Biology Destroyer part 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

cholesterol is the precursor to

A

steroid hormones such as cortisone, cortisol, progesterone, estrogen, testosterone, and aldosterone

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2
Q

epinephrine and thyroxin are ? derived

A

amino acid

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3
Q

ferns:

A
  • are vascular plants with large, feathery leaves
  • have large leaves with many veins
  • sori develops on the lower surface of the leaf
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4
Q

sori

A

clusters of sporangia

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5
Q

fern sports develop on the

A

sporophyte in sporangia

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6
Q

reverse transcriptase is found in

A

retroviruses

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7
Q

small uncharged polar molecules and lipids can readily move through a

A

selectively permeable membrane

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8
Q

fungi contain the polymer

A

chitin

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9
Q

most digestion occurs in the

A

small intestine

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10
Q

the developing embryo will most likely attach to the

A

endometriu,

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11
Q

mitosis makes up about ? % of the cell cycle

A

10%

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12
Q

Photosynthesis:

  • CO2 is the carbon source in sugar produced
  • the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the thylakoid membrane
  • the source of O2 produced is the H2O that is split during the light reaction
  • the product of the dark reaction of photosynthesis is glucose (sugar)
A

.

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13
Q

an organism belonging to a ? species will be distinctly male or female.

A

dioecious; examples are mammals and most reptiles

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14
Q

the greatest specie diversity is seen in the

A

tropical forest

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15
Q

what is the major form of carbon in the atmosphere

A

carbon dioxide

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16
Q

secondary succession will occur to an area

A

that once had life, such as in the case of a forest fire

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17
Q

bacteria illustrate an R-selected population.

A

.

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18
Q

R-selected population

A

we see rapid growth, numerous offspring, fast maturation, and very little postnatal care is needed.

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19
Q

Humans illustrate a K-selected population

A

.

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20
Q

K-selected population

A

is one in which the members have low reproductive rates and are roughly constant in size

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21
Q

a study revealed that the haploid stage of a life cycle dominated. which organism is most likely being depicted:

A

a fungi

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22
Q

agonistic behavior

A

can result if two animals conflict over a mate or food source

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23
Q

xylem will transport

A

water and minerals from the soil throughout a plant

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24
Q

the casparian strip is a

A

waxy band in plants that aid in water control

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25
Q

the main solute transported by the phloem is

A

sucrose

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26
Q

glycogen is a branched polymer of

A

glucose

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27
Q

glycogen represents a stored energy called ? and is found in

A

called “potential energy” and is found in skeletal muscle and liver

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28
Q

starch and glycogen are polymers of

A

alpha glucose

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29
Q

glycogen can be stored

A

intracellularly

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30
Q

the B-pleated sheet represents a

A

secondary structure held together by hydrogen bonds

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31
Q

the alpha helix is held together by

A

hydrogen bonds

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32
Q

myoglobin has a single chain.

A

.

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33
Q

hemoglobin contains a

A

quarternary structure

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34
Q

most CO2 in the body is transported in the blood as:

A

HCO3-, the bicarbonate ion.

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35
Q

in the glomerular filtrate, which molecule should be completely reabsorbed? where does reabsorption take place

A

glucose; proximal convoluted tubule

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36
Q

which organelle is present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

ribosomes

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37
Q

action potentials cause the release of

A

neurotransmitters into the synapse

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38
Q

at rest, [K+] inside (</>) [K+]outside

A

[K+]inside > [K+]outside

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39
Q

few Na+ ions enter a cell under

A

resting conditions

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40
Q

a neurotransmitter is removed from the synapse either by

A

enzyme degradation, re-uptake or simple diffusion

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41
Q

nerve gases are inhibitors of

A

acetylcholinesterase, and cause death by respiratory paralysis

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42
Q

Tay-Sachs disease:

A
  • a critical lysosomal enzyme is absent
  • brain cells develop a lipid buildup
  • it is an autosomal recessive disorder
  • it is fatal in the first five years of human life
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43
Q

blood pressure =

A

cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance

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44
Q

as the radius of a blood vessel decreases,

A

velocity and blood pressure incerase

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45
Q

as cardiac output increases, blood pressure

A

increases

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46
Q

increasing stroke volume increases

A

blood pressure

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47
Q

blood pressure is indirectly related to vessel radius to the fourth power. BP =

A

BP= cardiac output/R^4

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48
Q

blood pressure is directly related to cardiac output, as well as PVR and stroke volume.

A

.

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49
Q

smooth muscle:

  • found in the aorta, pulmonary artery, esophagus, and bladder
  • is mononucleated
  • involuntary muscle that is slow to contract
  • respond to stimulation with action potentials
A

.

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50
Q

the food and air passages cross where:

A

pharynx

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51
Q

hydrogen peroxide (H2O2):

  • catalase can convert hydrogen peroxide to H2O2 and O2 since it is toxic to cells
  • it can be an oxidant (oxidizing agent) such as that found in toothpaste
  • peroxisomes are membranous vesicles that contain enzymes to break down H2O2
A

.

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52
Q

which buffer system works primarily in the intracellular fluids?

A

phosphate buffer; H2PO4- and HPO4– act as the acid and base respectively. phosphate is an abundant anion in cells and will act as the major intracellular buffer. the pH of the extracellular fluid is maintained by the bicarbonate buffer i.e. HCO3-/H2CO3 system

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53
Q

sequence for inspired air:

A

nasal cavity->trachea->bronchus->bronchiole->alveoli

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54
Q

the main function of the large intestine is the

A

resorption of water, sodium, and other minerals

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55
Q

the large intestine harbors bacteria which are the main source of vitamin ? production

A

vitamin K

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56
Q

the bulk of feces consists of

A

bacteria, cellulose fibers, and other indigestible substances

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57
Q

glucose and other sugars are absorbed into the blood from the intestinal tract and reach the liver via the

A

portal vein

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58
Q

consider the following experiment involving Xenopus tadpoles: the tadpole nucleus was inserted into an enucleated egg from a frog that was fertilized. in some cases, the result was several normal tadpoles. what concept does this illustrate?

A

cell differentiation

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59
Q

a sperm cell is unable to fertilize oocytes upon immediate ejaculation, which process must occur first?

A

capacitation

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60
Q

malphigian tubules are the excretory organ of

A

insects

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61
Q

aquatic animals such as bony fish excrete

A

ammonia because it is easily eliminated in water

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62
Q

birds,insects, and reptiles excrete

A

uric acid

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63
Q

cells of the proximal convoluted tubule have a huge abundance of

A

mitochondria

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64
Q

which protein is associated with a flagellum

A

dynein “motor protein”; also aids in chromosomal movement

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65
Q

flagella and cilia have (? + ?) arrangement of microtubules

A

9+2

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66
Q

dynein “arms” are attached to the microtubules and serve as molecular

A

motors

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67
Q

the cytoskeleton is contained within the

A

cytosol

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68
Q

what are the primary types of fibers comprising the cytoskeleton

A

microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments

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69
Q

the cytoskeleton is

A

a network of protein fibers that gives shape to a cell, protects the cell by maintaining structural integrity, and is involved in cellular movements such as contraction and gliding.

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70
Q

intermediate fibers are made of

A

keratin

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71
Q

microtubules are built by

A

tubulin

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72
Q

microfilaments are built by

A

actin

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73
Q

cilia would be most affected by a drug that causes destruction of:

A

microtubules

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74
Q

if a sample of organismal DNA contains 14% thymine, what percentage of cytosine does it contain?

A

%A=%T and %C=%G/ therefore 14%T=14%A…adds up to 28. 100-28=72%…72%/2=36%…therefore 36% of cystosine

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75
Q

during gastrulation, the three primary germ layers are formed:

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

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76
Q

acid hydrolases are contained in which cellular organelle

A

lysosome

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77
Q

skin:

  • the epidermis has no blood supply
  • the stratum corneum is the surface layer which varies considerably in thickness
  • the stratum granulosum is that layer containing granules which can easily stain
  • the stratum germinativum contains dividing cells
A

.

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78
Q

determinate cleavage is a characteristic of

A

protosomes (mollusk, annelids, and arthropods)

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79
Q

protostomes include

A

mollusks, annelids, and arthropods

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80
Q

fluid mosaic model for cell membranes:

  • membrane proteins are embedded in the lipid bilayer
  • both proteins and lipids are free to move laterally in the plane of the bilayer
  • movement of proteins and lipids is restricted if movement occurs from one face of the bilayer to the other
  • carbohydrate moieties attached to either lipids or proteins are exposed to extracellular face of the membrane.
A

.

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81
Q

crossing over occurs in

A

prophase I of meiosis

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82
Q

trisomy 21 is also called

A

down syndrome and is due to non-disjunction

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83
Q

the first meiotic division of an egg cell produces one large cell and one small cell; the smaller cell forming a polar body.

A

.

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84
Q

the father apart the genes are the, greater the probability of

A

crossing over

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85
Q

a genetic map involved using

A

crossover frequencies

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86
Q

the theory or acquired characteristics is associated with:

A

Lamark

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87
Q

Larmarkian theory

A

proposed that characteristics acquired by one generation can be inherited by the next. although it is now clear that the theory is FLASE.

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88
Q

enzymes:

  • a competitive inhibitor resembles the substrate and competes for the active site
  • the active site may contain non-protein constituents which are needed for catalytic efficiency
  • in non-competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site
  • addition of more substrate can overcome a competitive inhibitor
A

.

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89
Q

inorganic molecules such as ? and ? were constituents believed to comprise the atmosphere the earliest on earth

A

NH3 and H2O

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90
Q

most scientists believe that RNA was utilized as the genetic information before

A

DNA developed

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91
Q

the first cellular organisms were likely

A

anaerobic heterotrophs

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92
Q

protobionts preceded living cells and were able to maintain an internal environment different from that of their surroundings.

A

.

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93
Q

desmosomes

A

attach cells together and give cells mechanical strength, and are abundant in cells such as skin

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94
Q

tight junctions

A

seal the spaces between cells and prevent cell leakage

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95
Q

intestinal cells

A

are surrounded by tight junctions that prevent any intestinal content to seep out.

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96
Q

gap junction

A

will allow cells to exchange nutrients and for “molecular communication”

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97
Q

Down syndrome:

  • it may originate through nondisjunction of chromosome 21
  • failure of paired homologous to disjoin during Anaphase I or II could result in down syndrome
  • it is an autosomal disorder which occurs equally in both sexes.
A

.

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98
Q

keratin:

  • keratins are a family of fibrous proteins
  • keratin is found in mammals, reptiles, bird, and amphibians
  • claws, horns, hooves and nails of animals contain keratin
  • the epidermis is almost waterproof because of its keratin matrix
A

.

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99
Q

autosomal recessive disorder:

  • heterozygotes generally show no symptoms
  • when both parents are heterozygous, 50% of the children will be heterozygous
  • sickle cell anemia, PKU disease, and galactosemia are examples of autosomal recessive disorders
  • sons and daughter are equally likely to inherit a particular autosomal allele
A

.

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100
Q

which structure allows spindle microtubules to become attached

A

kinetochore

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101
Q

consider the following ancestral vertebrates: bony fish, jawless fish, mammals, reptiles, birds, and amphibians. arrange them in correct chronological order from oldest to most recent.

A

jawless fish, bony fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, mammals.

TIP:begin with jawless fish, bony fish. and then say “A Real Bad Man”

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102
Q

an animal-like protist that uses pseudopodia to move and feed is

A

amoeba

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103
Q

euglena uses a

A

flagellum

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104
Q

the paramecium uses its

A

cilia

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105
Q

surfactant reduces surface tension and allows the fetus to breathe easier.

A

.

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106
Q

surfactants are substances present in the alveoli of the lungs.

A

.

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107
Q

without adequate quantities of surfactant, an infant would have difficultly breathing.

A

.

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108
Q

fertilization occurs in the

A

fallopian tube

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109
Q

little, if any increase in size occurs during gastrulation.

A

.

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110
Q

a morula of about 32 cells can be seen in the fallopian tube.

A

.

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111
Q

implantation of the blastocyst occurs with the

A

endometrial lining the uterus.

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112
Q

around the sixth day, the blastocyst begins to attach to the endometrium of the uterus. About 24 hours after fertilization in the fallopian tube, the zygote undergoes mitosis, giving rise to two daughter cells. These cells in turn divide into 4 cells, then 8, then 16, and so forth. With each subsequent division, the cells become smaller and smaller. This is called cleavage. After about 3 days, a solid ball of about 32 cells form; it is called a morula. The embryo does not grow during cleavage. The morula cells continue to divide for 4 days to form a blastocyst that implants in the uterus. This implantation in the uterus (endometrium) occurs about day 6.

A

.

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113
Q

the light energy form the sum is the ultimate source of energy for the vast majority of organisms on planet earth. This energy is harvested and converted into various forms. Which law of thermodynamics is illustrated?

A

first law of thermodynamics

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114
Q

which structure is found between heart muscle cells?

A

intercalated disks

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115
Q
ATP synthase is associated with which of the following?
ribosomes
chloroplasts
mitochondria
golgi body
A

chloroplasts and mitochondria

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116
Q

the more highly specialized a tissue is, the less will be its capacity for regeneration.

A

.

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117
Q

cartilage arises from

A

mesenchyme

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118
Q

cartilage can be found in the

A

trachea, external ear, larynx, and external auditory canal

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119
Q

cartilage is an avascular form of

A

connective tissue

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120
Q

A gastrula was exposed briefly to a weak penetrating beam of alpha particles. which tissue would be most affected as development proceeded?

A

only the outermost gastrula layer would be damaged since a weak beam of alpha particles was used. the outermost layer is called the ectoderm. nervous system tissue is derived from this layer and would most likely be affected to the greatest extent.

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121
Q

birds:

  • are warm-blooded and have a 4 chambered heart
  • classified in class Aves
  • the penguin and ostrich are birds that cannot fly
A

.

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122
Q

what is the fate of lactic acid produced in muscles?

A

it enter the Cori cycle

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123
Q

the blood transports lactate to the

A

liver

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124
Q

Cori cycle allows the conversion of

A

lactate back into glucose, which can be carried back to the muscles via the blood.

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125
Q

the glyoxylate cycle occurs in

A

plants and bacteria

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126
Q

B-oxidation of fatty acids occur in the

A

matrix of the mitochondria

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127
Q

fatty acid oxidation results in the

A

formation of Acetyl CoA

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128
Q

fatty acid synthesis occurs in the

A

cytosol

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129
Q

protein molecules may be modified by addition of sulfate, carbohydrate, or lipid groups to the side chains of certain amino acids. which cellular organelles best describes this primary modification site?

A

Golgi complex

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130
Q

columnar epithelial tissue

A

these cells occur in one or more layers and are elongated. usually found near the base of the cell. some can be ciliated and found in the nose and fallopian tubes

131
Q

cuboidal

A

square shaped cells; can be found in ducts of the glands

132
Q

squamous

A

thin flat plates with elliptical nuclei

133
Q

cloning:

  • has been done on mice, cows, pigs, rabbits, and goats
  • pig tissues and organs are very similar to humans
  • an animal can be cloned by a technique called somatic cell nuclear transfer
  • if a clone has chromosomes with short telomeres, it will likely age faster than normal
A

.

134
Q

ways in which foreign DNA can be introduced into an organism’s genome

A

microinjection and viral vectors

135
Q

a sheep was the world’s first clone of an adult mammal

A

.

136
Q

recombinant DNA technology can be employed to make molecules such as human insulin.

A

.

137
Q

recombinant DNA technology or genetic engineering is often called

A

cloning

138
Q

plasmids may contain as few as two genes or as many as several hundred.

A

.

139
Q

if a plasmid becomes incorporated into a chromosome, it is called

A

an episome

140
Q

plasmids are double-stranded circular

A

DNA

141
Q

what is a promoter site?

A

the site on DNA at which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription

142
Q

a suitable vector for recombinant DNA cloning can be

A

plasmids and bacteriophages

143
Q

recent studies have indicated that insulin-producing B-cells undergo cellular death in diabetes. This is an example of:

A

apoptosis

144
Q

hypertrophy

A

the increase in size of a cell

145
Q

a single gene sometimes affects many traits in an organism. this is called

A

pleiotrophy

146
Q

epistatic gene

A

one that covers up the expression of another gene in the phenotype. two genes are involved in the so called “cover-up” or epistasis. such interactions are common among gene pairs that affect skin color or fur color in mammals.

147
Q

the phenomenon that occurs when one gene pair masks or modifies the expression of another gene pair is called:

A

epistasis

148
Q

consider the insulin receptor. this receptor allows insulin to bind and triggers a conformational change within the receptor subunits. insulin can be acting as a(n):

A

ligand

149
Q

ligands

A

bind to and form a complex with biomolecules such as receptors. can include: substrates, activators, inhibitors, hormones, and neurotransmitters

150
Q

which structure contains the hydrolytic enzymes needed to breakdown the protective surface of an egg cell?

A

acrosome

151
Q

acrosome

A

is a membrane-bound structure found at the anterior end of most sperm cells. the acrosome contains hyaluronidase, which is a hydrolytic enzyme that causes the breakdown of the protective surfaces of the egg.

152
Q

what biome contains lichens, low-growing shrubs, and mosses and is cold.

A

tundra

153
Q

exons are

A

the DNA bases that are transcribed

154
Q

introns are

A

DNA bases which can be found between exons, but are not translated.

155
Q

in most mammalian cells, only 1% of the DNA sequence is copied into

A

mRNA

156
Q

exons will code for

A

proteins

157
Q

a dental student administers Novocain, a local anesthetic, to her patient. why would this prevent an action potential from occurring?

A

blockage of Na+ voltage gated channels.

158
Q

the pattern before, during, and after an action potential:

A
  • polarization: inside negative with respect to outside
  • depolarization: inside now becomes positive
  • repolarization: inside negative again
159
Q

as the diameter of an axon increase, there is a

A

decrease in electrical resistance along its length

160
Q

a self-propagating wave of depolarization down the axon is called an

A

action potential

161
Q

as the diameter of a nerve fiber increases, we decrease

A

electrical resistance, hence speed incerases

162
Q

the precursor to the prokaryotic cell is believed to be the

A

protobiont

163
Q

protobionts are

A

metabolically active protein clusters

164
Q

protobionts> prokaryotes> eukaryotes> amphibians > reptiles > primates

A

.

165
Q

a circus lion learns to stand up on a chair and jump through a hoop to receive a tasty treat. this is an example of:

A

operant conditioning

166
Q

operant conditioning

A

an animal learns to associate a voluntary activity with the consequences that follow. THINK REWARD OR REINFORCEMENT; reinforcement can be positive or negative

167
Q

in classical or Pavlovian conditioning

A

we see a physical response to a stimulus from the environment.

168
Q

imprinting

A

if an animal is exposed to a specific stimulus in its early development, it can form an association with that object

169
Q

habituation

A

a repeated stimulus creates a decreased response. for example, a barking dog scared a child, over a period of time the child becomes less shared.

170
Q

spermatogenesis and oogenesis in the vertebrate differ in that:

A

four functional spermatozoa are produced in spermatogenesis, whereas oogenesis produces one functional ovum

171
Q

which organism lacks a notochord during its embryonic development?

A

earthworm (Porifera, Cnidarian, Platyhelminthes, Nematodes, and Annelids all lack notochord)

172
Q

notochord is derived from cells of the

A

mesoderm

173
Q

notochord is

A

a cartilaginous rod that extends from the head to the tail in the embryo of all chordates

174
Q

nondisjunction causes errors in

A

chromosome number such as in trisomy 21

175
Q

if nondisjunction occurs, one cell could get both chromosomes and the other cell

A

none

176
Q

individuals with down syndrome are prone to leukemia and alzheimer’s disease.

A

.

177
Q

during nondisjunction an egg or sperm cell may lack or have an additional

A

chromosome

178
Q

which of the following is a plant-like protist?

A

volvox

179
Q

a paramecium is

A

a unicelled protozoa

180
Q

a mold is

A

a fungi that can release tiny spored into the air

181
Q

an amoeba is

A

a single-celled protist that moved by pseudopodia

182
Q

action potentials:

  • as stimulus intensity increases, the number of action potentials increase
  • as stimulus intensity increases, the amplitude and speed remain constant
  • action potentials move faster along fibers that are thick
A

.

183
Q

why does the drug, 3-azido-3-deoxythymidine or AZT, interfere with DNA replication?

A

the molecule lacks an OH group at C-3, thus no nucleophile is present to react with the 5’-triphosphate group of a growing polynucleotide chain

184
Q

mandible

A

the strongest bone of the face

185
Q

foramen magnum

A

skull cavity that allows passage of the spinal cord

186
Q

TMJ joint

A

attaches the lower jaw to the upper jaw

187
Q

foramen

A

a natural opening where vessels such as nerves may pass

188
Q

which of the following characteristics can be applied to arthropods such as a crayfish?

A
  • they have open circulatory systems
  • they have chitinous exoskeletons
  • they have body segmentation
  • they have bilateral symmetry
189
Q

prostate gland:

  • the gland secretes a milky fluid with a pH>7
  • it functions to neutralize the acidic seminal fluid
  • it enhances sperm motility
  • the prostatic fluid aids to neutralize the acidic vaginal secretion
A

.

190
Q

ruminants:

  • are mammals such as cow in which the stomach has an alkaline pH
  • have a stomach that is divided into four interconnected sacs
  • sheep, cows, and deer can digest cellulose
A

.

191
Q

during inspiration:

  • the lung becomes inflated
  • the thoracic pressure decreases as the thoracic cavity size increases
  • the diaphragm moves downward
  • the phrenic nerves carry impulses to the diaphragm and allows contraction
A

/

192
Q

constriction of an artery will

A

increase blood pressure

193
Q

dilation of an artery will

A

decrease blood pressure

194
Q

blood travels slowest in the

A

capillaries

195
Q

veins often have valves that allow blood to flow only in one direction.

A

.

196
Q

pulmonary veins carry

A

oxygenated blood.

197
Q

histamine

A

is a vasodilator contained in basophils and mast cells

198
Q

macrophages produce a cytokine called

A

Interleukin-1

199
Q

helper T cells produce

A

Interleukin-2

200
Q

interleukins can activate

A

cytotoxic cells, B cells, and other helper T cells

201
Q

helper T cells

A

mobilize both humoral and cell-mediated branches of the immune system

202
Q

a storm approaches a mountain and undergoes an orthographic lift in which all the rain is removed, as it leaves virtually no moisture on the other side of the mountain. the area without moisture is called a:

A

rain shadow

203
Q

a species displays very little genetic or morphological change. however if this period of equilibrium is interrupted by environmental events, which result in a new species produced in a relatively short period of time, it is called:

A

punctuated equilibrium

204
Q

which blood vessel contains the strongest and thickest wall?

A

artery

205
Q

arteries are comprised of three layers (tunics)

A

endothelial lining, middle layer of smooth muscle and elastic tissue, and an outer layer of connective tissue

206
Q

the development of individuals from unfertilized eggs is called

A

parthenogenesis; example male honeybees

207
Q

sporangia are found in

A

ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms, algae, fungi, and bryophytes

208
Q

which fungal pathogen would most likely be involved in food spoilage?

A

rhizopus

209
Q

in monocots, the stem vascular bundles are scattered.

A

.

210
Q

in monocots, the leaves have parallel veins.

A

.

211
Q

conifers are the oldest and largest trees of the world.

A

.

212
Q

the gymnosperms were the first plants to have seeds.

A

.

213
Q

evolutionary path: byrophytes > gymnosperms > angiosperms

A

.

214
Q

consider the following metabolic pathway for the hypothetical synthesis of compound Q:
A-(1)->B-(2)->C-(3)->D-(4)->E-(5)->Q
the pathway is regulated by feedback inhibition.

A

Q is most likely the inhibitor, and step 1 is the most likely inhibited step

215
Q

which organism contains a flagellum for locomotion and often has chloroplasts?

A

euglena

216
Q

electrophoresis in the presence of the detergent called SDA will separate proteins on the basis of

A

mass.

217
Q

after electrophoresis, the proteins can be seen when a dye such as ? is added

A

Coomassie Blue

218
Q

consider the cell life cycle. which stage is normally the longest?

A

G1; organelles such as mitochondria are produced during this stage

219
Q

a cytotoxic cell (killer T-cell):

  • are involved in destroying cancer cells
  • directly kill cells having antigen on their surface
  • develops in the thymus gland and do not release antibodies
  • use the protein perforin to lyse their targets
A

.

220
Q

during the light reaction of photosynthesis electrons are transferred from water to ? and ? is produced

A

NADP+; ATP

221
Q

light reaction:

  • ATP is produced
  • water is oxidized
  • NADP+ is reduced

2NADP+ + ADP + Pi + 2H2O ->
O2 + 2NADPH + 2H+ + ATP

A

.

222
Q

which hormone inhibits peristalsis and acid secretion by the stomach

A

enterogastrone

223
Q

enterogastrone is released by the

A

duodenum

224
Q

cholecystokinin cases

A

the gall bladder to contract; it is also made in teh duodenum

225
Q

secretin signals the

A

pancreas to release bicarbonate (a buffer) which can neutralize the acidic chyme.

226
Q

what is made in the duodenum?

A

secretin, cholecystokin, and enterogastrone

227
Q

An organism has the following genotype: HhGgLLKk. how many different types of gametes could be produced?

A

n=heterozygotes
n=3
gametes formed = 2^n = 2^3= 8

228
Q

chromatography separates proteins according to

A

size

229
Q

insulin:

  • a hormone that promote the entry of glucose and some amino acids into muscle and fat cells
  • lowers the level of blood glucose
  • derived from pro-insulin and preproinsulin
  • act by binding to receptors located in the plasma membrane of target cells
A

.

230
Q

hormones are intercellular messengers produced by

A

ductless glands

231
Q

hormones can be

A

steroid or peptide derived

232
Q

steroids may bind directly to receptors in the

A

nucleus

233
Q

when a steroid binds to a nuclear receptor, we see an alteration of the rate in which specific genes are transcribed and translated into

A

proteins

234
Q

which ion binds to troponin during muscle contraction

A

Ca++; causes it to change shape

235
Q

angiosperms are the flowering plants and include

A

apple trees, corm, and roses

236
Q

angiosperms produce ? and are characterized by ?

A

seeds; fruits

237
Q

pine trees are

A

gymnosperms

238
Q

ATP molecule:

  • the hydrolysis of ATP is exergonic
  • ATP hydrolysis releases energy that can be utilized to drive endergonic reactions
  • at pH=7, ATP is negatively charged
  • ATP is the universal carrier of free-energy in biochemical systems
A

.

239
Q

which second messenger will activate Ca++ channels?

A

IP3

240
Q

cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP will activate

A

protein kinases

241
Q

NO will be involved in

A

relaxing smooth muscle.

242
Q

cyclic AMP -> AMP is catalyzed by

A

phosphodiesterase

243
Q

ATP -> cyclic AMP is catalyzed by

A

adenylate cyclase, and integral membrane protein

244
Q

which features have allowed amphibians to successfully invade land?

A

lungs, legs, redesigned heart, and the ability to develop a means to prevent drying ofthe skin

245
Q

amphibians are believed to have descended from

A

air-breathing lobe-fin fishes

246
Q

ligand-gated channels are illustrated in

A

acetylcholine receptors

247
Q

ligand-gated channels are controlled by a substance present in the extracellular fluid to the receptor. an excited neuron releases acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. it is here on the postsynaptic neuron that acetylcholine interacts with acetylcholine receptor and triggers an impulse. binding causes a conformational change that opens the channel. the acetylcholine is the ligand. now, Na+ rush in, K+ move out; the Na+ influx depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane, initiating an action potential. Voltage gated channels such as K+, Na+ are controlled by the voltage across the membrane due to concentration gradients of ions.

A

.

248
Q

facultative anaerobic bacteria:

  • include E.coli
  • do not require O2, but grow better when it is present
  • the human intestine may harbor facultative anaerobic bacteria
A

.

249
Q

obligate anaerobic bacteria are killed by

A

O2.

250
Q

any gene that has the potential to induce cancerous transformation is called a(n):

A

oncogene

251
Q

prion

A

is a “protein infectious particle” that is composed of a protein that has adopted an abnormal conformation

252
Q

Ozone, O3:

  • is split by sunlight, but quickly reforms
  • converts much of the harmful ultraviolet light into heat energy
A

.

253
Q

reduction in the ozone layer by the use of fluorohydrocarbons would likely cause an increase in

A

cataracts and skin cancer

254
Q

the early earth had very little free oxygen, a condition that favored the formation of life.

A

.

255
Q

which behavioral pattern precede mating in most animals?

A

courtship behavior

256
Q

in self-sacrificial behavior

A

members help other individuals survive and reproduce- at personal cost

257
Q

appeasement behavior

A

allows dominant hierarchies to be maintained and will inhibit other animals from attacking.

258
Q

agonistic behavior

A

may or may not result in physical combat

259
Q

a sperm cell comes in contact with the jelly coat surrounding an egg cell known as the

A

zuna pellucida

260
Q

the high motility of sperm is due to the abundant mitochondria located in the

A

midpiece of the sperm

261
Q

the sperm cell has very little cytoplasm as compared to an egg cell.

A

.

262
Q

the carrying capacity of a population is:

A

the number of individuals in a species that can be sustained by the available resources in a given area

263
Q

phase contrast microscopy can be used to view

A

live cells; no staining is required

264
Q

dark field microscopy views

A

live cells or flagella that are too think to be seen by phase contrast microscopy

265
Q

electron scanning microscopy may be employed to view

A

microbial surfaces; cells are not alive

266
Q

electron microscopes reveal many

A

organelles, but the chemical and physical methods employed kill the cells

267
Q

following death, ATP production ceases along with other metabolic activities and biochemical pathways. in all skeletal muscles, cross-bridges remain locked in place. what term best applies?

A

rigor mortis

268
Q

an increase in size of a tissue or organ is called

A

hypertrophy

269
Q

a change from one cell type to another such as inflammanion or irritation is called

A

metaplasia

270
Q

an increase in cell members

A

hyperplasia

271
Q

a decrease in cell size

A

atrophy

272
Q

almost complete failure of development

A

aplasia

273
Q

glucose-6-phosphate -> fructose-6-phosphate. what enzyme catalyzes this reaction?

A

phosphoglucose isomerase

274
Q

what represents strict anaerobes?

A

methanogens; they are poisoned by oxygen. they convert H2 and CO2 into methane.

275
Q

methanogens can be found in

A

the gut of elephants, cow, and other ruminants

276
Q

methanogens live in

A

swamps and marshes

277
Q

specificity constant, K

A
  • is the ratio between Kcat and Km:
  • K=Kcat/Km.
  • the larger the ratio, the more efficient the enzyme will be
278
Q

a sperm cell and an egg cell unite to produce a zygote this process is called fertilization or:

A

syngamy

279
Q

transformation

A

a change in phenotype due to the assimilation of external genetic material

280
Q

DNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine, transcribed in groups of three with possible base repetition. how many codons would be possible?

A

4^3=64 codons

281
Q

how are dizygotic twins produced?

A

2 eggs: 2 sperm; or fraternal twins

282
Q

monozygotic twins are produced from

A

the same zygote and as a result are genetically identical. (identical twins)

283
Q

in plants and some bacteria, acetyl-CoA can serve as the starting compound for the biosynthesis of carbohydrates. what is the name of this reactive sequence?

A

glyoxylate cycle

284
Q

the hexose monophosphate shunt, also known as the pentose phosphate pathway, converts

A

glucose into five-carbon sugars and generates NADPH which is used in reductive biosynthesis of lipids.

285
Q

joints:

A

junction between bones

286
Q

ACL ligament:

A
  • limits rotational knee movement

- connects femur and tibia

287
Q

femur:

A

longest bone in the body

288
Q

knee:

A

hinge joint which allows movement in one plane

289
Q

ball and socket joints:

A

allow movements in all planes

290
Q

ovules contain the

A

female gametophyte

291
Q

the cell walls of fungi contain

A

chitin

292
Q

gymnosperms produce seeds and have

A

pollen

293
Q

yeasts are ? fungi

A

unicellular

294
Q

pollen grains represent the

A

immature male gametophyte

295
Q

sclera:

A

white portion of the eye

296
Q

cornea:

A

allows light to enter the eye

297
Q

retina:

A

inner layer of eye containing photoreceptors

298
Q

iris:

A

colored portion of the eye

299
Q

vitreous humor:

A

makes up most of the eye volume; made up of a jelly-like substance

300
Q

which molecule participates in endocytosis by forming a polyhedral lattice around coated pits?

A

clathrin

301
Q

spectrin

A

found in erythrocytes that enable them to resist strong shearing forces

302
Q

which cell is involved in the synthesis of extracellular matrix and collagen?

A

fibroblast cells; the most common type of cell found in connective tissue

303
Q

aorta:

A

vessel with the highest blood pressure

304
Q

bradycardia:

A

slow heart rate

305
Q

trachycardia:

A

abnormally fast heartbeat

306
Q

coronary artery:

A

aortic branch that supplies blood to the heart

307
Q

monometer:

A

measures gas pressures

308
Q

sphygmomanometer:

A

measures blood pressure

309
Q

what is the main form of calcium in the bone

A

calcium phosphate

310
Q

cleavage begins while the zygote is still present in the fallopian tube.

A

.

311
Q

fertilization > morula > blastula > gastrula

A

.

312
Q

during ovulation, the follicle ruptures and releases a secondary oocyte.

A

.

313
Q

in hard-shelled eggs, the allantois stores waste from protein metabolism.

A

.

314
Q

in humans the allantois is involved in oxygen and nutrient transport and becomes part of the placenta. eventually, the allantois stalk becomes the umbilical cord.

A

.

315
Q

restriction emzymes

A

endonucleases that cut DNA at specific internal nucleotides

316
Q

DNA ligase

A

used to seal DNA fragments together

317
Q

vectors

A

vehicles that bring foreign DNS into a cell. i.e. plasmids and viruses

318
Q

DNA polymerase

A

enzyme that builds new DNA molecules

319
Q

primase

A

provides the primer (RNA sequence) that initiates DNA synthesis

320
Q

action patterns (or stereotypes)

A

are behaviors that an animal always repeats. ex: beewolf wasps encircling its nest before it hunts.

321
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

major repair enzyme in DNA repair

322
Q

DNA polymerase II

A

specialized for DNA repair

323
Q

DNA polymerase III

A

major enzyme involved in DNA replication, not repair.