating at a cockloft fire in a taxpayer. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: When fire has control of the cockloft and the need for exposure protection is critical, position the 1st Engine to utilize the deckpipe. In-line pumping will give good positioning and allow room for placement of a Tower Ladder.

B:The 1st Engine should stretch a handline into the most seriously exposed occupancy/building, depending on the life hazard and location and severity of the fire. When exposures are not an immediate problem, then the 1st line should be directed to operate onto the exterior of the fire building to control possible extension.

C: When fire has control of the cockloft, and the need for exposure protection is critical, the 2nd Engine should assist the 1st Engine with the initial line. When staffing and conditions permit, stretch a line into another seriously exposed building/occupancy and operate into the cockloft to confine and extinguish the fire. It may be advisable to skip stores in order to confine a cockloft fire.

D: The 3rd Engine should ensure the sprinkler system is supplied. Stretch a line and operate as ordered by the Incident Commander.

Answer 16

b Explanation:
When exposures are not an immediate problem, then the 1st line should be stretched into the store under the main body of fire and operated to extinguish the fire.
Txpyr 7.3.5 B

Question 17

Question 17:
Which tactic is incorrect when a burst length of hose is suspected/confirmed.

A: An indication of a burst length is when the engine officer reports there is little or no water and the ECC sees an adequate pressure reading and an increased flow showing on the outlet flowmeter with the pumps RPMs increasing automatically

B:Once a water loss due to a burst length is confirmed by any member, a “Mayday” message shall be transmitted

C: Once the location is verified and after the water has been shut down, there are 2 ways to correct a burst length. 1) If enough hose is available, remove the burst length and reattach the existing couplings. 2) Replace the burst length with a new length of hose, when there is not enough existing hose available in the stretch

D: Once the burst length has been replaced, the engine officer is notified and in turn notifies the ECC to start water. The engine officer must notify the IC and all units on the fire floor and floors above when the problem is corrected

Answer 17

b Explanation:
Burst length is an Urgent
Engine Operations ch 12 sec 3

Question 18

Question 18:
As the officer of the first-arriving TL at a Rowframe fire, you should know the correct order of preference for your Roof FF to get to the Roof is?

A:1. the basket; 2. the 1st arriving aerial ladder; 3. an adjoining building (the immediate adjoining building should not be used)

B: 1. the basket; 2. the 1st arriving aerial ladder; 3. an adjoining building (the immediate adjoining building should be used)

C: 1. the 1st arriving aerial ladder; 2. the basket; 3. an adjoining building (the immediate adjoining building should not be used)

D: 1. an adjoining building (the immediate adjoining building should be used); 2. the basket; 3. the 1st arriving aerial ladder.

Answer 18

a Explanation:
A) Note: the immediate adjoining building should not be used for access to the roof due to the possibility of cockloft involvement.
RF 5.9

Question 19

Question 19:
The NFPA 704 Diamond is a standardized system that uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. From this system, the most correct number and color for “Shock and Heat May Detonate” can be found where in the NFPA 704 Diamond?

A: 3/Red

B:3/Yellow

C: 2/Yellow

D: 3/Blue

Answer 19

b Explanation:
A- Flash Point below 100 degrees
C- Violent Chemical Change
D- Extreme Danger
Know this Diamond cold
ERP Hazardous Materials p-39

Question 20

Question 20:
Two probationary firefighters were discussing the cockloft nozzle during a busy 6X9 tour. One made an incorrect comment which can be found in which choice?

A: The discharge rate of the cockloft nozzle is approximately 125 gpm.

B:The cockloft nozzle is to be supplied by a 2 1/2” handline. The cockloft nozzle operates with the same pressure normally supplied to a 2 1/2” handline.

C: The two ½” OSTs are NOT to be removed; these tips increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet. They also facilitate the generation of steam that enables a more rapid extinguishment of fire in the confined spaces of a cockloft.

D: The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Squad Companies and Division vehicles.

Answer 20

b Explanation:
The cockloft nozzle is to be supplied by a 1 ¾” handline. The cockloft nozzle operates with the same pressure normally supplied to a 1 ¾” handline.
TB Tools 7 DS 18 1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 2.2

Question 21

Question 21:
The most correct action for you to take when you hear 3 short blasts (1 second each) during a Collapse Operation can be found in which choice?

A:Evacuate the area

B: Cease Operations/All Quiet

C: Resume Operations

D: Prepare for Roll Call

Answer 21

a Explanation:
B- 1 Long Blast (3 seconds)
C- 1 Long and 1 Short Blast
D- Doesn’t exist
Collapse Operations sec 9.2

Question 22

Question 22:
Members of a busy Bronx Ladder Company were discussing the features of large, H-type buildings. Which discussion point was not entirely correct?

A: Steel, when heated, expands and substantial elongation can occur at a fire. This elongation can cause a wall to bulge, move, or even collapse, if the steel is set within the wall.

B: Steel girders are horizontal structural members designed in an “I” shape; they are also known as “I” beams. “I” beams will transmit fire, heat or smoke horizontally into adjoining areas.

C:Steel columns are vertical structural members designed in an “H” shape; they are also known as channel rails. When located in the inner framework of a building, they may extend from the cellar up to the top floor. The space between the enclosing wood framework and column often contains firestopping which prevents heat and smoke from reaching the top floor.

D: Steel, when heated to higher temperatures during a fire, may fail. Floor beams supported by such failing steel will fall to the floor below.

9.2

Answer 22

c Explanation:
When located in the inner framework of a building, they may extend from the FIRST FLOOR up into the ROOF SPACE or COCKLOFT AREA. The space between the enclosing wood framework and column leads up into the cockloft and many times SPREADS fire, heat or smoke to this roof space.
MDs 5.2.3

Question 23

Question 23:
Prior to the arrival of the FAST Unit, a Safety Team must be established in order to comply with OSHA standards. Which members make up the Safety Team if one 5 FF Ladder and one 4 FF Engine are the only units on scene?

A: Control FF and OV FF

B: Backup FF and LCC FF

C: Backup FF and Control FF

D:Control FF and LCC FF

Answer 23

d Explanation:
MMID ch 1 page-2

Question 24

Question 24:
A knowledgeable officer should be familiar with the procedure for dealing with lost or damaged NYCHA entry and elevator machinery room keys. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: If the key FOB or elevator machinery room key is lost or damaged, the officer on duty shall call the 24-hour NYCHA Emergency number to obtain new keys.

B: If loss or damage involves the key FOB, the serial number must be provided to NYCHA when contacting that agency. NYCHA will deactivate the key FOB and issue a new one.

C: The officer on duty shall record the particulars in the company journal and enter the new key FOB serial number in the Office Record Journal when received (and the key placed on the apparatus.)

D:Lost Property Reports (FS112s) are required for lost or damaged key FOBs or elevator keys.

Explanation:

Answer 24

d Explanation:
Lost Property Reports (FS112s) are NOT required for lost or damaged key FOBs or elevator keys.
Note: A NYCHA employee will deliver the key FOB/elevator machinery room key to the unit’s quarters in 1-2 business days.
MD Add 4 3.2

Question 25

Question 25:
When it comes to Loft buildings, which definition is incorrect?

A:Synthetic Walls are partition walls that separate living space between apartment units

B:Quoins are used by architects to give the impression of strength and firmness to the outline of the building . They provide FFs with a visual contrasting feature to neighboring buildings on Exposures 2 and 4 allowing members to accurately discern the width of the fire building

C: Wrought-Iron Girders unlike cast-iron, which is strong in compression but weak in tension, wrought-iron is equally strong in compression and tension making it a logical substitute in the mid-19th century for horizontal structural elements

D: Sawtooth Roofs are roofs that will impose unique obstacles to FFs regarding roof access, egress, extinguishment, and vertical ventilation. maneuvering up and over the peaks and valleys of sawtooth roofs will be difficult at best, even under non-fire conditions. Mill sawtooths are typically of wood truss design. A steel cable, however, may be substituted for the bottom chord. Sawtooth roofs of steel and/or reinforced concrete construction can also be found in fireproof lofts

Answer 25

a Explanation:
Synthetic Walls are low level windows that provide excellent openings for access, egress, ventilation, and hose stream/foam delivery. Synthetic walls may be covered with cast-iron plating, metal grilling, masonry or plywood for security reasons
Lofts pages 15 and 17

Question 26

Question 26:
Transitioning from an interior to exterior attack is a critical duty of the Incident Commander, when necessary. Which of the following is incorrect?

A: Consider the need to utilize multiple routes when members are withdrawing from a structure. All members may not need to utilize the interior stairs if there are other horizontal and vertical exits available.

B: Coordinate Ladder, Rescue and Squad evacuation with the withdrawal of Engine Companies operating handlines.

C:The withdrawal shall always be under control of a single IC and never delegated.

D: Contact the Roof Sector Supervisor to ensure members on the roof are in the process of withdrawing. If there is no Roof Sector Supervisor assigned, then the IC should make contact with other member(s) operating on the roof to ensure they are withdrawing.

Answer 26

c Explanation:
The withdrawal of specific sectors may be delegated to a Sector Chief, (e.g. Roof Sector Supervisor, Exposure 2 Sector Supervisor, etc.). The IC will confirm the Sectors are transitioning to an exterior attack.
CC Ch 4 2.4

Question 27

Question 27:
All of the following may indicate a wind impacted fire except?

A:Fire and smoke venting outwards and upwards from a building

B: Smoke and fire venting downward from a building

C: Smoke and fire venting horizontally from a building

D: Smoke and fire pulsing form a building

Answer 27

a Explanation:
A- Fire and smoke SHOULD be venting outwards and upwards from a building
Any unusual ventilation profile must be immediately communicated to the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented and the IC.
Firefighting Procedures Ventilation sec 4.1

Question 28

Question 28:
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding Incident Command System (ICS) Vests?

A:ICS Vests are made of a durable material with reflective stripes and shall be worn both outside and within the fire building.

B:Fire members equipped with ICS Vests shall not be required to wear bunker coats unless the Incident Commander deems they are required for safety or weather conditions.

C: There are four sets of ICS Vests. Vest sets are stored in FDNY gear bags and will be carried by the two Field Communications Units and the two Mobile Command Centers.

D: It will be the responsibility of the Incident Commander to have ICS Vests issued and worn as needed.

Answer 28

a Explanation:
ICS Vests are made of a durable material with reflective stripes. They are not rated for structural firefighting operations and shall not be worn within any fire building.
ICS Ch 2 Add 1 2.1, 2.2, 3.1.1, 4.1

Question 29

Question 29:
While responding to an incident, the only time an Officer shall converse with a chauffeur include all of the following except?

A: Regulate the speed of apparatus

B: Determine the route to be taken

C: Relay information received by radio

D:Weather conditions

Answer 29

d Explanation:
Regulations ch 11 sec 11.1.13

Question 30

Question 30:
Deputy Chief Smith stopped by a Staten Island firehouse for drill on private dwelling operations. Testing the members of this company following the drill, he wanted them to identify which incorrect comment?

A:Due to the number of firefighters that may be needed for portable ladder rescue and the number of sleeping areas that may have to be entered and searched, it is good practice to special call an additional Engine and Ladder Company for a fire in a Queen Anne building.

B: Some private dwellings originally built as one family dwellings have been modified to include separate apartments and are occupied by more than one family. Others were built as two family dwellings. Because of their status as two family dwellings, two separate living areas will be found and in most cases, the first and second floors are occupied by separate families with bedrooms on both floors.

C:In a two family private dwelling, access to the second floor is via an enclosed stairway. Because the stairs to the second floor are enclosed, there will not be the initial rapid buildup of smoke on the second floor.

D: It is critical at cellar fires that the first Ladder inside team operate in a manner that supports the first hoseline in quickly applying water on the fire. Often, the cellar stair is narrow, confined and problematic for Ladder members to descend without the protection of a hoseline.

Answer 30

a Explanation:
Due to the number of firefighters that may be needed for portable ladder rescue and the number of sleeping areas that may have to be entered and searched, it is good practice to special call an additional LADDER Company for a fire in a Queen Anne building.
PD Ch 4 8.4, 9.1, 10.2 Note

Question 31

Question 31:
During an Under River Rail operation, which is the primary method for moving patients and equipment?

A: Rescue Train

B: Skeds

C:Rail Carts

D: Tarpaulins

Answer 31

c Explanation:
Under River Rail Operations sec 7.3.3

Question 32

BackListNext

Question 32:
The following equipment shall be assembled in readiness and placed on company apparatus when snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A or B established. Which piece of equipment is listed incorrectly?

A:At least 6 extra lengths of 1 3/4” hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus.

B: 2 shovels and containers of salt and/or sand.

C: Vehicle recovery strap with shackle and tire chains, spare links and link tool.

D: Specialized hydrant connection set-up as determined by individual commanding officers.

Answer 32

a Explanation:
At least 6 extra lengths of 2 ½” hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus.
Acronym: Light Snow Still Causes Vicious Hazards
Lengths (6) of 2 1/2”
Shovels (2)
Salt/sand
Chains/links/link tool
Vehicle Recovery Strap
Hydrant connection
AUC 200 3.3.3 D

Question 33

Question 33:
Which unit is responsible for shutting down the utilities at a Private Dwelling fire?

A: 1st arriving Ladder Company

B:2nd arriving Ladder Company

C: Additional called Ladder Company

D: Unit designated by the IC

Answer 33

b

Question 34

Question 34:
Upon notification of an alleged incident of harassment, discrimination and/or retaliation of any kind by a member, the Officer on Duty (Supervisor) is required to take a number of actions. Which action below is incorrect?

A: Explain that complaints will be heard and issues dealt within a timely, sensitive, confidential, but firm manner.

B: Notify the EEO Officer; strict confidentiality is to be maintained. After a conference with the EEO Officer, the alleged incident will be dealt with on a need-to-know basis.

C:Complete a Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report submitted directly to the EEO Officer with intermediate endorsements. No copies shall be retained by the Officer on Duty.

D:Interrogations or investigations of alleged incident(s) shall not be initiated, except if requested by the EEO Officer or Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS.)

Answer 34

c Explanation:
Complete a Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report submitted directly to the EEO Officer in a sealed envelope WITHOUT intermediate endorsements. No copies shall be retained by the Officer on Duty.
TB EEO 7.2

Question 35

Question 35:
If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only for a know life hazard, not for standard and rescue activity. A known life hazard is defined as all of the following except?

A: A victim can be seen by the rescuer

B: A victim can be heard by the rescuer

C: A member has information from a credible source indicating the location of the life hazard

D:A member suspects a known life hazard due to the time of night and area to be searched (bedroom area)

Answer 35

d Explanation:
A person at the scene indicating the location of the life hazard
MMID ch 1 sec 1.4

Question 36

Question 36:

At fires in Places of Worship, the Tower Ladder should be positioned to cover ___ sides of the building and provide ventilation of the roof and _____.

A: all, rose window

B: all, steeple

C:two, rose window

D: two, steeple

Answer 36

c Explanation:
TL Ch 2 sec 2.1.8

Question 37

Question 37:
The Water Safety Kit is primarily used for shore based waterfront operations. Companies with Water Safety Kits can operate from the shore alone as well as assist Water Rescue and SCUBA trained companies when on scene. The correct length of rope that is within the “Throw bag” in the Water Safety Kit can be found in which choice?

A: 50 feet

B:75 feet

C: 100 feet

D:125 feet

Answer 37

b Explanation:
75 feet of buoyant nylon rope contained within a “Throw Bag”
Emergency Procedures Water Rescue 2 sec 3.6.2

Question 38

Question 38:
Exterior Insulation Finish Systems (EIFS) offer many challenges to the fire service; most specifically the ability to apply water to hard-to-reach locations. Of the following appliances, which has the highest vertical reach?

A: Multiversal Nozzle

B:Tower Ladder Monitor

C:Satellite Monitor

D: Engine Deck Gun

Answer 38

b Tower Ladder Monitor - 135’
Satellite Monitor - 130’
Engine Deck Gun - 130’
Multiversal Nozzle - 110’
AUC 362 3.1

Question 39

Question 39:
HTs /Cell phones and Apparatus, Post, and Marine radios shall not be used within how many feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosives magazines, or areas where blasting operations are in progress?

A: 25 feet for HTs/Cell phones and 50 feet for Apparatus, Post, and Marine Radios

B: 50 feet for HTs/Cell phones and 100 feet for Apparatus, Post, and Marine Radios

C: 100 feet for HTs/Cell phones and 200 feet for Apparatus, Post, and Marine Radios

D:150 feet for HTs/Cell phones and 300 feet for Apparatus, Post, and Marine Radios

Answer 39

d Explanation:
Communications ch 8 sec 8.4.5
In addition, HTs shall not be operated in a building in which police personnel are searching for an explosive device….2nd paragraph in 8.4.5

Question 40

Question 40:
A visual inspection of portable ladders shall be made _______, and also after use, to determine their condition and serviceability. Company commanders shall cause a thorough inspection of portable ladders _______.

A: Daily; weekly

B: Weekly; annually

C: Monthly; annually

D:weekly; monthly

Answer 40

d Explanation:
Lads 1 13.2