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Biopsychology Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the eight main parts of the human nervous system?

A
  1. central nervous system (CNS)
  2. peripheral nervous system (PNS)
  3. spinal cord (CNS)
  4. brain (CNS)
  5. somatic nervous system (PNS)
  6. autonomic nervous system (PNS)
  7. sympathetic nervous system (autonomic)
  8. parasympathetic nervous system (autonomic)
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2
Q

What does the parasympathetic nervous system do?

A

calms the body after an emergency state. Involves in energy conservation and digestion

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3
Q

What does the central nervous system (CNS) do?

What does it include?

A

receives information from the senses and controls the body’s responses. Controls behaviour, bodily processes, and muscles

includes brain and spinal cord

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4
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system do?

A

involves in responses that help us to deal with emergencies (fight or flight)

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5
Q

What is the spinal cord and what does it do?

A

a bundle of enclosed nerve fibres which connects nearly all parts of the body with the brain

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6
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

What does it include?

A

the part of the nervous system that is outside the brain and spinal cord

includes somatic and autonomic branches

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7
Q

What does the brain do?

A

the part of the CNS responsible for coordinating sensation, intellectual and nervous activity

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8
Q

What is the nervous system?

A

network of nerve cells and fibres. Helps all parts of the body communicate with each other

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9
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system do?

What does it include?

A

governs the brain’s involuntary activities (eg. heartbeat, stress) and is self-regulating

includes sympathetic and parasympathetic branches

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10
Q

What does the somatic nervous system do?

A

responsible for carrying sensory and motor information to and from the CNS

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11
Q

What is the relationship between sympathetic and parasypathetic?

A

antagonistic - they cannot happen at the same time

eg. sympathetic dilates pupil whereas parasympathetic constricts pupil

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12
Q

Give six hormones

A
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Noradrenaline
  3. Dopamine
  4. Serotonin
  5. GABA
  6. Acetylcholine
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13
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is

adrenaline?

A

Fight or flight neurotransmitters

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14
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is

noradrenaline?

A

Concentration neurotransmitter

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15
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is dopamine?

A

Pleasure neurotransmitter

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16
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is serotonin?

A

Mood neurotransmitter

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17
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is GABA?

A

Calming neurotransmitter

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18
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is acetylcholine?

A

Learning neurotransmitter

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19
Q

What are the hormone levels like for people with schizophrenia?

A

High dopamine levels

Low serotonin levels

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20
Q

What are the hormone levels like for people with major depression?

A

Low serotonin levels

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21
Q

What do hormones do?

A

They ‘excite’ or stimulate the body and it’s organs

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22
Q

How to hormones get released to cells?

A

Most hormones only affect their ‘target cells’

When enough signals are received, cells produce a reaction

Cells without the right receptor aren’t affected

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23
Q

What does the pituitary gland control?

A

Major bodily processes

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24
Q

What is the pituitary gland controlled by?

A

The hypothalamus

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25
Q

Give six psychology/biology interactions that the adrenal and pituitary glands are responsible for

A
  1. ACTH/CRH - energy production
  2. HGH - growth and repair
  3. Gonadothrnopins - hair/milk production
  4. MSH - melanin (skin pigment)
  5. Vasopressin - water retention
  6. Oxytocin - pair bonding, social recognition
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26
Q

Where are the adrenal glands located?

A

Near kidneys

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27
Q

What are the two parts called in the adrenal glands?

A

The adrenal cortex and the adrenal medulla - each releases hormones

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28
Q

What does the adrenal cortex do?

A

Necessary to live - releases cortisol and aldosterone

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29
Q

What does the adrenal medulla do?

A

Not necessary to live - releases adrenaline and noradrenaline

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30
Q

What are the ovaries responsible for?

A

Egg production, oestrogen and progesterone (Manner and Miller 2014)

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31
Q

What do the testes release?

A

Testosterone

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32
Q

What is testosterone responsible for?

A

Male characteristics, sex drive, muscle size/strength, bone density

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33
Q

What is progesterone responsible for?

A

Threat and social responsiveness (Manner and Miller 2014)

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34
Q

What is testosterone controlled by?

A

The hypothalamus and pituitary glands

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35
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic stressors?

A

Acute = short term stress (eg. someone hits you)

Chronic = long term stress (eg. family/relationship problems)

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36
Q

After the stressor is recognised, what are the next four steps?

A
  1. Amygdala (perceives stressful things)
  2. Hypothalamus (biological thermostat/responsible for homeostasis)
  3. Sympathetic nervous system
  4. Response
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37
Q

After the SNS in an acute stressor response what are the next three steps?

A
  1. Adrenal medulla
  2. Adrenaline released
  3. Parasympathetic nervous system (reverses SNS affects)
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38
Q

What does HPA stand for?

A

Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Adrenal gland

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39
Q

What are the three types of neurone?

A
  1. Sensory - for receiving information
  2. Motor - for transmitting information
  3. Relay - for controlling muscles to respond
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40
Q

What is action potential?

A

An electrical signal that you can detect which moves through nerves

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41
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

A sterile closed area where chemical reactions happen in the synapse

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42
Q

What is the cell membrane?

A

A skin like layer that lets things in and out of cells

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43
Q

What is a neurotransmitter?

A

Chemical substances that okay an important part in the nervous system

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44
Q

What is the synaptic gap?

A

The gap which neurotransmitters travel through in the synapse

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45
Q

What is a receptor?

A

The part of the nerve which receives and reads chemical signals

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46
Q

What are the five steps of the synaptic transmission?

A
  1. Action potential or NT arrives at terminal from axon
  2. NT is packed in vesicles
  3. Vesicles fuse with cell membrane
  4. NT binds to receptors
  5. Surplus NT is broken down/recycled by reputable channels
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47
Q

What is postsynaptic potential?

A

If a neurone receives both excitatory and inhibitory signals, the total number of each are added up and the most powerful wins.

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48
Q

What does temporal mean?

A

Very quick fusing of one presynaptic neurone

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49
Q

What does spatial mean?

A

Lots of small signals happening at different synapses

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50
Q

What happens to neurotransmitters if they are not used in the synaptic gap?

A

they go back into the cell and are used later when needed (reuptake - almost like recycling)

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51
Q

what are the two streams in the brain called?

A

Dorsal/’where’ stream

AND

Ventral/’what’ stream

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52
Q

What happens in the dorsal stream of the brain?

A

spatial processing - location, movement, spatial transformations, spatial relations

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53
Q

What happens in the ventral stream of the brain?

A

Object processing - colour, texture, fictional detail, shape, size

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54
Q

In which direction do perception processes within the brain usually move?

A

back to front OR upwards

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55
Q

In which direction to action processes within the brain usually move?

A

front to back OR downwards

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56
Q

What did Franz Gall (1758-1828) do?

A

Founded phrenology - 1796

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57
Q

Describe how Franz Gall (1758-1828) founded phrenology in 3 steps

A
  • divided brain into 27 theoretical ‘organs’
  • of which we shares 19 with other animals
  • suggested they could be ‘felt’ as bumps on the skull
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58
Q

What Marie-Jean-Pierre Flourens (1795-1867) do?

A
  • animal lesion studies on cerebellum and medulla oblongata - usually in rabbits and pigeons
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59
Q

What is localisation of functions?

A

when functions are associated with actviity of specific areas of the brain

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60
Q

What are the 6 cortices that you must remember for the exam (their location and function)?

A
  • motor cortex
  • somatosensory cortex
  • visual cortex
  • auditory cortex
  • Broca’s area
  • Wernicke’s area
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61
Q

What is the function of the motor cortex?

A

it stimulates and controls concious physical movements

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62
Q

what is the function of the somatosensory cortex?

A

it synthesises sensory info from peripheral neurons to create physical sensations

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63
Q

What is the function of the visual cortex?

A

it recieves, orients, groups and passes on visual signals from the retina, through the optic nerve, giving us visual perception (sight)

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64
Q

What is the function of the auditory cortex?

A

it recieves signals from the ears, through the CN-VIII nerve, and creates auditory perception (hearing)

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65
Q

What is the function of Broca’s area?

A

it’s the center for language perception - it combines essential signals from other regions to create speech

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66
Q

What is the function of Wernicke’s area?

A

it’s the centre for the understanding of language - it allows us to interpret physical and verbal communications

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67
Q

Where in the brain are both Wernicke’s and Broca’s area located?

A

On the left-hand side of the brain (language only happens on this hemisphere of the brain)

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68
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

loss of ability to understand language

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69
Q

What is Broca’s aphasia?

A

loss of ability to produce language

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70
Q

how many hemisphere’s does the human brain have?

A

2 - left and right

71
Q

what is the left-right arrangement in the brains structure called?

A

hemispheric lateralisation

72
Q

what brain structure does communication between hemispheres go through?

A

the corpus callosum

73
Q

Give two functions that are only in the left hemisphere of the brain

A

LANGUAGE:

  • Broca’s area
  • Wernicke’s area
74
Q

Give 5 functions that occur in both funtions of the brain

A
  • motor cortex
  • somatosensory cortex
  • amygdala
  • hippocampus
  • basal ganglia
75
Q

What is contralateral organisation?

A

when functionalised areas that are localised in both hemispheres will always connect to the opposite side of the body

76
Q

How do we know about contralateral organisation?

A

split-brain research

77
Q

How did split-brain surgeries begin? Explain in 4 points

A
  • patients with severe epilepsy that didn’t respond to drugs seemed untreatable until 1950s
  • surgeons tried everying (including removing hippocampus (HM))
  • they then tried to sever the corpus callosum - cutting the brain in half
  • in modern surgery, only a small lesion is made
78
Q

What was the aim of Sperry’s (1968) study on split-brain patients?

A

to investigate hemispheric lateralisation of function in split-brain patients

79
Q

What were the IV’s (2) of Sperry’s (1968) study on split-brain patients?

A

IV(1) - stimulus number presented to right-hand-side (hand/eye)

IV(2) - stimulus number presented to left-hand-side (hand/eye)

80
Q

What were the DV’s (2) of Sperry’s (1968) study on split-brain patients?

A

DV(1) - accuracy in reporting stimulus number via hand signal

DV(2) - accuracy in reporting stimulus number via speech

81
Q

What were the findings (2) of Sperry’s (1968) study on split-brain patients?

A
  • stimuli presented to RHS (right-hand-side) can be reported verbally but not signalled by right hand
  • stimuli presented to LHS (left-hand-side) can be signed with right hand but not reported verbally
82
Q

What was the conclusion of Sperry’s (1968) study on split-brain patients?

A

severing the corpus callosum prevents lateralised functional aread recieving signals from opposite side of body. language is leteralised to the left hemisphere

83
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A

the ability to change or adapt in response to an experience

84
Q

T/F - humans are born with small, incomplete brains

A

TRUE - connections are made after new experiences - very quickly in children

85
Q

What will happen to connections in the brain which are used the most?

A

they will grow thicker and will develop more branches

86
Q

What will happen to connections in the brain that are not used often enough?

A

they will be destroyed

87
Q

T/F - plasticity can also help us to recover from injury

A

TRUE

88
Q

What are the two types of plasticity?

A

structural plasticity (growth) AND functional plasticity (functional recovery)

89
Q

What is structural plasticity (growth)?

A

When experience causes a change to brain structure

90
Q

What is functional plasticity (functional recovery)?

A

when localised functions move from a damaged region to an undamaged region after injury

91
Q

What are the 4 stages of GROWTH + CHANGE neuroplasticity?

A

1: SYNAPTIC PRUNING (axons that aren’t used well will weaken and eventually be lost)
2: NEURAL UNMASKING (a hormone; nerve growth factor (NGF) encourages growth)
3: AXONAL SPROUTING (chemicals called neurotrophins sustain + encourage growth)
4: SYNAPTIC CONNECTION (the new connection makes it’s parent network stronger)

92
Q

What are the 4 stages of FUNCTIONAL RECOVERY neuroplasticity?

A

1: AXON DAMAGE (AXOTOMY) (axon is severed by injury (dendrited would just regrow)
2: AXONAL SPROUTING (new axon/dentrite growth towards target)
3: BLOOD VESSELS RE-FORM (CAPILLARIES + GLIAL CELLS) (glial cells wrap around capillaries; support blood-brain barrier)
4: RECRUITMENT OF HOMOLOGUS (SIMILAR) AREAS (usually on the opposite hemisphere)

93
Q

What was the aim of Macguire et al’s (2000) taxi study?

A

To examine whether structural changes could be detected in the brain of people with extensive experience of spatial navigation.

94
Q

What was the method behind Macguire et al’s (2000) taxi study?

A

Structural MRI scans were obtained. 16 right-handed male London taxi drivers participated; all had been driving for more than 1.5 years. Scans of 50 healthy right-handed males who did not drive taxis were included for comparison. The mean age did not differ between the two groups.

95
Q

What was the conclusion for Macguire et al’s (2000) taxi study?

A

The results provide evidence for structural differences between the hippocampi of London taxi drivers and control participants, therefore suggesting that extensive practice with spatial navigation affects the hippocampus.

96
Q

What were the results for Macguire et al’s (2000) taxi study?

A

1: Increased grey matter was found in the brains of taxi drivers compared with controls in two brain regions, the right and left hippocampi - the increased volume was found in the posterior (rear) hippocampus.
2: Changes with navigation experience–A correlation was found between the amount of time spent as a taxi driver and volume in the right posterior hippocampus.

97
Q

What are the 4 most used ways of studying the brain?

A
  1. fMRI scan
  2. EEG
  3. ERP’s (event-related potentials)
  4. Post-motem examination
98
Q

What does fMRI stand for?

A

functional magnetic resonance imaging

99
Q

Explain in 5 steps how a fMRI works

A
  1. participant performs tasks inside electromagnetic tunnel
  2. magnetic field aligns hydrogen nuclei (abundant in blood)
  3. radio pulse ‘flips’ nuclei, then when they re-align, they release energy
  4. energy differences (gradients) are mapped using a coil
  5. these are mapped onto a computer-generated frame to produce images
100
Q

What is the mapping technique used in fMRI scans called?

A

BOLD - blood oxygenation level dependent

101
Q

T/F - in an fMRI scan, brighter areas have less blood flow

A

FALSE - brighter areas have MORE blood flow - as they’re doing more work

102
Q

give 4 advantages of fMRI scans

A
  1. noninvasive
  2. no radiation
  3. more objective/reliable than self-report
  4. offers a window into things we cannot otherwise investigate in living brains
103
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of fMRI scans

A
  1. correlational data only - 3rd variable problem
  2. measures blood flow not actual activity - not a perfect quantative source
  3. shows which regions work - modern psychology suggests it sthe communication thats important and this cannot be seen on an fMRI YET - connectome project - we need to see the process not just the areas (blotches) like on an fMRI
104
Q

What does EEG stand for?

A

electroencephalogram

105
Q

What does a EEG do?

A

measures electrical activity in the brain using scalp contacts

106
Q

What is an EEG used for?

A

used to diagnose epilepsy (spikes in activity) and alzheimer’s (reduced activity in certain areas)

107
Q

What are the 5 wave types that are visible (when concious) in an EEG

A
  1. Gamma - alert, learning, problem-solving
  2. Beta - awake + aroused (excited + anxious)
  3. Alpha - awake + relaxed
  4. Theta - light sleep/dreaming/deep meditation
  5. Delta - deep sleep/repair (gymohatic cycle)/dreamless
108
Q

Give 3 advantages of EEG’s

A
  1. real-time info about brain activity
  2. useful in elinical diagnosies (eg. epilepsy and Alzheimer’s)
  3. low-cost option for research
109
Q

Guve 3 disadvantages of EEG’s

A
  1. correlational data only - third variable problem
  2. only sees surface activity - needs electrodes to measure deeper brain areas - in animals we can, but in humans it’s unethical/invasive
  3. not very sensitive - electrodes pick up activity from a large area
110
Q

What does ERP stand for?

A

event-related potentials

111
Q

What are ERP’s?

A

small changes in voltage within the brain which can be detected using an EEG machine

112
Q

Describe in 3 steps how an EEG machine detects ERP’s

A
  1. patient repeats an action many times
  2. we record ‘normal’ baseline readings
  3. we can infer what electrical activity was due to the activity (correlation)
113
Q

What are the two types of ERP called?

A

sensory ERP and cognitive ERP

114
Q

What is a sensory ERP?

A

within 100ms of stimulus (detecting)

115
Q

What is a cognitive ERP?

A

after 100ms of stimulus (interpreting)

116
Q

Give two advantages of ERP’s

A
  • possible to see changes in brain activity in response to stimuli
  • we can record processing that has no behavioural response - we can tell when someone is thinking
117
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of ERP’s

A
  • correlational data only - third variable problem
  • you need a VERY large no. of trials to establish a response - this limits when/how it can be useful - it’s time consuming and expensive
  • cannot measure activity deeper in the brain - only useful for neocortical measurements
118
Q

What is a post-mortem examination?

A

when we look at the brains of people with known impairment swhile alive, we can then see what had gone wrong in their brains

119
Q

Give 3 successful examples of when post-mortem examination has been useful

A

1 - Broca used it to learn about the language centre Broca’s area
2 - HM’s brain was kept and examined (Annesse et al. 2014)
3 - Cotter et al. (2001) found law numbers of connecting (glial) cells in depressed peoples PFC (prefrontal cortex)

120
Q

Give 3 advantages of post-motem examinations

A
  • much more detail can be seen than in scans
  • all regions of the brain are avaliable for study
  • much of our early understanding of the SZ (schizophrenia) was due to mortem studies - this is how we know about brain structure changes (Harrison, 2000)
121
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of post-mortem examinations

A
  • correlational data only - can never be tested
  • lots of cofounding variables - drugs taken before death, degradation of brain tissue after death, diseases, age of brain
  • this is a snapshot only - the person is dead so we can’t follow up or ask for history
122
Q

What are biological rhythms?

A

recurring patterns of behaviour in the bodys systems (eg. endocrine/immune system)

123
Q

What are circadian rhythms?

A

a latin term meaning a pattern or cycle that lasts arounf (circa) a day (dies)

124
Q

T/F: like many organisms, humans biological circuit reacts to sunlight

A

TRUE

EG. sunlight = photoreceptor = SCN = intense/blue light = cortisol = wake

OR

sunlight = photoreceptor = SCN = faint/red light = melatonin = sleep

125
Q

Give 3 examples of circadian rhythms

A
  • sleep/wake
  • blood pressure
  • body temp. (morning = lowest body temp + pressure)
126
Q

Give 3 evaluation points for circadian rhythms research

A
  • ‘wake up lights’
  • chronotheraputics (timed-release drugs)
  • shift work
127
Q

what does ultradian mean?

A

less than 1 day

128
Q

what does infradian mean?

A

more than 1 day

129
Q

Give 2 examples of ultradian rhythms

A
  • sleep stages (klietman (1969) - basic rest activity cycle (BRAC); 90 mins day or night)
  • glymphatic system
130
Q

What does cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) do?

A

helps remove waste products from the brain in a convection provess

131
Q

Explain in 3 steps the glymphatic system (2015)

A

1 - CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) removes waste products from brain
2 - this happens in pulses when we’re awake but is much faster when we’re asleep
3 - this happens every 90 mins and can be applied to understand Alzhiemers development and may lead to treatments

132
Q

Give 2 examples of infradian rhythms

A

1 - mentrual cycle (affects behaviour - effects of oestrogen and progesterone exchanged through month)
2 - seasonal affective disorder (SAP)

133
Q

Why is SAD (seasonal affective disorder) an infradian rhythm?

A

because it is an annual disorder and happens over the course of more than 1 day

134
Q

Give 4 symptoms of winter SAD (seasonal affective disorder)

A
  • overeating
  • unexplained weight gain
  • more sleep than usual
  • depression
135
Q

Give 4 symptoms of summer SAD (seasonal affective disorder)

A
  • loss of appetite
  • unexplained weight loss
  • insomnia
  • irritability
136
Q

Give 2 effects of the menstrual cycle

A
  • oestrogen increases serotonin levels and the no. serotonin receptors - changing the action of endorphins and protects nerves from damage - it can even stimulate nerve growth
  • progesterone increases amygdala activation and lowers its activation threshold - when its procesed one of its by-products binds to the GABA-a receptor (just like in BZ drugs)
137
Q

What are endogenous pacemakers?

A

internal stimuli for biological rhythms to remain regular

138
Q

What are exogenous zeitgebers?

A

external stimuli for biological rhythms to remain regular

139
Q

Give 2 examples of endogenous pacemakers

A
  • suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

- pineal gland

140
Q

Explain what the SCN (suprachiasmatic nucleus) does in 3 steps

A

1 - contains neurons that fire in a synchronised pattern
2 - these neurons communicate with other oacemakers all over the body
3 - all pacemakers ‘keep time’ but the SCN sets them all (it’s known as the ‘master circadian clock’

141
Q

Explain how the pineal gland works as an endogenous pacemaker in 4 steps

A

1 - recieves signals from the SCN (suprachiasmatic nucleus) to produce melatonin according to light levels
2 - melatonin is derived from serotonin - so it too is an inhibitory neurotransmitter
3 - melatonin inhibits many areas of the mesencephalon and limbic system that are responsible for wakefullness
4 - inhibition of these areas = sleep

142
Q

Give 2 examples of exogenous zeitgebers

A

1 - light

2 - social cues

143
Q

Explain in 5 steps how light acts as an exogenous zeitgeber

A

1 - rods +cones use chemicals called opsins to detect light
2 - we have a third photoreceptor cell, called intrinsically photoreceptive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)
3 - these contain melanopsin - a non-visual opsin used to detect the intensity/type of light
4 - level of light detected by ganglion cells’ melanopsin reaches the SCN through the optic nerve
5 - the neurons of the SCN are synchronised using this info

144
Q

Give 6 examples of social cues that act as ecogenous zeitgebers

A
  1. meal times
  2. TV programmes
  3. behavioural routines
  4. regular working matterns
  5. clubs/hobbies
  6. radio programmes
145
Q

What is the cookbook analogy?

A

recipe book = recipe = ingredients = weigh/measure = cook/serve food

DNA = gene = code = transcribe = make protein

146
Q

What is DNA?

A

a ‘chemical code’ which contains the info needed to build proteins

147
Q

What are the 4 DNA bases?

A

A, C, G and T

148
Q

What are the two DNA base pairs?

A

A and T

G and C

149
Q

What would happen if there was a mistake or ‘mutation’ in the DNA code?

A

swapping, copying or replacing any part of the code changed the result

150
Q

Describe ‘reading/’transcribing’ the DNA’ in 5 steps

A
  1. each part of the DNA codes for it’s own proteins and can have many outcomes depending on what parts are selected
  2. it is read/’transscribed’ by specialised enzymes in the same order everytime but parts that we don’t need right now are ‘skipped over’
  3. the result is RNA which is then translated into proteins
  4. in order for the enzymes to read the DNA’s code it must open up
  5. this allows the RNA to be put together mimicking the info in the DNA strand (gene) begore being capped at both ends
  6. DNA thats able to open and be read in this way allows normal functioning
151
Q

When ‘reading the DNA’ the extent to which the genes are acessible (whether the DNA is ‘open’) is controlled by what?

A

the methyll groups

152
Q

What is the name of DNA’s coiled structure?

A

histones

153
Q

T/F - methylated genes cannot be read/’transcribed’

A

TRUE - this chemical causes genes to be ‘skipped’ when surrounding genetic info is transcribed

154
Q

What is epigentics?

A

the study of gene regulation by methyl modifications

155
Q

What do methyl groups do?

A

modify the transcription of DNA without changing it

156
Q

Give 3 examples of environmental influences that can add methyll groups to genes

A
  • environmental stress
  • UV light
  • dietary choices
157
Q

Why is the concordance rate mever 100% when we see ‘risk genes’ for psychiatric disorders

A

Because environmental influences can add methyl groups to genes, changing them

eg. dysfunctional COMT and SERT are risk genes for OCD, but we all have these genes - even if both your parents have OCD you might not get it - this depends on the environment you grow up in which will modift the genes you inherit

158
Q

What are the three things that enzymes and proteins that act on the epigenome do?

A

some WRITE, some ERASE and some READ

159
Q

T/F - epigenetic changes aren’t permenant and can be reversed or increased

A

TRUE - this is a treatment possibility

160
Q

Give three examples where we have found drugs that can reverse epigenetic changes and be used as treatments

A
  1. schizophrenia - D2 + D4 genes
  2. depression 5-HTTLPR
  3. OCD - COMT + SERT
161
Q

T/F - only genes contribute to the development of illnesses

A

FALSE - both genes and the enviroment do - the environment changes the expression of genes to produce a phenptype that is different from the genotype

162
Q

Explain the diathesis-stress model of disease in 4 steps

A
  1. your health is like a road surface on a suspension bridge
  2. good health requires the right condiitons (strong supporting cables etc. etc.)
  3. adding risky cables decreases the roads efficiency under load (stress)
  4. severe stress on a risky bridge will lead to a complete breakdown of the surface
163
Q

What are the three things that make up our phenotypes?

A

environment, genotype and epigenotype

164
Q

Define transcription

A

reading of information in DNA/genes by enzymes

165
Q

define methylation

A

a methyl group suppresses gene expression by closing the histone structure

166
Q

define acetylation

A

an acetyl group promotes gene expression by opening the histone structure

167
Q

What are reader proteins

A

proteins that stimulate/change activity by binding (eg. neurotransmitters)

168
Q

What are writer enzymes

A

enzymes that add methyl or acetyl groups

169
Q

what are eraser enzymes

A

enzymes that remove methyl or acetyl groups

170
Q

define genotype

A

the information present in DNA

171
Q

define phenotype

A

the result of the expression of your DNA in the environment

172
Q

define phenotype

A

the result of the expression of your DNA in the environment

173
Q

what is the diathesis-stress model

A

a model of disease that sees nature and nurture as interacting forces

Psychology (12 decks)

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