BIOSAFETY Flashcards

1
Q

These are measures employed when handling biohazardous materials
to avoid infecting oneself, others or the environment

A

BIOSAFETY

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2
Q

“PROTECTING PEOPLE FROM BAD BUGS”

A

BIOSAFETY

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3
Q

How is biosafety implemented

A

The containment principles, technologies and practices that are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to pathogens and toxins or their accidental release (WHO, 2006)

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4
Q

These are measures employed to protect biohazardous materials, or critical relevant information, against theft or diversion by those who tend to pursue intentional misuse

A

BIOSECURITY

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5
Q

How is biosecurity implemented

A

The protection, control and accountability for valuable
biological materials within laboratories in order to prevent unauthorized
access, loss, theft, misuse, diversion or
intentional release (WHO, 2006)

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6
Q

• risk associated to biological toxins or infectious agents

A

BIORISK

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7
Q

a system or process to control safety and security risks associated with the handling or storage and disposal
of biological agents and toxins in
laboratories and facilities (CWA 15793:2011)

A

BIORISK MANAGEMENT

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8
Q

• The International Standard for any organization that tests, stores, transports, works with, or disposes of hazardous biological materials

A

ISO 35001:2019

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9
Q

The biorisk management system
is based on a________ approach, which enables an organization to effectively identify, assess, control, and evaluate the biosafety and biosecurity risks inherent in its activities

A

management system

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10
Q

The model is an iterative process used by organizations to achieve continual improvement of processes and products.

A

PDCA

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11
Q

• : establish objectives, programs, and
processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with the organization’s biorisk management policy;

• : implement the processes as planned;

• : monitor and measure activities and
processes about the biorisk management policy and objectives, and report the results;

• : take actions to continually improve the biorisk management performance to achieve the intended outcomes.

A

Plan

Do

Check

Act

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12
Q

• The intentional release or threat of release of biologic agents (viruses, bacteria, fungi or their toxins) in order to cause disease or death among human population or food crops and livestock to terrorize a civilian population or manipulate the government (CDC)

A

BIOTERRORISM

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13
Q

may be the first to identify an unusual organism or cluster of isolates that may signal a bioterrorism event

A

Laboratories/ medtechs

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14
Q

Biosafety Levels

RITM

Microbes are dangerous and exotic, posing a high risk of aerosol-transmitted infections, which are frequently fatal without treatment or vaccines.

Few labs are at this level.

A

BSL 4

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15
Q

Biosafety Levels

Microbes are indigenous or exotic and cause serious of potentially lethal diseases through respiratory transmission.

A

BSL 3

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16
Q

Biosafety Levels

Microbes are typically indigenous and are associated with diseases of varying severity.

They pose moderate risk to workers and the environment.

A

BSL 2

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17
Q

Biosafety Levels

Microbes are not known to cause disease in healthy hosts and pose minimal risk to workers and the environment.

A

BSL 1

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18
Q

Biosafety Levels

Ebola and Marburg viruses

A

4

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19
Q

Biosafety Levels

M. tuberculosis

A

BSL 3

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20
Q

Biosafety Levels

SAU

A

BSL 2

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21
Q

Biosafety Levels

E. coli

A

BSL 1

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22
Q

Easily disseminated and/or transmitted from person to person

Can result in high mortality rates with a major public health impact

Might cause public panic

A

Category A

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23
Q

Moderately easy to disseminate

Moderate morbidity and low mortality

May require enhanced
CDC diagnostic capacity

A

Category B

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24
Q

Availability

Ease of production and dissemination

Potential for high morbidity and mortality

A

Category C

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25
COMMON BIOTERRORISM AGENTS
• Anthrax • Plague • Brucella • Tularemia • Botulism • Smallpox • Viral hemorrhagic fevers
26
ANTHRAX • • high fatality rate (90%); breathing spores from infected animals and/or contaminated animal products
Inhalation
27
• Inoculation or contamination of pre-existing lesion or skin break
Cutaneous anthrax
28
• • Ingestion of raw or undercooked meat from an infected animal
Gastrointestinal anthrax
29
ANTHRAX Tests and specimens Culture: (3) (rapidly growing nonhemolytic, nonpigmented dry 'ground glass' colonies with irregular edges having comma-shaped projections)
blood, CSF, wounds
30
ANTHRAX Tests and specimens : determines extent of spore spread in population
Nasal culture
31
ANTHRAX Tests and specimens Immunohistochemical:
tissue
32
ANTHRAX Tests and specimens : can confirm diagnosis if culture is negative
PCR
33
ANTHRAX Tests and specimens Serology:
ELISA, IFA
34
Anthrax • Treatment:
antibiotics (penicillin, quinolones, tetracycline)
35
PLAGUE Tests and specimens Culture: (3) Direct FA: Serology:
sputum, blood, lymph (Direct Fluorescent antibody) respiratory secretions F1-V antigen assay
36
Plague • Treatment:
antibiotics (tetracycline; quinolones, streptomycin, gentamicin, chloramphenicol); prophylaxis: medication for 7 days
37
PLAGUE • The______ in the 14th century killed more than_____ People
Black Death 50 million
38
Plague • A zoonotic disease that primarily infects rodents and is caused by a ______transmitted by_____
bacterium (Yersinia pestis) rat fleas
39
: bite of an infected flea : transmission via aerosol droplets from a contaminated animal or an infected patient : bacterium can survive in monocytes and can be disseminated to all organs
• Bubonic plague • Pneumonic plague • Septicemic plague
40
• Key symptom: pneumonia with nonproductive cough
TULAREMIA
41
TULAREMIA Tests and specimens General laboratory tests not helpful Culture: Capsular Serology: ELISA
bacterium does not grow on ordinary media; needs cysteine blood or chocolate agar AG detection or PCR: whole unclotted blood nasal, induced respiratory specimens Direct FA and PCR:
42
Tularemia Treatment:
gentamicin, streptomycin, ciprofloxacin; doxycycline as prophylaxis
43
TULAREMIA • Caused by
Francisella tularensis
44
TULAREMIA • : most common form (after a bite from a tick or deer fly or after handling or biting by an infected animal)
Ulcers glandular tularemia
45
Pneumonia • most serious form (after inhaling dust and aerosols containing the organism)
Pneumonic tularemia
46
• Key symptom: pneumonia with nonproductive cough
Tularemia
47
Clinical evaluation needed; laboratory tests are of no value; toxin assay may be useful if toxin present in serum
BOTULISM
48
Botulism PCR and toxin assay:
PCR and toxin assay: use nasal induced respiratory secretions and blood Supportive treatment
49
BOTULISM • Neuroparalytic disease caused by botulinum toxin produced by (3) • Can cause difficulty breathing, muscle paralysis, and even death
C. botulinum, C. argentinense, C. butyricum and C. barati
50
• The bacterial spores do not usually make people sick, but they can make toxins in certain conditions (low oxygen, low sugar, low salt, pH > 4.5, >3 C)
Botulism
51
•is common in home-preserved vegetables and meat products (fish, ham, sausage)
Food-borne botulism
52
BOTULISM • Supportive treatment •_____ can be administered up to 24 hours after exposure • Concern: aerosolization of toxins or intentional contamination of food products
Antitoxin
53
• Greatest single killer in human history (500 million people dead)
SMALLPOX
54
Smallpox • Caused by the_____ • Eradicated in___
Variola major virus 1980
55
• HIGHEST LEVEL EMERGENCY: submit specimens immediately to public health laboratory
Smallpox
56
Smallpox • May be weaponized via aerosol dispersal and contact • Clinical findings: • Treatment:
exanthems vaccinia immune globulin (VIG)
57
VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS ME LAB RCY HD
Marburg Ebola Lassa fever Argentine Bolivian Rift valley fever Crimean Congi Yellow fever Hantavirus Dengue
58
Ebola Marburg Lassa fever
Contact
59
Hantavirus Argentine (Junin) Bolivian (Machupo)
Contact and aerosol
60
Crimean Congo
Ticks and contact
61
Rift Valley fever Dengue Yellow fever
Mosquito
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• An assault on the microvasculature leads to increased permeability, actual disruption, and local hemorrhage
VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS
63
• Abrupt onset with fever and myalgia • Diagnostic clue: travel to endemic, usually rural, area
VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS
64
• Diagnosis: clinical evaluation; key finding is vascular involvement (petechiae, bleeding, edema, postural hypotension, etc.)
VHF
65
• Positive tourniquet test • Treatment: management of hypotension and fluid loss
VHF
66
• Note: most VHF has a mortality rate of 15-30% but some like_____ has a high death rate (near 90%)
Ebola
67
How To Do a Tourniquet Test 1. Take the patient's blood pressure and record it, for example, 100/70. 2. Inflate the cuff to a point midway. between SBP and DBP, and maintain for 5 minutes, (100 + 70) + 2 = 85 mm Hg 3. Reduce and wait 2 minutes. 4. Count… A positive test is...
petechiae below antecubital fossa 10 or more petechiae per 1 square inch
68
Biosafety The (3) that are implemented to prevent unintentional exposure to pathogens and toxins or their accidental release
containment principles technologies practices
69
Biosecurity The (3) for valuable biological materials within laboratories in order to prevent unauthorized access, loss, theft, misuse, diversion or intentional release
protection control accountability
70
The biorisk management system is based on a _______ approach, which enables an organization to effectively identify, assess, control, and evaluate the biosafety and biosecurity risks inherent in its activities
management system approach
71
What is the PDCA model?
It is to achieve continual improvement of processes and products.
72
Plan: establish objectives, programs, and processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with the…..
organization's biorisk management policy;