bk 12 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
In the process of mechanically ventilating subsurface structures, tactics may be employed by Utility Companies to influence the migration of sub-surface leaks by creating negative pressure between the leak and the building at risk, allowing natural gas to vent to the atmosphere in an ignition-free area. This tactic may be useful in slowing gas migration towards building basements/cellars that may be at risk and are difficult to vent and/or evacuate such as large multiple dwellings, assisted living housing, hospitals, etc. Which choice below contains incorrect information?

A:Once on scene, Utility Company personnel are responsible for mechanically ventilating outdoor, sub-surface structures. Fire Department units shall not assist in this procedure.

B: Both Con Edison Gas and National Grid have mechanical air movers that can exhaust air from sewers, manholes and subsoils via bar holes. The air movers use construction crew truck compressors to blow air through a venturi, creating a negative pressure.

C: Con Edison Gas has an intrinsically safe electric fan with a collapsible duct that can be used to exhaust air from sewers and manholes.

D:Tactics may also be employed to assist in venting by pulling air back through a subsurface structure to clear a building of natural gas so the building can be re-evaluated following evacuation. Extreme caution should be used before re-entering buildings that are in the potential blast zone.

A

a Explanation:
In consultation with the Utility Company, the IC MAY deploy units to assist Utility Company personnel in mechanical ventilation of outdoor, sub-surface structures.
EP Gas 9.2.4 4

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2
Q

Question 2:
The Incident Commander has many things to consider at a Major Gas Emergency. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The Incident Commander should define the extent of the emergency; this is especially true for sub-surface leaks, as well as excavation accidents due to the potential for multiple leaks as a result of pipe movement.

B: Units should be deployed as necessary and may be used for, but not limited to, determining the extent of gas migration, evacuation, and/or mitigation (venting, power removal, etc.)

C: The Gas Utility Company should be contacted by the IC to define the underground infrastructure for subsurface leaks and determine any additional exposures that may be affected. This contact can be made through the Utility Company representative on the scene or by contacting the Utility Company directly from the Battalion/Division cellular phone.

D:The Utility Company’s Gas Emergency Control Center may be contacted for information as to utility runs (gas, electric and sewer) to discern where natural gas may be migrating. This may help establish priority of reconnaissance for units.

A

d Explanation:
The Utility Company’s Gas Emergency Control Center may be contacted for information as to utility runs (GAS and ELECTRIC) to discern where natural gas may be migrating. This may help establish priority of reconnaissance for units. If there are indications that natural gas is migrating through the SEWER W, NYCEM or DEP can provide information as to the run of the sewers in the area. If there are indications that natural gas is migrating via subsurface infrastructure (electric or sewer lines), buildings served by those lines should be prioritized for rapid evacuation.
EP Gas 10 1

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3
Q

Question 3:
As soon as possible after determining a Major Gas Emergency is present, boundaries of the affected area should be established. Boundaries should be relayed to all members using recognizable physical features so that the extent of the boundaries are understood. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy as it pertains to rapid evacuation and the potential blast zone?

A: As soon as conditions permit, the boundary should be marked with “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape. The extent of the boundaries should be relayed over the Department Radio for the benefit of units responding in as well as for relay to the Utility Company.

B: Units should be made aware of the potential blast zone when reporting in to the Command Post or Staging Area. Any unit assigned to operate in or near the potential blast zone should be reminded periodically of its location and boundaries by the IC.

C: Tasks should be conducted early on and initiated under the IC, usually the first arriving Battalion Chief (BC). In accordance with the anticipated life hazard, units should be assigned to initiate the rapid evacuation of occupants from within the potential blast zone.

D:In lieu of preliminary and progress reports, the IC should relay any critical information directly to the Utility Company’s Control Center via cell phone.

A

d Explanation:
In ADDITION to preliminary and progress reports, the IC should relay any critical information to the dispatcher. In ADDITION, prior to the arrival of the Utility Company on scene, the IC may contact the Utility Company’s Control Center via cell phone.
EP Gas 10 2

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4
Q

Which tactic below is incorrect when it comes to operations at major gas emergencies?

A:At these incidents, it is required that only Chief Officers be designated the Staging Area Manager; in no case shall a company officer be assigned this critical position.

B: Buildings may be evacuated, vented and ignition sources removed, depending on conditions, either due to the presence of natural gas or as a precaution. It is not uncommon for gas to migrate into several exposures; gas can travel far beneath the surface and enter some buildings while bypassing others.

C: Resources such as the Haz-Mat Battalion, Rescue Battalion, Haz-Mat Company 1, Haz-Mat Technician Units and Rescue Companies should be used to the fullest extent when necessary. These units will inform the IC as to how they can best be used and as they report in, should be apprised of conditions, objectives and strategies.

D: Members should access exposures to define the extent of gas migration. It is expected that units not used for rapid evacuation will perform additional evacuation as well as reconnaissance and metering of an affected structure’s points of entry and sewer traps

A

a The OFFICER at the Staging Area will be the Staging Area Manager until relieved by an assigned Chief Officer designated the Staging Area Manager. The establishment of a Staging Area is necessary to aid in command and control due to the risks and the potential of an extensive operational area.
EP Gas 10 2, 10.1 5, 11

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5
Q

Question 5:
Chief duties at Major Gas Emergencies are critical to the overall operation. Which choice below does not contain correct information?

A: The first arriving BC will be the Incident Commander and the second arriving BC will take a position as determined by the Incident Commander. The second arriving BC should be assigned as needed and may be assigned to supervise a difficult area or task, allowing the IC to focus on strategy and evaluate the overall operation.

B: Most of the work required at Major Gas Emergencies should be accomplished by task forces or strike teams whose formation and assignment are established by the IC with subject matter expert input. The second arriving BC may be positioned where concern is greatest or coordination between groups and teams is essential.

C: The IC should use the Safety Battalion to assist in defining the potential blast zone and keep all members who are not involved in direct life-saving operations out. This should continue throughout the operation as boundaries can easily change and continuous monitoring should take place outside of the potential blast zone to ensure gas does not migrate unexpectedly and adversely change the situation.

D:The Safety Battalion may be utilized to assist in planning of strategy as well as function as a liaison with Utility Companies. The Safety Battalion may work closely with other agencies to address technical issues and problems.

A

d Explanation:
The HAZ-MAT BATTALION may be utilized to assist in planning of strategy as well as function as a liaison with Utility Companies. The HAZ-MAT BATTALION may work closely with other agencies to address technical issues and problems.
D) Note: Some considerations this chief should address include:
Strategy and tactics; with estimated time frames, reconnaissance pertaining to pipe runs/types, valve locations/types, sewer runs, etc.
Compare meter reading levels and locations to re-evaluate the condition, boundaries of the leak and potential blast zone.
EP Gas 10.1

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6
Q

Question 6:
First responders to gas leaks should know that Con Edison Gas, Con Edison Electric, National Grid, and PSEGLI (Rockaways, electric service) will dispatch crews based on the number and nature of calls, availability of crews and the type of work crews are already dedicated to. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Early contact through the dispatcher, and directly with the Utility Company using plain speak, will facilitate a coordinated response at gas emergencies.

B: The IC should notify the dispatcher of any information critical to the ongoing operation. In addition, prior to the arrival of the Utility Company on scene, direct contact with the Utility Company is available to the IC via cell phone; Chiefs may call the Utility Company directly.

C: Utility Company phone numbers should be entered into Battalion and Division cellular phones or may be obtained from the dispatcher or NYCEM.

D:It is important to specify the need for a construction crew if the operation may require work below ground. If a curb valve/service valve fails on a low pressure system, a construction crew will be of no help and should not be requested.

A

d Explanation:
It is important to specify the need for a construction crew if the operation may require work below ground. If a curb valve/service valve fails on a low pressure system, a construction crew WILL be required.
EP Gas 11 2

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7
Q

Question 7:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the Safety Battalion at a Major Gas Emergency?

A: Upon arrival of the Safety Battalion, the IC should use this chief to assist in defining the potential blast zone and keep all members who are not involved in direct life-saving operations out. This should continue throughout the operation as boundaries can easily change.

B: Continuous monitoring should take place outside of the potential blast zone to ensure gas does not migrate unexpectedly and adversely change the situation.

C:The Safety Battalion should advise the IC as to the extent of the potential blast zone, while making sure it is properly marked off and that all units and the dispatcher are notified as to the extent of the area. The Safety Battalion should not remain at this assignment but should be designated a liaison and work closely with Utility Companies.

D: The Safety Battalion should contact members to acquire gas meter readings/locations to assist in defining the extent of the potential blast zone. As mitigation progresses, the exclusion zone should get smaller

A

c Explanation:
The Safety Battalion should advise the IC as to the extent of the potential blast zone, while making sure it is properly marked off and that all units and the dispatcher are notified as to the extent of the area. The Safety Battalion SHOULD REMAIN at this assignment throughout the operation.
EP Gas 10.1 4

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8
Q

Question 8:
In order to operate effectively, it is important that Department members have an understanding of Utility Company capabilities and terminology. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Both Con Edison Gas and National Grid use two types of single resource crews; one is capable of assessing and working on natural gas pipe above ground, and one is in charge of natural gas pipe below ground.

B:Con Edison Gas’ above-ground branch crews are called “Gas Construction” crews. Below-ground branch crews for Con Edison Gas are called “Gas Distribution Services” crews.

C: National Grid’s above-ground branch crews are called “Customer Meter Service” crews. National Grid’s below-ground branch crews are called “Gas Field Operations” crews.

D: Calling either Utility Company for a “construction crew” should be sufficient to get a crew capable of working on pipe below-ground.

A

b Explanation:
Con Edison Gas’ above-ground branch crews are called “GAS DISTRIBUTION SERVICES” or “GDS” crews. Below-ground branch crews for Con Edison Gas are called “GAS CONSTRUCTION” crews.
EP Gas 11 2

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9
Q

Question 9:
A newly promoted Battalion Chief discussing inter-agency operations at gas emergencies made one incorrect comment which can be found in which choice?

A: The IC’s use of street management will facilitate getting the Utility Company’s equipment and personnel to the point of operation.

B: Utility Company construction crews typically take longer to respond than other Utility Company personnel. There are less of them and they are often already engaged in excavation and/or large scale repair/installation work.

C: Utility Company crews are managed and coordinated by supervisors who in turn report to their control centers to update conditions, request resources and retrieve technical data on pipe runs, valve types and locations.

D:At these operations, task forces shall only consist of Fire Department personnel; Utility Company personnel are not familiar with the Incident Command System and shall not be included in Fire Department task forces.

A

d Explanation:
Task forces will likely consist of MIXED CREWS of FDNY members with one member from the Utility Company, to perform reconnaissance, evacuation and venting, as well as locating valves, pulling manhole covers, etc.
EP Gas 11 2

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10
Q

Question 10:
Two BCs discussing proper strategy and tactics at gas emergencies were able to identify which incorrect comment?

A: Similar to the FDNY, Utility Companies will assign more resources and build an Incident Command System based on their understanding of the incident and potential for harm and disruption of service.

B: The first Utility Company supervisor on the scene will be involved in determining the scope of the emergency, directing resources and reporting to the control center. It is likely the initial Utility Company supervisor will be moving about the incident as he/she tries to evaluate conditions and supervise workers; this creates difficulty in establishing contact early on.

C:Any unit observing the arrival of the first-on-scene Utility Company crew or supervisor should report the arrival to the dispatcher and inform the Utility Company member to remain at the Utility Company vehicle.

D: At these incidents, the NYPD can be used to assist in evacuation, control vehicle and pedestrian traffic, and request a tow or search the registration record of parked vehicles to expedite the removal of such vehicles and create access for Utility Company crews.

A

c Explanation:
Any unit observing the arrival of the first-on-scene Utility Company crew or supervisor should report the arrival to the IC and inform the Utility Company member to report to the FDNY IC.
EP Gas 11 2,4

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11
Q

Question 11:
New York City Emergency Management (NYCEM) can be of great assistance during a gas emergency. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding NYCEM?

A: NYCEM can activate and coordinate resources from various agencies and parties. NYCEM personnel can often identify which person or agency (with the proper authority) to contact.

B: NYCEM can facilitate requests for rapid NYPD response to assist in pedestrian and vehicle traffic control.

C:NYCEM or the Gas Utility Companies can retrieve information as to the run of underground infrastructure, specifically water and sewer lines which both agencies will have mapped.

D: NYCEM can assist with the management of long-term operations such as disruption of street access, relocations of occupants, etc. NYCEM may be contacted through the dispatcher and by calling NYCEM Watch Command.

A

c Explanation:
NYCEM can retrieve information as to the run of underground infrastructure, specifically water and sewer lines which Gas Utility Companies WILL NOT have mapped.
EP Gas 11 3

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12
Q

Question 12:
Con Edison Gas routinely monitors their Gas Transmission System for the potential need of repair work and the Department plays a key role in safety during this process. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?

A: This is considered high hazard repair work due to the high pressure gas which can range between 240-420 psig in Manhattan, Queens and the Bronx.

B:Con Ed will notify the borough dispatcher when repair work is to be performed. Upon this notification, the borough dispatcher will assign the nearest available Battalion and HMTU.

C: When assigned, units shall respond in non-emergency mode to the incident location. The Con Ed representative will be at the location to meet the responding units for familiarization and to review aspects of the planned repair work.

D: Upon completion of the familiarization, the Battalion Chief shall notify the Deputy Chief and 1st alarm companies of the location and relevant aspects of the planned repair work. If deemed necessary, the Battalion Chief shall schedule units for additional familiarization visits.

A

b xplanation:
Con Ed will notify the borough dispatcher when repair work is to be performed. Upon this notification, the borough dispatcher will assign the nearest available Battalion AND Engine or Ladder company for an administrative assignment.
EP Gas Add 1 1.1-2.2

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13
Q

xplanation:
Con Ed will notify the borough dispatcher when repair work is to be performed. Upon this notification, the borough dispatcher will assign the nearest available Battalion AND Engine or Ladder company for an administrative assignment.
EP Gas Add 1 1.1-2.2

A

b Explanation:
Safety precautions that are being implemented.
EP Gas Add 1 2.1

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14
Q

Question 14:
The SENSIT TKX Combustible Gas Detector is a solid-state electronic, combustible gas detector. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: It is carried by Battalions, Haz-Mat Co. 1, HMTU, Rescue and Ladder Companies and provides a “Geiger Counter” like ticking sound that increases in frequency when a gas source as low as 20 ppm of Methane is detected.

B:It may be used in almost any situation where combustible gas, vapor, or residues need to be located. It can detect a number of different gases as well as Carbon Monoxide.

C: A recharge (red LED) of the Detector takes 2 to 5 hours and the LED will illuminate green to indicate a fully charged battery. A fully charged battery supplies approximately 20 hours of continuous use.

D: If the LED blinks green or does not illuminate, the battery needs to be recharged. If recharging does not produce a solid green LED after 5 hours notify Haz-Mat Operations.

A

b :
The Detector will NOT detect Carbon Monoxide.
EP Gas Add 5 1-3

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15
Q

Question 15:
A company officer discussing the use of the Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector made an incorrect comment in which choice?

A:This Detector shall be used when surveying for leaks. The Altair Meter shall only be used when a leak has been found using the Sensit TKX Detector.

B: An increase in the ticking sound and flashing of the red LED indicates that you are approaching a leak. A decrease in both the ticking sound and the flashing red LED indicates that you are moving away from the leak.

C: When placed out-of-service, the on-duty officer shall call Haz-Mat Operations and request a replacement. Haz-Mat Operations shall arrange for the pick-up of the out-of-service meter and the issuing of a replacement.

D: Detectors must be stored in the carrying case when not in use to prevent damage. The probe is extremely susceptible to damage when improperly stored.

A

a Explanation:
This Detector must be used IN CONJUNCTION with the Altair Meter when surveying for leaks.
C) Note: Meters shall NOT be sent through the bag. Replacement of the Lithum Ion Battery Pack is to be done by Haz-Mat Operations personnel ONLY.
EP Gas Add 5 4,5

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16
Q

Question 17:

Two Company Officers conducting a drill on the proper use of the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter had to address which incorrect comment made by a probationary firefighter?

A: In fresh air, the normal sensor readings on the LCD should read: LEL - 0.0% and O2 - 20.8%

B:The Meter will alarm at: LEL - 20.0%, O2 - 26.5% (Oxygen enriched) and O2 - 19.5% (Oxygen deficient).

C: After alarm activation consider using an additional meter to verify readings. To silence alarms press the Reset button (right arrow or ^).

D: Meters shall be stored on the apparatus and charged utilizing the charger adapter provided. Should the apparatus charger malfunction, the unit can be charged in quarters utilizing the 110 volt charging adapter.

A

b Explanation:
The Meter will alarm at: LEL - 10.0%, O2 - 23.5% (Oxygen enriched) and O2 - 19.5% (Oxygen deficient).
EP Gas Add 2 2.4 - 2.7

17
Q

Question 18:

A knowledgeable officer should know which point below to be incorrect regarding the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter?

A: When the Meter is out of service, the on-duty officer shall call Haz-Mat Operations and request a replacement.

B: Haz-Mat Operations shall arrange for pick-up of the out-of-service meter and issuance of a replacement. Meters shall not be sent through the bag.

C:Replacement meters shall be issued by Haz Mat Operations on a one-for-one basis with the replacement meter becoming the unit’s permanent meter. Units shall place unit numbers on the meter using paint or indelible ink.

D: Calibration dates are displayed on the LCD screen during warm-up operation. Meters will be re-calibrated based on a schedule established by Haz Mat Operations.

A

c Explanation:
Replacement meters shall be issued by Haz Mat Operations on a one-for-one basis with the replacement meter becoming the unit’s permanent meter. Units shall NOT place identifying markings on the meter.
EP Gas Add 2 3.1, 3.2

18
Q

Question 19:

Readings displayed on the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter are critical to the decision-making process of the IC and company officers. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: Normal air readings should display 0.0% LEL on the meter LCD.

B:When the atmosphere is above 10% LEL, the LCD symbol “+++” will be displayed under the COMB/EX icon. This is an extremely dangerous atmosphere that is indicative of a potentially explosive environment.

C: When LEL readings exceed 100%, the Meter will enter into a Lock Alarm State which causes the meter to shut down the LEL sensor and no longer read natural gas levels.

D: To reset the sensor from the Lock Alarm State, the meter must be removed to fresh air and turned off then turned back on.

A

b Explanation:
When the atmosphere is above 100% LEL, the LCD symbol “XXX” will be displayed under the COMB/EX icon. This is an extremely dangerous atmosphere that is indicative of a potentially explosive environment.
EP Gas Add 2 4.1, 4.2

19
Q

Question 20:

The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter’s oxygen sensor was included on the Meter because the LEL sensor requires oxygen to function properly. In an oxygen deficient atmosphere the LEL sensors will not be accurate. Of the following choices, a knowledgeable company officer should know which to be incorrect?

A: The normal oxygen reading on the meter is 20.8% and the low oxygen level alarm is set at 19.5%. Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, members shall don their SCBA facepiece and notify the Incident Commander of abnormal oxygen readings on the Altair Meter.

B: Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, notify the dispatcher of conditions, and have the utility company respond and request an ETA. The oxygen in the atmosphere is being displaced and the LEL readings may not be accurate.

C: The high oxygen sensor will alarm at 23.5%. Oxygen enriched atmospheres decrease flash points of combustibles and increases the chance of ignition of material not normally thought of as an ignition hazard.

D:“+++” along the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 23.5% oxygen. This is an extremely dangerous condition since the actual readings are not known. Incident commanders shall take necessary action to address the abnormal condition and initiate a Haz Mat response.

A

d Explanation:
“+++” along the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 30% oxygen. This is an extremely dangerous condition since the actual readings are not known. Incident commanders shall take necessary action to address the abnormal condition and initiate a Haz Mat response.
EP Gas Add 2 5.1 - 5.3

20
Q

Question 21:
Of the four types of chemical agents of concern to First Responders, which chemical agent has a distinctive odor of grass?

A: Nerve agents

B: Blister agents

C: Blood agents

D:Choking agents

A

d Explanation:
A- Odor of Fruit
B- Odor of Garlic
C- Odor of Burnt Almonds
D- Correct…Odor of Chlorine or Grass
ERP add 2 sec 2

21
Q

Question 22:
Choose the most correct 10 code from the choices listed below.

A:Transmit a 10-75 for a fire venting out of a 1st floor window and state the following information: 1) Location of fire (floor), 2) Type of building (occupancy) 3) Dimensions of building (e.g. 100x100)

B: Transmit a 10-76 for fire visible out of a window on the 30th floor in a High-Rise office building

C: Transmit a 10-75 for heavy smoke on numerous floors in a High-Rise Fire Proof Multiple Dwelling due to a compactor fire

D:Transmit the 10-84 before the reported location on a highway box if units encounter what appears to be the reported incident

A

d Explanation:
A- 1) Location of fire (What floor), 2) Height of Building (How many stories), 3) Type of building (What kind of occupancy)….. Communications ch 8 page 18
B- 2nd alarm…..High-Rise Office sec 5.2.2
C- 10-77…Multiple Dwellings sec 6.6.2
D- Correct….Communications ch 8 page 22 note
****When units are dispatched to reported non-structural incidents in large open areas such as parkways, public parks, railroad tracks, etc., further investigation may be required when the incident is not at the reported location. In these instances the 10-84 shall be transmitted immediately upon arrival at the reported location, and the dispatcher shall be notified that further investigation is taking place
Communications ch 8 page 22 note

22
Q

Question 23:
Ticket reads as follows: E200, E300, E400, E500, L200, TL300, L700F, B300, B400, D2 CIDS: RETAIL STORE 1 STY 40X80 CL3 PART OF TAXPAYER WITH 10 STORES-COMMON CELLAR & COCKLOFT-COCKLOFT-DRY PIPE SPKR CELLARS. All members are on scene and in position. The fire is in the middle store extending into the cockloft on arrival. A MAYDAY has been given for a partial wall collapse due to a backdraft, and a Trench Cut is underway. From the information provided above, choose the most correct position/tool assignment/tactic used at this fire.

A: Prior to the backdraft, members reported seeing Dirty Orange smoke, which is a warning sign of a potential backdraft

B: E300 ensured the sprinkler system was supplied

C: After positioning apparatus for use, TL300 LCC joined the the Roof FFs and started to perform a trench cut, which is at least 3 feet wide and is made between two exterior walls or other fire stops

D:After the Mayday, the members operating on the roof affected by the partial wall collapse include L200 and TL300 Roof FFs, who both had saws, L200 LCC, and TL300 OV as directed by his officer

A

d Explanation:
A- Colors of smoke that can warn FFs of a backdraft include Dense Black, Dirty Brown, Yellow Brown, and Gray yellow…..Taxpayers sec 4.4
B- E400 ensures this is done (3rd Engine) Taxpayers sec 7.3.5.B.3
C- 2nd due LCC sets up apparatus, and if no other assignment is given, then he joins the Inside Team…..Taxpayers sec 5.6 and page 58
D- Cockloft fire Both Roof FFs, 1st LCC, and 2nd OV as directed…..Taxpayers pages 56-58

23
Q

Question 24:
You are working in L200 during the 6x9 tour when you receive a ticket to respond as the FAST Unit for a working fire in a 1 sty 100x100 Factory. You are on scene and have just been dispatched to locate a missing member of E100. Upon arrival of the missing member there are four priorities for you to consider, Choose the incorrect priority.

A: Fire/Environment

B: Air

C: Immediate medical care, if required and possible

D:Condition of missing members harness

A

d Explanation:
Removal
Additional considerations: ID of member, Packaging if required
MMID ch 3 sec 4.1

24
Q

Question 25:
Ticket reads as follows: E400, E500, E600, E700, TL100, L200, L300F, B200, B300, D4. CIDS; MD 4 STY 25X60 CL3 OLT TYPE ROWFRAME- FRONT & REAR FIRE ESCAPE- ACCESS TO CELLAR FROM INTERIOR. Fire is on the top floor in rear of building. All FFs are in position according to ticket. From the list below, choose the most correct position/tool assignment/tactic used at this fire.

A:L200 inside team will VEIS the adjoining apt and check cockloft for extension

B: TL100 OV proceeded to the Roof with saw and halligan hook

C: First priority to roof for TL100 Roof FF will be via L200 Aerial

D: L200 Can FF took two 6’ hooks to top floor of the most severely threatened exposure

A

a Explanation:
A- Rowframes 5.6.5
B- Saw and Halligan tool…..Rowframes bottom of p-36
C- Order of preference to roof is when TL on scene is the basket, 2nd arriving Aerial, the Adjoining building…..2 Aerial on scene then its Aerial Ladder, 2nd Aerial Ladder, Adjoining building ….Rowframes p-14-15 and page 22
D- 2nd Can FF does this in a Brownstone type RF… Rowframes sec 5.8.1

25
Q

Question 26:
You are working in E100 during the 9x6 tour when the officer of L200 quartered in the same house decided to give a drill on EFAS. The officer made the following four statements in reference to EFAS. He was incorrect in which statement?

A: EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1.

B: EFAS has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 Channels, including UTAC and NYMAC channels

C: When assigning a member a Verbal Mayday, the member’s HT wattage is not increased to five watts, and the member does not receive the Emergency Alert tone “Beacon”

D:EFAS system can only handle up to two Emergency Alert transmissions at the same time

A

d Explanation:
EFAS system can handle MULTIPLE Emergency Alert transmissions at the same time
Communications ch 9 add 3 sec 5.1.4, 5.2.2.note, 6.1

26
Q

Question 27:
As the officer of a Lobby Control Unit responding to a High-Rise building fire, who would you report into if all ICS positions are established upon arrival.

A: Operations Section Chief

B: Fire Sector Chief

C:Logistics Section Chief

D: Planning Section Chief

A

c Explanation:
High-Rise Office Building page 21
All of these Units operate under the Logistics Section Chief
Lobby Control Unit
Communications Unit Systems Control Unit
Rehabilitation Unit

27
Q

Question 28:
Whether venting for search or venting for extinguishment, all horizontal ventilation must be communicated and coordinated with the Ladder Company Officer in the fire area. After venting and entering, the correct priority action for the FF to take can be found in which choice?

A: Clear out the rest of the window and frame

B:Isolate the area by closing a door before conducting a search

C: Transmit to the Ladder Officer that your “In”

D: Upon entry into the room, transmit a 10-45 for a victim you just discovered and include your location and planned exit route

A

b Explanation:
If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, the member shall isolate the room and proceed with the rescue efforts
FFP Ventilation page 13

28
Q

Question 29:
When placing TL streams or other exterior streams into operation at a Vacant building fire, the main objective is to obtain the greatest coverage possible. If necessary, to obtain the greatest coverage, TLs shall be placed in vacant lots. Choose the incorrect procedure when placing a TL in a vacant lot.

A:The lot must be surveyed by the LCC and OV to determine the condition of the rubble and whether it will support the weight of the apparatus

B: Shoring will be necessary under the jacks and tormentors for greater stability of the apparatus

C: The boom should not be operated at right angles to the chassis at low elevations

D: The boom should be operated at narrow angles over the front or rear of the apparatus

A

a Explanation:
LCC and Officer
Vacants sec 4.1.1

29
Q

Question 30:
All chemical agents are heavier than air except which one?

A:Hydrogen Cyanide

B: Cyanogen Chloride

C: Phosegene

D: Mustards

A

a Explanation:
ERP add 2 page 18 (bottom)
Know this page
Also, Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs and symptoms (seconds to minutes), with the exception of Mustards and Phosgene, which will have a delayed effect

30
Q

Question 31:
LT Portable was instructing FF Rung on how to properly mark a portable ladder when using it for hoisting. The only correct information he gave can be found in which choice?

A: The first rung below center of portable ladders (bed of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape on both ends, two inches from the beams

B:The first rung above center of portable ladders (bed of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape on both ends, two inches from the beams

C:The center rung of portable ladders (bed of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape on both ends, two inches from the beams

D: The first rung above center is to be marked with one inch tape at the center of the rung

A

b Explanation:
B-Correct- The first rung above center of portable ladders (bed of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape on both ends, two inches from the beams
D- The second rung above center is to be marked with one inch tape at the center of the rung
Evolution 18 bottom p-3

31
Q

Question 32:
Hydrant discs are used to provide rapid ID of hydrants that are unserviceable for any reason or for OOS/partially serviceable auxiliary protection systems such as a sprinkler or standpipe system. Choose the most correct disc used.

A: Yellow disc used for a partially serviceable sprinkler system

B: Blue disc for a frozen hydrant

C: Blue disc used for a OOS Standpipe system

D:Yellow disc used for a frozen hydrant

A

d Explanation:
White disc used for unserviceable hydrants and OOS auxiliary fire protection systems
Yellow disc used for frozen hydrants
Blue disc used to indicate a system is not functioning as a fully automatic system and/or a portion of the system is such that it will operate effectively when supplied
Engine Operations ch 6 sec 6.5

32
Q

Question 33:
During a Collapse Operation, if possible, both first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains. The third and fourth engines should take similar positions at the rear of the structure. In addition, two of the second alarm engines should be used to seal off the ends of the street with chauffeurs remaining in the cab to move the apparatus if need be. From the information provided above, which engine is most correct that ensures a 3 1/2” supply line is stretched to the first tower ladder

A: 1st arriving Engine

B:2nd arriving Engine

C: 3rd arriving Engine

D: One of the 2nd alarm Engines

A

b Explanation:
1st arriving Engine will “consider” stretching 3 1/2” line to supply a TL
2nd arriving Engine “ensures” it
Remember: 3rd and subsequent arriving Engines can assist in the removal of lightly buried victims….in addition to fire control, stretching lines, augmenting water supply, and CFR duties
Collapse Operations page 10

33
Q

Question 34:
Its your first day out of FLSTP, and you are working the 9x6 tour in L500 in the great Borough of Manhattan. You are trying to acclimate yourself to the office when a ticket comes in for a steam leak at 1127 5th ave. Upon arrival, you confirm there is a steam leak and give several orders on how to mitigate the leak. You were only correct in which order?

A: You ordered your members to turn off several valves until the leak stopped because the valves weren’t labeled

B: Once the correct valved was turned off, you ordered the FFs to turn it back on once the leak was fixed upstairs

C:Since the correct valve couldn’t be found inside the building to isolate the leak, you ordered your FFs to turn off the building steam shutoff valve located outside the building

D:Since the correct valve couldn’t be located, you ordered your FFs to shutoff the Inside Service Valve

A

d Explanation:
A- Do not randomly shut steam valves inside of a supplied building
B- Once a steam valve is shut, do not reopen it
C- This valve should only be shut by Con Edison steam personnel
Emergency Procedures/Steam Systems page 6

34
Q

Question 35:
When using the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) for drill purposes, company officers should adhere to all of the following except?

A: Use any of the HT channels 4-8

B:Monitor the channel for 2-3 minutes prior to activating the EAB to ensure the selected channel is not already in use

C: Ensure all HTs are switched back to HT 1 upon completion of the drill

D:Forward letterhead via chain of command to Chief of Operations seeking permission to use channels 4-8 for drill purposes

A

d Explanation:
A- Correct
B- Correct
C- Correct
D- Not mentioned
Communications ch 9 add 4 sec 5.2

35
Q

Question 36:
Today is April 21, 2019, and you are working in E600 during the 9x6 tour in the great Borough of the Bronx. Its a typical day tour, which involved 2 All-hands, a Pin Job, and an excellent lunch. However, a FF knocks on your door and tells you the apparatus door is stuck in the open position, and the Nederman exhaust system was severely damaged rendering it OOS from the last run. The most correct course of action for you to take at this point is found in which choice?

A:Call the Resource Center

B: Email the Resource Center using the RC-5 Work Order Request form

C:Call FDNY Building Unit

D: Email the administrative Battalion

A

a Explanation:
Do not use the RC-5 form to request emergency repairs
RC-5 is for non-emergency repairs in qtrs
Considered a emergency repair: Apparatus door not working properly, Major structural failure, Nederman exhaust system OOS, Total communications failure (both voice alarm and teleprinter), No heat (entire facility or major portion)
Requisitions & Payroll sec 1.10.2

36
Q

Question 37:
Choose the incorrect tactic/procedure when wearing bunker gear during WaterFront Operations.

A: Personal flotation devices, where available, should be used. Safety lines should be used, particularly if no flotation devices are available

B: Each company’s Water Safety Kit should be brought to the point of operation

C:At least one 24’ extension ladder should be dedicated for the purpose of member removal should the need arise

D: In the event you fall into the water, do not attempt to swim—-call for help, try to remain calm and slowly tread water

A

c Explanation:
One 20’ straight ladder
Safety Bulletin 81 sec 3 and 4

37
Q

Question 38:
There are two different subway emergency exits. The Standard exit, which consists of doors that are flush with the sidewalk, and Upright exits, which are doors that are upright, located in the side of a structure. The most correct subway emergency tool that opens both exits can be found in which choice?

A:Triangle Subway Emergency Tool

B: Square Subway Emergency Tool

C: Circle Subway Emergency Tool

D: Rectangle Subway Emergency Tool

A

a Explanation xplanation:
Under River Rail Operations page 5
The Billy Bar aids in opening the doors more quickly and easily

38
Q

Question 39:
As a newly promoted officer, you should know that all of the following signals do not require a preliminary report to the dispatcher except?

A:10-36-2

B: 10-24/10-23

C: 10-22

D:10-21

A

a Explanation:
Officers of land units are not required to submit a preliminary report when special called to an automobile, grass, rubbish, or similar outside fire……Communications ch 8 sec 8.11.7
A- Car accident no injuries no wash down Comm ch 8 page 10….
B- 10-24 Auto fire/ 10-23 Abandoned/Derelict Vehicle fire…Comm ch 8 page 8
C- Outside Rubbish…comm ch 8 page 8
D- Brush fire…comm ch 8 page 8

39
Q

Question 40:
The first arriving unit(s) at a suspected chemical attack in an underground subway station shall carry out certain protective measures and procedures upon arrival. Choose the incorrect protective measure and/or procedure.

A: If first arriving FFs are overrun by evacuating civilians, initial actions may only involve assisting in the evacuation and decontamination of victims

B:If first arriving FFs find the dispersal device is still in operation, FFs shall make every attempt to stop it to alleviate the fallout of civilians and FFs

C: FFs operating in the Exclusion Zone should not proceed any further than the farthest live victim when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims

D: The officer of the first arriving unit(s) must monitor on-air time of members in order to ensure decontamination is completed before the air supply is depleted

E: First arriving units are to monitor radiation levels. Any alarm activation shall be immediately reported to the IC

A

b Explanation:
If a dispersal device is still operational, the first alarm units shall make no attempt to stop the device. Responders shall immediately retreat and proceed directly to Gross Decontamination
ERP add 2 sec 5