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Lab Management > BIOSAFETY > Flashcards

BIOSAFETY Flashcards

1
Q

These are measures employed when handling biohazardous materials
to avoid infecting oneself, others or the environment

A

BIOSAFETY

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2
Q

“PROTECTING PEOPLE FROM BAD BUGS”

A

BIOSAFETY

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3
Q

How is biosafety implemented

A

The containment principles, technologies and practices that are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to pathogens and toxins or their accidental release (WHO, 2006)

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4
Q

These are measures employed to protect biohazardous materials, or critical relevant information, against theft or diversion by those who tend to pursue intentional misuse

A

BIOSECURITY

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5
Q

How is biosecurity implemented

A

The protection, control and accountability for valuable
biological materials within laboratories in order to prevent unauthorized
access, loss, theft, misuse, diversion or
intentional release (WHO, 2006)

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6
Q

• risk associated to biological toxins or infectious agents

A

BIORISK

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7
Q

a system or process to control safety and security risks associated with the handling or storage and disposal
of biological agents and toxins in
laboratories and facilities (CWA 15793:2011)

A

BIORISK MANAGEMENT

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8
Q

• The International Standard for any organization that tests, stores, transports, works with, or disposes of hazardous biological materials

A

ISO 35001:2019

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9
Q

The biorisk management system
is based on a________ approach, which enables an organization to effectively identify, assess, control, and evaluate the biosafety and biosecurity risks inherent in its activities

A

management system

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10
Q

The model is an iterative process used by organizations to achieve continual improvement of processes and products.

A

PDCA

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11
Q

• : establish objectives, programs, and
processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with the organization’s biorisk management policy;

• : implement the processes as planned;

• : monitor and measure activities and
processes about the biorisk management policy and objectives, and report the results;

• : take actions to continually improve the biorisk management performance to achieve the intended outcomes.

A

Plan

Do

Check

Act

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12
Q

• The intentional release or threat of release of biologic agents (viruses, bacteria, fungi or their toxins) in order to cause disease or death among human population or food crops and livestock to terrorize a civilian population or manipulate the government (CDC)

A

BIOTERRORISM

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13
Q

may be the first to identify an unusual organism or cluster of isolates that may signal a bioterrorism event

A

Laboratories/ medtechs

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14
Q

Biosafety Levels

RITM

Microbes are dangerous and exotic, posing a high risk of aerosol-transmitted infections, which are frequently fatal without treatment or vaccines.

Few labs are at this level.

A

BSL 4

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15
Q

Biosafety Levels

Microbes are indigenous or exotic and cause serious of potentially lethal diseases through respiratory transmission.

A

BSL 3

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16
Q

Biosafety Levels

Microbes are typically indigenous and are associated with diseases of varying severity.

They pose moderate risk to workers and the environment.

A

BSL 2

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17
Q

Biosafety Levels

Microbes are not known to cause disease in healthy hosts and pose minimal risk to workers and the environment.

A

BSL 1

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18
Q

Biosafety Levels

Ebola and Marburg viruses

A

4

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19
Q

Biosafety Levels

M. tuberculosis

A

BSL 3

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20
Q

Biosafety Levels

SAU

A

BSL 2

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21
Q

Biosafety Levels

E. coli

A

BSL 1

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22
Q

Easily disseminated and/or transmitted from person to person

Can result in high mortality rates with a major public health impact

Might cause public panic

A

Category A

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23
Q

Moderately easy to disseminate

Moderate morbidity and low mortality

May require enhanced
CDC diagnostic capacity

A

Category B

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24
Q

Availability

Ease of production and dissemination

Potential for high morbidity and mortality

A

Category C

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25
Q

COMMON BIOTERRORISM AGENTS

A

• Anthrax
• Plague
• Brucella
• Tularemia
• Botulism
• Smallpox
• Viral hemorrhagic fevers

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26
Q

ANTHRAX
•
• high fatality rate (90%); breathing spores from infected animals and/or contaminated animal products

A

Inhalation

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27
Q

• Inoculation or contamination of pre-existing lesion or skin break

A

Cutaneous anthrax

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28
Q

•
• Ingestion of raw or undercooked meat from an infected animal

A

Gastrointestinal anthrax

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29
Q

ANTHRAX
Tests and specimens

Culture: (3) (rapidly growing nonhemolytic, nonpigmented dry ‘ground glass’ colonies with irregular edges having comma-shaped projections)

A

blood, CSF, wounds

30
Q

ANTHRAX
Tests and specimens

: determines extent of spore spread in population

A

Nasal culture

31
Q

ANTHRAX
Tests and specimens

Immunohistochemical:

A

tissue

32
Q

ANTHRAX
Tests and specimens

: can confirm diagnosis if culture is negative

A

PCR

33
Q

ANTHRAX
Tests and specimens

Serology:

A

ELISA, IFA

34
Q

Anthrax

• Treatment:

A

antibiotics (penicillin, quinolones, tetracycline)

35
Q

PLAGUE
Tests and specimens
Culture: (3)

Direct FA:

Serology:

A

sputum, blood, lymph

(Direct Fluorescent antibody)
respiratory secretions

F1-V antigen assay

36
Q

Plague

• Treatment:

A

antibiotics (tetracycline; quinolones, streptomycin, gentamicin, chloramphenicol);

prophylaxis: medication for 7 days

37
Q

PLAGUE
• The______ in the 14th century killed more than_____ People

A

Black Death

50 million

38
Q

Plague

• A zoonotic disease that primarily infects rodents and is caused by a ______transmitted by_____

A

bacterium (Yersinia pestis)

rat fleas

39
Q

: bite of an infected flea

: transmission via aerosol droplets from a contaminated animal or an infected patient

: bacterium can survive in monocytes and can be disseminated to all organs

A

• Bubonic plague

• Pneumonic plague

• Septicemic plague

40
Q

• Key symptom: pneumonia with nonproductive cough

A

TULAREMIA

41
Q

TULAREMIA

Tests and specimens
General laboratory tests not helpful Culture:

Capsular

Serology: ELISA

A

bacterium does not grow on ordinary media; needs cysteine blood or chocolate agar

AG detection or PCR: whole unclotted blood

nasal, induced respiratory specimens

Direct FA and PCR:

42
Q

Tularemia

Treatment:

A

gentamicin, streptomycin, ciprofloxacin; doxycycline as prophylaxis

43
Q

TULAREMIA
• Caused by

A

Francisella tularensis

44
Q

TULAREMIA
• : most common form (after a bite from a tick or deer fly or after handling or biting by an infected animal)

A

Ulcers glandular tularemia

45
Q

Pneumonia

• most serious form (after inhaling dust and aerosols containing the organism)

A

Pneumonic tularemia

46
Q

• Key symptom: pneumonia with nonproductive cough

A

Tularemia

47
Q

Clinical evaluation needed; laboratory tests are of no value; toxin assay may be useful if toxin present in serum

A

BOTULISM

48
Q

Botulism

PCR and toxin assay:

A

PCR and toxin assay:

use nasal induced respiratory secretions and blood Supportive treatment

49
Q

BOTULISM
• Neuroparalytic disease caused by botulinum toxin produced by (3)
• Can cause difficulty breathing, muscle paralysis, and even death

A

C. botulinum, C. argentinense, C. butyricum and C. barati

50
Q

• The bacterial spores do not usually make people sick, but they can make toxins in certain conditions (low oxygen, low sugar, low salt, pH > 4.5, >3 C)

A

Botulism

51
Q

•is common in home-preserved vegetables and meat products (fish, ham, sausage)

A

Food-borne botulism

52
Q

BOTULISM
• Supportive treatment
•_____ can be administered up to 24 hours after exposure

• Concern: aerosolization of toxins or intentional contamination of food products

A

Antitoxin

53
Q

• Greatest single killer in human history (500 million people dead)

A

SMALLPOX

54
Q

Smallpox

• Caused by the_____
• Eradicated in___

A

Variola major virus

1980

55
Q

• HIGHEST LEVEL EMERGENCY: submit specimens immediately to public health laboratory

A

Smallpox

56
Q

Smallpox

• May be weaponized via aerosol dispersal and contact

• Clinical findings:
• Treatment:

A

exanthems

vaccinia immune globulin (VIG)

57
Q

VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS

ME LAB RCY HD

A

Marburg
Ebola

Lassa fever
Argentine
Bolivian

Rift valley fever
Crimean Congi
Yellow fever

Hantavirus
Dengue

58
Q

Ebola
Marburg
Lassa fever

A

Contact

59
Q

Hantavirus
Argentine (Junin)
Bolivian (Machupo)

A

Contact and aerosol

60
Q

Crimean Congo

A

Ticks and contact

61
Q

Rift Valley fever
Dengue
Yellow fever

A

Mosquito

62
Q

• An assault on the microvasculature leads to increased permeability, actual disruption, and local hemorrhage

A

VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS

63
Q

• Abrupt onset with fever and myalgia
• Diagnostic clue: travel to endemic, usually rural, area

A

VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS

64
Q

• Diagnosis: clinical evaluation; key finding is vascular involvement (petechiae, bleeding, edema, postural hypotension, etc.)

A

VHF

65
Q

• Positive tourniquet test
• Treatment: management of hypotension and fluid loss

A

VHF

66
Q

• Note: most VHF has a mortality rate of 15-30% but some like_____ has a high death rate (near 90%)

A

Ebola

67
Q

How To Do a Tourniquet Test

  1. Take the patient’s blood pressure and record it, for example, 100/70.
  2. Inflate the cuff to a point midway. between SBP and DBP, and maintain for 5 minutes, (100 + 70) + 2 = 85 mm Hg
  3. Reduce and wait 2 minutes.
  4. Count…

A positive test is…

A

petechiae below antecubital fossa

10 or more petechiae per 1 square inch

68
Q

Biosafety

The (3) that
are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to
pathogens and toxins or their accidental release

A

containment principles
technologies
practices

69
Q

Biosecurity

The (3) for valuable biological materials within laboratories in order to prevent unauthorized access, loss, theft, misuse, diversion or intentional release

A

protection
control
accountability

70
Q

The biorisk management system is based on a _______ approach, which enables an organization to effectively identify, assess, control, and evaluate the biosafety and biosecurity risks inherent in its activities

A

management system approach

71
Q

What is the PDCA model?

A

It is to achieve continual improvement of
processes and products.

72
Q

Plan: establish objectives, programs, and
processes necessary to deliver results in accordance
with the…..

A

organization’s biorisk management policy;

Lab Management (18 decks)

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