Biology Destroyer part 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

left lung

A

has 2 lobes; smaller than the right lung and has a cardiac notch to allow room for the heart and its vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

right lung

A

has 3 lobes; larger than the left lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

sensory or afferent neurons

A

carry nerve impulses from peripheral body parts into the brain or spinal cord; closely related with receptor cells located in the skin or sensory organs such as the eye or nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

motor neuron (efferent)

A

associated with muscles and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

microarray technology

A

allows a researcher to examine many genes and determine which are expressed in a particular cell type. *this technique will allow you to determine gene expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

microarray

A

a microscope slide containing thousands of individual genes place in discrete spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DNA microarrays

A

can be used to detect DNA or RNA that may or may not be translated into proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

monotreme

A

a mammal that lays eggs. ex: platypuses and echidnas (spiny anteaters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

marsupial

A

a mammal that completes embryonic development in a pouch. ex: kangaroo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

chitin

A

a polysaccharide containing glucose molecules with nitrogen groups attached. it is actually a polymer of amino sugars. the cell walls of many fungi contain chitin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sodium potassium pump

A
  • an integral protein.
  • actively pumps 3 Na+ out of a cell and 2 K+ into a cell against their gradients.
  • uses ATP
  • drugs such as Oubain and Digitalis stops the pump and Na+ will build up inside the cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

illeocecal valve

A
  • is at the junction of the small and large intestine.

- will prevent the contents of the large intestine from entering the small intestine, and vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

valves in the heart

A

semilunar and mitral valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

colchicine

A
  • an alkaloid
  • inhibits the polymerization of tubulin into microtubules
  • mitosis would stop if colchicine is present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

thyroid gland produces:

A
  • calcitonin and iodine-containing hormones: thyroxine and triiodothyronine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones

A

influence growth, development and overall metabolic rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ingestion of radioactive I-131 is a method employed to determine?

A

thyroid activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

blood enter the glomerulus via the ____ arteriole and leaves via the ____ arteriole.

A

afferent, efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if the efferent arteriole is constricted blood cannot flow passed the constricted point; this causes

A

an increase in the glomerular pressure as blood backs up into the glomerulus consequently the glomerular hydrostatic pressure is increases and the filtration rate rises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

if the afferent arteriole is constricted; blood flow is

A

diminished, hydrostatic pressure is decreased, and filtration decreases. sympathetic innervations of the kidneys primarily will affect the afferent arterioles and causes constriction and would reduce the urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

steroid hormones

A

estrogen, testosterone, and progesterone.

bind to nuclear receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

insulin will bind to

A

a cell-surface receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

unique feature of angiosperms is

A

double fertilization of the egg nucleus and of the central nucleus. one sperm nucleus fertilizes the egg; we form a 2N zygote. the other sperm nucleus fertilizes the two haploid central nuclei forming a 3N endosperm nucleus, which is a nutritive tissue. the endosperm will provide nutrients to developing embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

earthworm and salt

A
  • the amount of salt is critical to an earthworm’s survival
  • the skin of an earthworm secretes mucous which keeps the skin moist
  • moist skin is needed for gas exchange, since earthworm have no respiratory organs
  • salt can destroy the sensitive skin of the earthworm and cause death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

glycolysis is the single metabolic pathway that will occur in all living cells.

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

indeterminate cleavage of a zygote will allow

A

a human twin to be produced. in this type of cleavage, each cell that is made retains its capacity to develop into a viable embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hepatic vein

A
  • will allow blood to leave the liver.

- will empty into the inferior vena cava allowing blood to be returned to the general circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

liver problems can prevent the normal removal of bile pigments via the

A

digestive tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

if bile pigments such as bilirubin get into circulation, they can cuase

A

skin discoloration as seen in jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

autotrophs

A
  • make their own food
  • make organic molecules from inorganic raw materials which they get from the environment
  • ex are plants; a plant is actually a photoautotroph, it uses light energy to make proteins, lipid, and carbohydrates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

papillae

A

rough projections on the tongue surface that provides friction for handling food and contain taste buds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

papillary muscle

A

cone-shaped muscles located in the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

photoreceptors of the retina of the eye contain

A

rod and cone cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

rods

A

enable us to see at night, in black and white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

cones

A

respond to bright light and can distinguish colors in daylight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ciliary muscle of the eye is involved with

A

changing lens shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

echinoderms include

A

invertebrates as starfish, sea urchins, and sea cucumbers. there creatures lack segmentation seen in annelids, and the adults display radial symmetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

convergent evolution

A

displayed when two distinct species with differing ancestries evolve to yield similar physical features. ex: humming bird and sunbird

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

plutipotent stem cell arises in early embryo and gives rise to

A

erythrocytes, platelets, and a potential line of white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

thrombus

A

a blood clot; may cause a heart attack or stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

the kidney may produce ___ in the tissues that are not receiving enough oxygen; red blood cell production in the bone marrow is stimulated

A

erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

erythrocytes vs leukocytes (which is most abundant)

A

erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

during an injury, the release of ___ will cause vasodilation, and will allow ___ to squeeze out of the capillaries

A

during an injury, the release of histamine will cause vasodilation, and will allow white blood cells to squeeze out of the capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

myeloma cell

A

a cancer cell with the ability for indefinite growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

hybridoma

A
  • a lymphocyte fused with a modified myeloma cell.

- hybridoma cells can produce the desired antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

prostagladins

A

modified fatty acids which help induce fever, pain sensation, and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what may inhibit prostagladin activity?

A

aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

dual function of pancreas:

A
  • the exocrine tissue produces lipases, amylases and proteases, and exports them to the small intestine via the pancreatic duct.
  • the endocrine function is to produce hormones such as insulin and glucagno
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

norepinephrine may act with epinephrine to

A

increase glycogen breakdown and allow glucose release into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

norepinephrine can also as a

A

neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

the adrenal glands make hormones such as

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol and aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ecdysone

A

a hormone that is involved in insect molting and metamorphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

first trimester

A

is the main period in which organs develop. because of rapid development, the embryo is most sensitive to drugs and radiation which can cause birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

the embryo is called a fetus at

A

about 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

during the second trimester

A

the fetus is very active and the uterus will grow enough for pregnancy to be noticeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

helicases

A

are motor proteins that can help in unwinding nucleic acid strands using energy from ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

endonucleases

A

have the ability to cut DNA only at a particular sequence of nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

DNA ligase

A

is involved in repairing discontinuities in DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

dehydrogenases

A

are involved in redox reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

a bacterium can start a process called endosporulation, whereby

A

an endospore is produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

endospores

A

are resistant to extremes of temperature, chemicals, toxins, detergents, as well as radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

the cell wall of bacteria is made up of

A

peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

the plant cell wall is made of

A

cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

lymph nodes contain

A

B cells, T-cells, and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

large macrophages contain

A

fibril-like pseudopodia that can attach to a bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

macrophages

A

are the largest phagocytic cells and will phagocytize bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

fixed macrophages are very numerous in lymphatic organs such as the

A

spleen and lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

neutrophils have an average life span of

A

a few days and tend to self-destruct as foreign invaders are destroyed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

neutrophils make up about __ % of white blood cells

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

analogous structures

A
  • share no common ancestor but perform similar function
  • evolved independently and are built from different structures
  • ex: insect wings and those of birds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

fixed-action patterns

A
  • patterns that are not learned
  • a specific environmental stimulus triggers a complex, coordinated behavioral response
  • ex: reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

blood is composed of:

A

white blood cells, red blood cells, platelets, and plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

white blood cells include:

A

neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, basophils, and eosinophils.
neutrophils make up 60%, while the lymphocytes make up 30% of the white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

lymph

A

a tissue fluid that contains water, protein, salts, sugar and urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

lymphatic system

A
  • returns excess interstitial fluid to the blood
  • absorbs fats and fat-soluble vitamins from the digestive system and transports them to the venous circulation
  • provides a defense against micro-organisms; lymph nodes filter the lymph to remove foreign invaders, lymphatic organs such as the spleen contain lymphocytes that destroy these invaders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

in the center of the villi, we see

A

lacteals, these small capillaries absorb the fats and fat-soluble vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

at the base of the neck, the lymph enters the

A

subclavian veins and becomes plasma in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

a cascade is

A

a series of amplifying steps.
ex: epinephrine can bind to a receptor and cause a cascade which ultimately leads to glycogen breakdown. glucagon can also cause a cascade upon binding to a receptor. nerve growth factors are proteins that also regulate cell behavior by binding with receptors that can cause a biochemical cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

programmed cell death

A

or apoptosis, can help sculpt hands and feet as well as eyes during embryonic development. the cells between these structures die and separation occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

second law of thermodynamics:

A

in most energy systems, energy is partly converted to heat. there is an unstoppable move in the direction of disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

catabolism

A

refers to the breakdown of nutrients to provide energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

anabolism

A

is the synthesis of biomolecules from simpler compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

adenylyl cyclase is inactive until

A

epinephrine binds to receptor protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

the cyclic AMP functions as a

A

second messenger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Darwinian fitness refers to

A

the contribution that an individual will make to the gene pool of the next generation. the greater the number of fertile offspring, the more likely Darwinian fitness can be measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

endotherms

A

animals such as birds, mammals, some fish, and even certain insects use metabolic energy to maintain a constant body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

ectotherm

A

warms its body mainly by heat absorption from the surroundings. many invertebrates, amphibians, and reptiles are ectotherms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

parts/segments to organs or limbs:

small intestine:

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

vertebral column:

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

upper limbs:

A

humerus, radius, ulna, carpal, metacarpal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

lower limbs:

A

femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsal, metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

freshwater fish

A
  • live in a hypo-osmotic environment
  • tend to take in a great deal of water and lose much salt
  • they compensate by rarely drinking, and actively absorbing salts through cells located in their gills
  • excrete a great deal of dilute urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

saltwater (marine) fish

A
  • live in hyperosmotic environment
  • lose water
  • constantly drinking and actively excreting salt across their gills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

micovilli

A

microscopic “hairs”that cover the small intestine and increase the surface area and aids in food absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

to study nucleic acid metabolism a researcher would use ___

A

a radioisotope such as 32-P.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

in animals and many frogs, yolk is most concentrated in the ___ pole, and least concentrated in the ___ pole.

A

in animals and many frogs, yolk is most concentrated in the vegetal pole, and least concentrated in the animal pole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

when some ectodermal cells elongate, ___ is formed

A

the neural plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

the folding of the neural plate gives rise to the ___ tube that will become the ___ and ___.

A

the folding of the neural plate gives rise to the neural tube that will become the brain and spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

the Gray crescent will establish the body axis, and is an area located on the..

A

side of the egg opposite the sperm penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

cleavage is

A

a series of mitotic cell divisions that follow fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

somites

A
  • are segmented blocks of tissue that form on either side of the notochord
  • go on to produce the vertebrae of the backbone, but also muscles of the axial skeleton
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

gymnosperms include

A

spruce, pine, and fir trees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

angiosperms include

A

fruits, flowering plants, maple, oaks, and grass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

angiosperms are divided into

A

monocots and dicots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

monocots

A

generally have parallel veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

dicots

A

have leaves with netlike veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

land plants exhibit an alternation of generations in which the

A

gametophyte (haploid multi-celled stage) alternates with a diploid multi-celled stage, the sporophyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

locus

A

(plural, loci) is a gene specific location along a length of chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

bacteria are prokaryotes that reproduce by

A

binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

surface appendages called ___, allow bacteria to adhere to one another or even to a mucous membrane.

A

pili (singular, pilus). Ex: Neisseria gonorrhea uses pili to attach to mucous membranes of its host. some pili hold bacteria together to allow DNA transfer during conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

pyruvate is gaining hydrogens, thus is ___. since pyruvate is ___, NADH is ___. ___ is formed with lactate, and is needed for glycolysis. The involved enzyme is a dehydrogenase, name ___ dehydrogenase.

A

pyruvate is gaining hydrogens, thus is reduced. since pyruvate is reduced, NADH is oxidized. NAD+ is formed with lactate, and is needed for glycolysis. The involved enzyme is a dehydrogenase, name lactate dehydrogenase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

the opening of the archenteron that can develop into the mouth or anus is called the

A

blastopore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

temperature strongly affects ponds and lakes in north temperate areas. During the summer, warm water is at the ___ and is well aerated because of oxygen production by plants and mixing by the wind. The ___ will be high in nutrients. In the spring and autumn, oxygenated water from ___ goes to the ___ and nutrients from the ___ go to the ___. This process is known as a ___, and is vital for the survival and growth of organisms at all levels.

A

temperature strongly affects ponds and lakes in north temperate areas. During the summer, warm water is at the surface and is well aerated because of oxygen production by plants and mixing by the wind. The bottom layer will be high in nutrients. In the spring and autumn, oxygenated water from surface goes to the bottom and nutrients from the bottom go to the top. This process is known as a turnover, and is vital for the survival and growth of organisms at all levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

somatostatin suppresses

A

the release of gastrointestinal hormones. this suppression will decrease the rate of gastric emptying along with reducing blood flow within the intestines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

gastrointestinal hormoms include:

A

gastrin, secretin, and cholecystokinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

the menstrual cycle consists of three phases:

A

menstrual flow phase, proliferative phase, and secretory phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

menstruation will being with the

A

disintegration of the endometrium (the inner lining of the uterus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

the endometrium thickens in response to

A

estrogen levels during the proliferative phase and vascularization occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

during the secretory phase,

A

the endometrium continues to thicken, arteries enlarge, and glands grow in response to progesterone estrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

if pregnancy does occur,

A

estrogens and progesterone levels remain high to prevent disintegration of the endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

plants produce gametes within structures called

A

gametangia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

eggs are found in the

A

archegonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

the eggs are fertilized in

A

the female gametangia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

the male gametangia are located in the

A

antheridia and represent the sperm-producing structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

motile sperm swim from the ___ to the ___ for fertilization

A

motile sperm swim from the antheridia to the archegonia for fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

the two main branches of the immune system include:

A

the humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

humoral immunity

A

acts against pathogens such as free viruses and bacteria and is based on circulation of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

cell-meditated immunity

A

works against pathogens that have entered body cells by use of T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

cells primarily involved in diapedesis:

A

neutrophils, leukocytes, and cytokines. neutrophils the first cell type to arrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

chemicals that are released by the injured tissue cells are?

A

prostagladins and histamine; this causes vasodilation and an increase in capillary permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

detritivores

A

organisms that consume dead or decaying organic matter (detritus). include: earthworms, slugs, millipedes, woodlice, and crabs. These organisms are decomposers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

type O blood

A

is the universal donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

type AB blood

A

is the universal recipient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

agglutination

A

of clumping of the red blood cells. mixing of different blood types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

south of the tundra lies the

A

coniferous forest or taiga; the vegetation is dominated by spruce, fir, and pine trees. the climate is characterized by cool summers and cold winters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

the temperate deciduous forest has

A

large trees such as seen in North Carolina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

chaparral is dominated by

A

dense, spiny shrubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

multiple allele system

A

if more than two forms of alleles exist for a gene locus; ex: four blood types are possible A,B,AB, and O. therefore, the ABO blood groups exemplify multiple alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

ribosomes are made in the

A

nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in

A

lipid synthesis and drug detoxification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

desmosomes

A
  • occur within all types of animal tissues
  • abundant in the skin and randomly arranged on the lateral sides of plasma membranes
  • allow cells to become joined into strong epithelial sheets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

upon stressing a bone, bone forming cells called osteoblasts deposit collagen and release calcium phosphate to strengthen the bone. the mineral hydroxyapetite is produced

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

the first step in urine formation is the

A

filtration of substances through the glomerular membrane into Bowman’s capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Edward syndrome

A

a trisomy of chromosome 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Down syndrome

A

a trisomy of chromosome 21. due to nondisjunction; the failure of the chromosomes to separate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

a trisomy of the sex chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Turner syndrome

A

a monosomy having on XO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

human autosomes and sex chromosomes can be precisely examined at ___ that is when they are most condensed.

A

metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

karyotyping allows for a very accurate diagnostic tool for congenital disorders such as a Down syndrome.

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

nonsteroid hormones (H2O soluble) are made from

A

amino acids; ex: norepinephrine and epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

steroid hormones (lipid soluble) are derived from

A

cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

lumen

A

a space inside a tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

sphincters

A

rings of muscle in the wall of the esophagus, stomach, and other specialized regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

submucose

A

is a connective tissue with blood and lymph vessels along with nerve plexuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

prokaryotes lack organelles such as

A

mitochondria, Golgi bodies, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus and lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

salivary and pancreatic amylase break down

A

carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

angiosperms are the

A

flowering plants; they are divided into monocots (narrow leaves, such as grass) and dicots (broad leaves i.e. shrubs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

the undifferentiated cambium tissue develops into

A

phloem and xylem (vascular tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

xylem

A

transports H2O and minerals up the stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

phloem

A

transports nutrients down the stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

non-tracheophytes

A

plants lacking vascular tissues; these include simple plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

gymnosperms do not have

A

flowers; i.e. Red wood, pine, juniper tree (a fruit is the ripened ovary of a flower).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

stomata conrol

A

gas exchange by opening and closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

the chloroplast contains an

A

inner and outer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

the inner membrane contains a fluid called

A

stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

a series of stacked disks are present, each disk is a

A

thylakoid, which contains the photosynthetic pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

meristem is found in

A

higher plants and represents undifferentiated cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

apical meristem contains

A

cells that produce branches and flowers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

a nucleoside consists of

A

a sugar and a base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

a nucleotide is composed of

A

a sugar, base, and a phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

kinases transfer

A

phosphoryl groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

a phosphatase catalyzes the hydrolytic cleavage of a

A

phosphate ester bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

a lyase catalyzes the cleavage of

A

C-C, C-O, and C-N bonds by elimination; a double bond is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

a dehydrogenase is involved in an

A

oxidation-reduction reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

hemoglobin contains more than one binding state therefore it is ___; it can bind:

A

allosteric. it can bind O2, CO2, CO, and H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

a low pH causes Hb to unload

A

O2, as does a high CO2 level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Hb is a tetramer consisting of

A

two alpha chains and two beta chaings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

the non-protein portion of Hb is called

A

heme (prosthetic group)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

yellow bone marrow functions as

A

fat storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

in spongy bone, we see red marrow that functions in the formation of

A

red blood cells, certain white blood cells, and platelets (throbocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

if blood cell supply is low, it is possible that yellow bone marrow changes into

A

red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

platelets arise from large, multinucleated cells in the red marrow called

A

Megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

gibberellins are

A

plant hormones that may induce certain plants to flower as well as allow stem elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

ethylene stimulates

A

fruit ripening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

abscisic acid is

A

an inhibitor of plant growth hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

cytokinins are

A

plant hormones involved with promoting cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

microbodies (peroxisomes) convert

A

H2O2 into H2O + O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

collagen consists of

A

a triple helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

in Gluconeogenesis,

A

non-carbohydrates such as fats and amino acids are made into glucose; this occurs mainly in the cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

centrioles are found only in

A

animal cells and are involved in cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

sister chromatid separation is in

A

anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

the nucleolus reappears in

A

telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

cytokinesis

A

when the cytoplasm separates, is in late anaphase or early telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

during prophase,

A

chromatids shorten and thicken, nucleoli disappears, spindle fibers form, and centrioles in animal cells move to opposite ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

p+q=1

A

p=dominant allele frequency

q=recessive allele frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

A

2pq=frequency of heterozygous individual
p^2=frequency of homozygous dominants in a population
q^2=frequency of homozygous recessive
p^2+2pq=dominant phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

prokaryotes reproduce by

A

binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) are prokaryotes found in the kingdom

A

monera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

in a lichen, a cyanobacteria provides organic nutrients for the fungus, thus they live

A

symbiotically together (the fungus offers protection).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

circular DNA molecules that exist in bacterial cells are called

A

plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

multiple DNA copies can be made by the

A

PCR technique, developed by Kary Mullis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

the most accurate way to work out molecular structures is by

A

X-ray diffraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

peripheral proteins are usually bound to the charged polar head group of the bilayer. mild treatments with ___ can remove them.

A

salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

what is needed to remove the integral proteins?

A

detergents, organic solvents, and ultrasonic vibrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

the cell wall is made up of

A

peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

peptidoglycan is composed of

A

polysaccharide and polypeptide chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

gram positive bacteria have a

A

thick peptidoglycan layer and appear purple after gram staining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

the thin peptidoglycan layer of bacteria causes most of the gram stain to be

A

washed off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

teichoic acids are used as

A

recognition and binding sites by bacterial viruses that causes infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

myelin is made by

A

schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

myelin acts as an

A

electrical insulator; it increases the rate in which the axon can translate signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

gluconeogenesis occurs mainly in the

A

cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

the nerve signal is:

A

presynaptic cell -> synaptic cleft -> postsynaptic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

the middle ear contains the three bones:

A

incus, malleus, and stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

the inner ear contains:

A

the semicircular canals responsible for balance and the snail-like structure called the cochlea, where sound waves in the air are converted into neural messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

the hormones of the anterior pituitary gland include:

A

HGH, LH, FSH, TSH, and Prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

the posterior pituitary gland only stores

A

ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin, both are made in the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

the adrenal cortex makes

A

aldosterone and cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

the adrenal medulla makes

A

epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

glucagon is made by the

A

pancreatic alpha cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

insulin is made by the

A

beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

glucagon and cortisol raise

A

glucose levels in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

insulin lowers

A

glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

aldosterone is involved in

A

Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the kidneys collecting duct, as well as a rise in blood pressure and blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

fungi

A
  • are eukaryotic heterotrophs
  • they secrete digestive enzymes and then absorb the soluble products of digestion
  • composed of filaments called hyphae; collectively the hyphae are called mycelium
  • can reproduce sexually or asexually
  • haploid state predominates, but they do alternate between haploid and diploid stages
  • saprophytic, they break down the remains of living organisms that have died
  • immotile and have cell walls
  • a fungus not only attacks dead matter, but may attack living tissue such as in athletes foot
  • more similar to human cells than bacterial cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

habitat

A

the physical environment in which the organism lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

niche

A

the role that an organism plays in its natural community, the way that the organism lives, eats and reproduces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

community

A

the interacting of different populations of species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

population

A

a group of individuals belonging to the same species that interbreed white occupying a given area at a given time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

biome

A

a geographic region inhabited by a distinct community. include the tundra, taiga, tropical rain forests, savanna, deserts, grasslands and temperate deciduous forests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

tundra

A

dominated by moss, lichen, low-growing shrubs, cold winters and short growing season

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

taiga

A

a coniferous forest with spruce, fir, and pine trees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

types of symbiosis

A

parasitism, mutualism, and commensalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

parasitism

A

one organism benefits while the other is harmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

mutualism

A

when both organisms benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

commensalism

A

one organism benefits while the other in unharmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

saprophytes

A

the decomposers that get energy from dead organisms or decaying matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

food chain

A

(bottom of the pyramid) producers -> primary consumers -> secondary consumers -> tertiary consumers (top of the pyramid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

producers

A

plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

primary consumers

A

herbivores (shrimp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

secondary consumers

A

carnivores (mud crab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

tertiary consumers

A

top carnivores (striped bass)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

arthropods make up the largest

A

animal phylum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

examples of arthropods

A

spiders, insects, crabs, and lobsters; they have jointed legs, exoskeletons, open circulatory systems, bilateral symmetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

insects

A

have a head, thorax, and abdomen. the spiracles and tracheal tubes comprise their respiratory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

annelids

A

have true coeloms (body cavity), closed circulatory system, and includes earthworm. nephridia (excretory structures) and ganglia (cluster of nerve cell bodies) are present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

apoptosis

A

is programmed cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

morula

A

a solid ball of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

blastula

A

hollow ball of cells formed by morula cells that divided mitotically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

the blastula becomes the

A

gastrula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

ectoderm

A

hair, eyes, teeth, skin, nervous system, lens of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

endoderm

A

lining of bladder, digestive and respiratory tracts, liver, pancreas, gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

mesoderm

A

skeleton, muscles, gonads, kidney, and circulatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

cells of the stomach:

A

chief, parietal, G, and mucous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

chief cells

A

secrete pepsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

parietal cells

A

secrete HCl, intrinsic factor (B-12 absorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

G-cells

A

secrete the hormone gastrin which stimulate HCl production of parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

mucous cells

A

secrete mucous that lubricates the stomach and protects the stomach from HCl produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

teeth are derived from

A

ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

starfish are from phylum __ ? and display

A

Echinodermata; radial symmetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

coelenterates

A
  • include jellyfish, sea anemones, hydra
  • radially symmetrical
  • have a single opening
  • mouth used for transport and digestive purposes
  • are carnivores
  • have tentacles to capture prey
  • contain stinging cells called nematocysts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

nematocysts

A

stinging cells in tentacles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

collagen

A
  • a fibrous protein that makes up bone and connective tissue
  • the most abundant protein in vertebrates
  • the structure is a triple helix along with hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine
  • every third position is occupied by the amino acid glycine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

in scurvy

A

(bleeding gums) we see the amino acid proline not being hydroxylated to hydroxyproline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

osteoblasts

A
  • secrete collagen
  • build bone
  • do not carry out mitosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

osteoclasts

A
  • break down bone

- cannot carry out mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

PTH (parathyroid hormone) will stimulate

A

osteoclastic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

calcitonin tones down the

A

blood calcium level by decreasing osteoclastic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

cardiac muscle

A

single nucleus, has striations as well as complex junctions between adjacent individual cells called intercalated discs, it is involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

skeleton muscle

A

multinucleated, voluntary, and striated. normally does not undergo mitosis, contains thick myosin protein filaments that slide past the thin actin protein filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

smooth muscle

A

single nucleated, found in walls of urinary bladder, digestive system, uterus, blood vessels, involuntary, non-striated, actin and myosin are present, but not organized into sarcomeres like seen in skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

epinephrine will:

A
  • increase blood glucose, blood flow to skeletal muscle
  • increase heart rate, respiratory rate
  • increase rate of glycogenolysis
  • will constrict blood vessels to decrease blood supply to digestive tract and kidneys
  • dilation of pupils
  • increase blood flow to brain and blood pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

slow block to polyspermy

A

cortical reaction. a sperm-proof fertilization membrane is formed when the cortical granules in the egg fuse with the plasma membrane. as enzymes are released, biochemical reactions harden the vitelline layer and allow no further sperm from entering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

acrosomal reaction is the fast block

A

in which an electrical response occurs to change the membrane potential to prevent polyspermy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

xylem contains two types of cells

A

tracheids and vessel members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

xylem

A

conducts water and dissolved mineral absorbed from the soil, and mechanically supports the plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

the yearly xylem deposits make up the

A

annual growth rings used to record the age of a plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

phloem is another vascular tissue consisting of

A

sieve tubes through which sugars and other solutes are conducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

plants require __ to grow

A

N2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

atmospheric N2 is converted into

A

NH4+ or NO3- to be utilized by plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

nitrogen fixing bacteria are located in

A

root “swellings” called nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

plants that contribute to nitrogen fixing include

A

the legume family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

examples of legume family

A

peas, peanut, soybeans, and beans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

nitrogen fixation

A

N2 from the atmosphere is converted to NH3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

“fight or flight” response

A

is elicited by the sympathetic nervous system in response to stressful situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

hormones that belong to a class of compounds called catecholamines

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

reverse transcriptase

A

an enzyme seen in retroviruses in which RNA is the genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

DNA is made from RNA and incorporated into

A

the host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

sometimes the host cell is not lysed, but the virus reproduces in synchrony with the host cell and becomes a

A

prophage and lies dormant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

the virus is said to be in a lysogenic phase, but could become active if exposed to harsh environment factors such as

A

ultraviolet radiation, stress, or chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

in adaptive radiation,

A

we see a number of different species emerge from a single ancestor. the finches on the galapagos islands are an example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

divergent evolution

A

a number of different species emerge from a single ancestor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Hardy-Weinberg law shows…

examines. .
assuming. .

A

-Hardy-Weinberg law shows us how phenotype and genotype stability can be achieved in a population.
- this law examines population gene pools, not genotypes of individuals.
- assumptions:
large population
random mating
no net migration
no mutation
no natural selection
no change in the gene pool of a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

chromosomal breakage may cause

A

deletions or duplications. due to viruses, chemicals, and radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

during an inversion, a chromosomal segment is turned

A

180 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

a translocation results when

A

two nonhomologous chromosomes interchange genes, we see the attachment of all or part of one chromosome to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

it takes 3 codons to make

A

1 amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

transcription occurs in the

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

the formation of mRNA required the enzyme

A

RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

A=T has

A

two hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

C(triple bond)G has

A

three hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

the higher the percentage of CG, the more stable the

A

DNA sample will be and higher will its melting point be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

the semen contains

A

sperm cells plus glandular secretions from the prostate gland and seminal vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

the vas deferens transports

A

the sperm to the urethra then out the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

the Cowper’s (bulbourethral) glands ass more thick

A

mucous material to the semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

spermatozoa are matured in the coiled tube called the

A

epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

sperm productions (spematogenesis) occurs in the

A

seminiferous tubules of the testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

leydig cells secrete

A

testosterone that allows germ cells to mature into sperm cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

enzymes

A

are globular proteins that will love the energy of activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

feedback inhibition is used to

A

regulate metabolic pathway. and allows for an entire reaction series to be shut down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

the corupus luteum breaks down into ____ if no fertilization occurs

A

corpus albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

LH stimulates the corpus luteum to produce

A

progesterone and estrogen which allow for blood vessels to grow and for the uterine linging to prepare for implantation of the egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

if LH was to decrease, as in the case of no fertilization,

A

progesterone levels fall, which cause the uterine wall tissue to break down and menstruation begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

lysosome have an

A

acidic pH; where the enzymes of cellular digestion are found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

golgi apparatus

A

are membrane-bound sacs involved in the packaging of glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

oocyte development is halted at the

A

primary oocyte stage until puberty (meiosis is arrested in Prophase I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

where does the DNA transfer of a virus happen?

A

during transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

SA node

A
  • “pacemake” is a small tissue mass located at the entrance to the right atrium.
  • delivers electrical impulses at regular intervals that allow the heart to beat
  • this electrical excitation causes the atria to contract, thus pushing blood into the ventricles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

the amphioxus is a(n)

A

invertebrate. *the amphioxus and tunicates are commonly asked questions. they represent chordates that are not vertebrates; they do not lose their notochord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

chordates

A

have a notochord at least some time during development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

both superior and inferior vena cava carry deoxygenated blood from the upper and lower extremities respectively to the

A

right atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

molecular chaperones prevent

A

aggregation of newly formed proteins until they can properly fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

cholecystokinin

A

is a hormone made by cells of the duodenum (first part of the small intestine) that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice, especially the bicarbonate portion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

gastrin

A

is made in the stomach. this hormone stimulates HCl secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

enterogastrone

A

is made in the duodenum, and when fatty food is in the intestine, it inhibits stomach gland secretion and slows the stomach’s muscular movement. by slowing the stomach’s emptying, more time is allowed for meals that contain fat to digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

chemoreceptors

A
  • are specialized structures located in the walls of major arteries
  • they detect changes in H+, O2, and CO2.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

breathing rate

A
  • greatly sensitive to blood CO2 and H+ ion concentration
  • a small increase in either H+ or CO2 will cause an increase in breathing rate
  • a high blood O2 partial pressure would decrease breathing rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

the pulmonary vein and the umbilical vein, unlike other veins carry

A

oxygenated blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

blood can bypass the liver due to the

A

ductus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

most blood in the right atria is partly oxygenated and can bypass the pulmonary circulation by entering the left atria directly from the right atria by the

A

foramen ovale; this shunt will divert blood away from the pulmonary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

the ductus arteriosus conducts

A

some blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta, this bypassing the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

two main parts of the autonomic nervous system:

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

when stimulated, the sympathetic nervous system allows you to respond to

A

stress, i.e. increased heart rate, blood pressure, pupil dilation, decrease in blood flow to the kidneys and digestive organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

the parasympathetic systems allows what to occur:

A

digestion and elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

the cerebellum is the part of the brain involved with

A

muscle coordination, balance, and equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

the corpus callosum

A
  • divides the brain hemispheres
  • one of the largest myelinated tracts
  • allows the right and left-brain portions to communicate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

the central nervous system consists of

A

the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

the peripheral nervous system is

A

all of the nervous system that is not part of the central nervous system. it includes nerves and ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

two parts of the peripheral nervous system include:

A

the somatic nervous system (motor and sensory neurons) and autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

during the light reaction, a high [H+] is produced within the

A

thylakoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

the light requiring reactions of photosynthesis produce

A

NADPH, and build a high concentration of H+ ions, which are used to make ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

in the dark reaction, which occurs in the

A

stroma of the chloroplasts, ATP and NADPH are both used in the “fixation” of carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

during carbon fixation,

A

CO2 is incorporated into carbohydrate molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

the calvin cycle (dark reaction) requires

A

2 ATP and 2 NADPH for each CO2 molecule incorporated into carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

the production of ribulose biphosphate requires

A

1 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

a total of ? ATP and ? NADPH are used for each CO2 molecule that becomes carbohydrate

A

3 ATP 2 NADPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

O2 is a _ of the light reaction

A

by-product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

PGAL is made during the dark reaction from

A

CO2 and ribulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

? turns of the calvin cycle are needed to produce a glucose molecule

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

the axial skeleton includes:

A

the skull, vertebra, and ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

the appendicular skeleton include:

A

the bones of the arms and legs as well as the boned of the pelvis and pectorial girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

ligaments connect

A

bone to bone

353
Q

tendons connect

A

bone to muscle

354
Q

at the end of long bones, are regions of cartilaginous cells where growth occurs, this is called the

A

epiphyseal plate

355
Q

compact bone contains structural units called

A

haversian systems. blood vessels and nerves pass through the haversian canals

356
Q

Class Gastropoda is the largest

A
  • Molluscan class
  • here we find slugs and snail.
  • a single shell is the characteristic of this class
357
Q

Class Crustacean includes

A

crab, shrimp, lobster, crayfish, and barnacles

358
Q

Class Arachnida includes

A

spiders, ticks, scorpions and mites

359
Q

Class Cephalopoda includes

A

octopus and squid

360
Q

liver

A
  • albumin synthesis
  • bile production
  • destruction of worn-out old red blood cells
  • converts nitrogenous waste into urea
  • stores glycogen
361
Q

insulin

A

hormone secreted by the pancreatic beta cells. decreases blood glucose levels and allow it to be converted to glycogen, where it is stored in the liver and skeletal muscle

362
Q

analogous structures illustrate

A

convergent evolution

363
Q

convergent evolution

A

two unrelated species have close resemblances; i.e. cacti and euphorbs

364
Q

transpiration

A

H2O loss by evaporation from leaves

365
Q

hydrolysis

A

involves the use of H2O to split a molecule

366
Q

hydration

A

is the addition of H2O

367
Q

translocation

A

is the attachment of all or a portion of one chromosome to another

368
Q

diapause

A

is a resting condition in the life of an insect

369
Q

if you do not have enough ADH (vasopressin) you would lose H2O, large quantities of urine would be produced. this is seen in

A

diabetes insipidus

370
Q

if sugar was in the urine this is characteristic of

A

diabetes mellitus

371
Q

path urine takes:

A

loop of henle -> distal convoluted tubule -> collecting duct

372
Q

the proximal convoluted tubule is where most

A

resorption occus

373
Q

the glomerulus is involved with

A

blood filtration; it is a capillary bed lying in the bowman’s capsule

374
Q

fluid from the blood is filtered through the glomerulus in a process called

A

glomerular filtration

375
Q

the glomerular filtrate lacks

A

blood cells and proteins

376
Q

the driving force for this filtration is the

A

blood pressure [hydrostatic pressure within the glomerulus]

377
Q

the distal convoluted tubule is the main area where

A

secretion occurs (K+, H+ by active transport and NH3 by diffusion)

378
Q

H+ secretion regulates

A

blood pH

379
Q

urine leaves the kidney by way of the

A

ureters

380
Q

from the kidney, the ureters carry the urine to the

A

urinary bladder; urine is stored here until voided through the single urethra

381
Q

DNA->mRNA is called

A

transcription and occurs in the nucleus

382
Q

RNA does not contain

A

thymine

383
Q

synthesis of mRNA is done by

A

RNA polymerase

384
Q

the polymerase synthesis is in the

A

5’->3’ direction. original was 5’-CCGAAT-3’ the mRNA is 5’-AUUCGG-3’

385
Q

PKU disease

A
  • high amount of the amino acid phenylalanine in the blood
  • mental retardation can result if left untreated
  • individuals with PKU disease are homozygous recessive and they lack the needed enzyme for phenylalanine metabolism
386
Q

the ectoderm gives rise to

A

the lens of the eye

387
Q

muscle cells

A
  • can find the sarcoplasmic reticulum

- calcium reservoir

388
Q

acetylcholine triggers

A

an action potential that passes along the sarcoplasmic reticulum

389
Q

Ca2+ ions are released from the terminal cisternae and allow for

A

filament sliding

390
Q

RBC lacks

A

mitochondria, thus there is no TCA cycle

391
Q

the RBC derives it energy from glycolysis:

A
  • anaerobic respiration occurring in the cytosol

- the electron transport chain is contained within the inner membrane of the mitochondria

392
Q

as we increase the degree of unsaturation

A

(i.e. increase the fatty acids with a double bond in their structure) fluidity increases and melting point decreases

393
Q

in a warmer environment, the organism would want to increase its % of

A

saturated fatty acids

394
Q

as we increase the degree of saturation

A

we increase melting pint, but decrease fluidity

395
Q

prokaryotes lack _ in their cell membranes, unlike the eukaryotes

A

cholesterol

396
Q

fertilization occurs in the

A

fallopian tube (oviduct)

397
Q

fraternal twins develop from

A

two eggs which were fertilized independently of each other

398
Q

the head of a sperm consists largely of

A

a nucleus

399
Q

the blastula is a

A

hollow ball of cells

400
Q

the trophoblast consists of

A

a double layer of cells and will be the precursor of the placenta

401
Q

the retina of the eye contains visual

A

purple [Rhodopsin], a light sensitive pigment

402
Q

breathing is controlled by

A

the medullar

403
Q

as CO2 levels increase, the medullar send impulses to the

A

diaphragm and chest muscles, which will increase breathing rate

404
Q

function of the cerebellum

A

balance and muscle coordination

405
Q

balance is associated with the

A

semi-circular canals located within the iner ear

406
Q

saltatory conduction

A

is when the impulse jumps from node to node; this increases velocity several fold

407
Q

myelinated nerve fibers allow nerve transmission much faster than

A

unmyelinated

408
Q

each villus of the small intestine contains a capillary network and a lacteal that absorb

A

nutrients

409
Q

nutrients are carried into the

A

bloodstream

410
Q

nutrient rich blood is conveyed through the hepatic portal vessel to the

A

liver which will regulate the blood nutrient content

411
Q

the hepatic portal vessel has first “access” to nutrients that have been consumed by a person after a meal.

A

.

412
Q

as glucose-rich blood passes through the liver; excess glucose it removed and stored in the liver as

A

glycogen

413
Q

the liver will remove excess glucose and amino acids from the blood to prevent

A

tissue damage

414
Q

blood will leave the liver and be transported to the heart, which then pumps blood to the rest of the body.

A

.

415
Q

villi->?->?->?->body

A

villi->bloodstream->liver->heart->body

416
Q

anaerobic pathways refer to

A

glycolysis, which is in both species

417
Q

the cells of the ascending loop are ? to water

A

impermeable

418
Q

as the urine descends the loop of henle, it becomes more and more concentrated and becomes less concentrated in the

A

ascending branch

419
Q

fish: ? chambered tubular heart

A

2 chambered tubular heart

420
Q

frog: ? chambered heart

A

3 chambered heart

421
Q

artery: has no

A

valves

422
Q

pulmonary vein: ? blood

A

oxygenated blood

423
Q

which organelle(s) may have originated as a symbiotic prokaryote?

A

mitochondria and chloroplast

424
Q

lacteals

A

small lymph vessels within the villi that absorb digested fatty acids

425
Q

bile

A

an emulsifying agent that is made by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. it will emulsify fats and it contains sodium bicarbonate that helps neutralize the stomach acid (along with the pancreatic juice)

426
Q

example of sexual dimorphism

A

male baboons and female baboons are very different in appearance

427
Q

neutrophils are phagocytic cells

A

.

428
Q

monocytes

A

large cells that develop into the macrophages

429
Q

B-cells

A

develop in the fetal liver and spleen and produce antibodies that are in the blood and lymph

430
Q

T-cells

A

are involved in immune reactions and develop in the thymus

431
Q

homologous structures

A

similar structures which may be different in function

432
Q

example of a vestigial organ

A

the appendix

433
Q

a duck is hatched, and follows the first moving object. this is an example of

A

imprinting

434
Q

a Barr body is

A

an inactivated X-chromosome

435
Q

hemizygous

A

means having only one single copy of a gene instead of two. the male has XY sex-chromosomes and is said to be hemizygous

436
Q

chromatids

A

longitudinal halves of a chromosome (2 per chromosome)

437
Q

centromere

A

the constriction nearest the center is the area of attachment

438
Q

a somatic cell during late interphase has been observed to have 10 chromosomes. how many chromatids is this?

A

20

439
Q

Class chondrichthys:

A

skates and sharks

440
Q

Class Amphibia:

A

toads and frogs

441
Q

Class Aves:

A

birds

442
Q

Class Reptilia:

A

lizards, turtles, and snakes

443
Q

Class Osteichthys:

A

bony fish

444
Q

Class Agnatha:

A

hagfish and lamprey

445
Q

random changes in the allele frequency from one generation to another in small populations can lead to elimination of a particular allele by chance alone. This is called

A

genetic drift

446
Q

adaptive radiation was observed with

A

Darwin’s finches, 14 species of birds were derived from a single species

447
Q

autosomal recessive inheritance

A
  • malenabd female equally affected
  • if both parents have the trait, all offspring will be affected
  • heterozygotes do not have trait
  • children that have the trait can have parents that do not
448
Q

a scientist wants to quickly “clone” a piece of DNA in vitro. which technique would he/she likely employ?

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). it allows scientists to quickly clone DNA in a test tube rather than in living cells

449
Q

Krebs (TCA) cycle

A
  • represents the phase of aerobic respiration
  • 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP are produced per turn of the cycle
  • the reactions occur within the matrix of the mitochondria
  • one molecule of glucose produces two turns of the cycle
  • pyruvate loses CO2 in the matrix od the mitochondria and combines with CoA to become Acetyl CoA.
  • the Acetyl CoA enters the TCA cycle by condensing with oxaloacetate to form citrate.
450
Q

a four-legged vertebrate that is half-terrestrial, half-aquatic, intermediate between fishes and reptiles in body plan and reproduction mode are?

A

amphibians. examples are salamanders, frogs, and toads

451
Q

birds most likely are descendants of:

A

reptiles; in that they lay eggs, have scaly legs, horny beaks, and contain many of reptilian internal structures.

452
Q

bacteria derive their energy from:

A

glycolysis and electron transport chain.

453
Q

which structure is considered the link between the nervous system and the endocrine system?

A

hypothalamus; it will help regulate the heart, arterial blood pressure, produce neurosecretory substances, regulate H2O and electrolyte balance, body temperature, and maintain homeostasis.

454
Q

DNA is replicate at

A

interphase

455
Q

insulin decreases

A

blood glucose

456
Q

glucagon increases

A

blood glucose

457
Q

the medulla is involved in control of

A

breathing

458
Q

crossing over is seen during

A

prophase I. in eukaryotes, genetic recombination occurs during the crossing over

459
Q

the process in an embryo in which one tissue causes another to differentiate is called:

A

induction

460
Q

what is produced by the transcription process and is subsequently translated to form proteins?

A

mRNA

461
Q

transcription occurs in the

A

nucleus

462
Q

exons

A

the expressed DNA sequence

463
Q

introns

A

the DNA sequence that is cut out, it has no known function.

464
Q

chlorophyll is found in the

A

thylakoid membrane. thylakoid is a flattened sac

465
Q

Leydig cells and Islet of Langerhans will produce:

A

hormones

466
Q

Islet of Langerhans represent a collection of

A

alpha and beta cells of the pancreas.

  • alpha cells secrete glucagon
  • beta cells secrete insulin
467
Q

Beginning at puberty, Leydig cells in the testes secrete

A

testosterone

468
Q

a net gain of 2 ATP is seen when glucose forms

A

lactate

469
Q

glycolysis is

A

anaerobic respiration and can supply energy even if no TCA cycle operates

470
Q

in yeasts growing anaerobically. pyruvate is converted into

A

ethanol

471
Q

gluconeogensis

A

occurs to produce glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors

472
Q

in active muscle, there is a higher amount of

A

lactate

473
Q

lactate formation also produces

A

NAD+, which is necessary for glycolysis to continue

474
Q

Chargaff’s Rules

A

the sum of Purines equals the sum of the Pyrimidines

A+G=C+T

475
Q

Purines

A

Adenine and Guanine

476
Q

Pyrimidines

A

Cytosine and Thymine

*Uracil is also a Pyrimidine, but not found in DNA.

477
Q

a sweat gland is an

A

apocrine and eccrine gland

478
Q

apocrine

A

a gland that responds to stress

479
Q

eccrine

A

responsible in the maintenance of body temperature

480
Q

as we age the activity decreases with

A

increasing age

481
Q

as the body temperature rises, dermal blood vessels

A

dilate; this allows blood to enter the dermis and can dissipate some of the heat

482
Q

Mg+2 is found in

A

chlorophyll

483
Q

Fe+2 is found in

A

hemoglobin

484
Q

the stinging cells of cnidarians care called

A

nematocysts

485
Q

ribosomes are found in both

A

prokaryotes and eukaryotes

486
Q

cnidoblasts

A

are specialized cells located in the tentacles and body wall of coelenterates. the interior is filled by the stinging cells, neatocysts

487
Q

DNA replicates

A

semi-conservatively

488
Q

DNA contains

A

cytosine, adenine, thymine, and guanine

489
Q

adjacent nucleotides are linked by

A

phosphodiester bonds in both DNA and RNA

490
Q

In DNA, A+G equals

A

T+C

491
Q

food pyramid

A
  • each trophic level contains different quantities of potential energy
  • energy is gained as the food pyramid descends
  • energy and mass are lost as the food pyramid ascends
  • the producers represent that trophic level of highest potential energy
492
Q

prolactin is produced by

A

the anterior pituitary gland

493
Q

prolactin is a hormone that stimulates

A

milk secretion in mammals

494
Q

the sea urchin can develop a tough protective envelope called the fertilization membrane as a block to

A

polyspermy

495
Q

polyspermy

A

is the entry of more than one sperm into an egg

496
Q

in parthenogenesis, an egg develops without

A

fertilization. as seen in wasps

497
Q

which organism is known for causing serious disease in man:

A

roundworms and flatworms

498
Q

the placenta consists of

A

maternal and embryonic tissues

499
Q

during the menstrual cycle, a midcycle surge of LH causes

A

ovulation

500
Q

the amnion fluid is

A

a fluid-filled sac that will protect the embryo from mechanical shock

501
Q

the three germ layers are completely formed during

A

late gastrulation

502
Q

the umbilical cord connects the embryo to the

A

yolk sac, allantois, and amnion

503
Q

chorion

A

a protective membrane; it becomes part of the placenta and secrete chorionic gonadotropin hormone which will maintain the Corpus Luteum.

504
Q

The Corpus Luteum will

A

secrete progesterone that will help maintain the uterine lining

505
Q

after about three month, the placenta produces the

A

needed progesterone and estrogen

506
Q

melanin is a pigment produced by specialized cells called

A

melanocytes

507
Q

melanocytes are most likely found in which layer of the epidermis?

A

stratum germinativum; the deepest layer of the epiderms

508
Q

stratum corneum

A

is the outermost layer containing the dead epithelial cells

509
Q

the dermis is below the epidermis and consists of

A

connective tissue, containing erector muscles, hair follicles, sensory receptors, sweat and sebaceous glands

510
Q

serous membranes associated with the lungs are called

A

pleurae

511
Q

alveoli

A

are the basic respiratory units where actual gas exchange occurs by passive diffusion

512
Q

a sinus is

A

a cavity or hollow space in a bone

513
Q

peritoneum is

A

the tissue that covers all the digestive organs and lines the body cavity

514
Q

the fleshy, outer portion of the external ear is the

A

pinna

515
Q

arterioles offer the greatest resistance to blood flow in the

A

circulation

516
Q

mature red blood cells lack

A

a nucleus

517
Q

striated muscle such as

A

cardiac and skeletal are composed of sarcomeres

518
Q

cardiac output=

A

cardiac output=stroke volume x heart rate

519
Q

stroke volume is

A

the volume of blood that is discharged from the ventricles with each contraction

520
Q

as stroke volume or heart rate increases, cardiac output will

A

also increase

521
Q

stroke volume =

A

stroke volume= end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

522
Q

steroid hormones are synthesized from

A

cholesterol; they are lipid-soluble and can easily pass through cell membranes

523
Q

the probability of a crossover occurring between two genes on a homologous chromosome is increased if

A

they are further apart

524
Q

in progeria we see

A

premature aging

525
Q

an inactive X-chromosome is called a

A

Barr body

526
Q

achondroplasia is a type of

A

dwarfism; less than 4ft 5in tall; represents an autosomal dominant inheritance

527
Q

as with colorblindness, hemophilia is an

A

X-linked recessive trait

528
Q

a function of the skin is to

A

help regulate body temperature by allowing blood flow through its outer layers

529
Q

progesterone will inhibit FSH release thereby prevent

A

ovulation

530
Q

fungi are involved in decomposition.

A

.

531
Q

a gametophyte is

A

a plant that produces gametes and is haploid

532
Q

a sporophyte

A

is a diploid zygote

533
Q

in glycolysis, the glucose molecule is oxidized into

A

pyruvate (2 moles)

534
Q
chlorophyll: Mg++
homologous structures: common ancestor
hypothalamus: temperature regulation
meninges: covering around brain and spinal cord
carbon fixation: dark reaction
A

.

535
Q

examples of homologous structures

A

the wing of a bat, flipper of a whale, arm of a man, and foreleg of a cat

536
Q

natural selection can occur because more animals are produced than will survive.

A

.

537
Q

the ABO blood group exemplify

A

polymorphism

538
Q

the forming of a new species through the geographic isolation of groups from the parent population is called

A

allopatric speciation

539
Q

early earth’s reducing atmosphere consisted of:

A

NH3, H2, CH4, H2O, CO, CO2, and H2S

540
Q

a fertilized egg is called a:

A

zygote; which is diploid

541
Q

which of the following have a 4-chambered heart?

A

robin; mammals and birds

542
Q

which have 3-chambered heart?

A

amphibians and reptiles

543
Q

which have 2-chambered heart?

A

fish

544
Q

what lacks seeds?

A

ferns

545
Q

ferns

A
  • a vascular plant that contains xylem and phloem tissue
  • reproduce by spored
  • lack seeds and flowers
  • life cycle is referred to as alternation of generations which includes a sporophytic and gametophytic phase
546
Q

angiosperms and gymnosperms are what kind of plants

A

seed-producing plants

547
Q

when an amino acid enters the cytoplasm from a tRNA molecule, it first goes to the

A

ribosome

548
Q

embedded in the cell membrane are proteins called

A

aquaporins

549
Q

aquaporins

A

regulate the flow of water

550
Q

it is believed that ___ molecules have been the fist carriers of genetic information

A

RNA

551
Q

the earth is believed to be

A

4.5 billion years old

552
Q

eukaryotes arose about ___ years ago, while prokaryotes around __ years ago.

A

eukaryotes arose about 0.5 years ago, while prokaryotes around 3.5 years ago.

553
Q

spindle fibers are made from

A

microtubules and associated proteins

554
Q

prophase is the longest

A

mitotic stage

555
Q

a genome represents

A

a cells total DNA content

556
Q

DNA is highly

A

conserved molecule

557
Q

meiosis:

if the starting amount of chromosome is N, the daughter cells have ? amount of chromosomes

A

N/2

558
Q

meiosis:

the process is part of ? reproduction

A

sexual

559
Q

meiosis:

the process leads to ? variation

A

genetic

560
Q

meiosis:

the process results in ??

A

gamete formation

561
Q

consider a somatic cell undergoing mitosis. at anaphase the chromosome number is:

A

92 chromosomes, which is 4N

562
Q

at anaphase of mitosis,

A

the sister chromatids of each chromosome are now separated from each other and have moved to opposite poles

563
Q

two heterozygotes were crossed to yield a 2:1 genotypic ratio for a trait. What could account for this?

A

lethal gene

564
Q

Phylums.

Cnidaria:

A

hydras, corals, jellyfish

565
Q

Arthropoda(phylum):

A

spiders and crustaceans

566
Q

Chordates(phylum):

A

tunicates, mammals, amphibians

567
Q

Chordata(phylum):

A

jawless fish, reptiles

568
Q

tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA are produced in

A

transcription

569
Q

a 5’ACATCG3’ strand is complimentary to a

A

3’UGUAGC5’ RNA strand

570
Q

tRNA will have what kind of structure

A

cloverleaf

571
Q

DNA polymerase has proofreading ability.

A

.

572
Q

angiosperms are the most diverse types of plants; they are the flowering plants.

A

.

573
Q

A cotyledon or so-called seed lead will

A

store food for the germinating seed

574
Q

endosperm will serve as

A

food for a flowering plant embryo, and later for the germinating seedling

575
Q

vegetative propagation is a form of

A

asexual reproduction in plants

576
Q

a red blood cell placed in water will:

A

swell and possibly burst

577
Q

in a hypotonic solution a cell will:

A

swell and possibly burst

578
Q

in a hypertonic solution a cell will:

A

shrivel

579
Q

plants contain a cell wall and are more resistant to swelling in a

A

hypotonic solution

580
Q

urine is ? to the blood and contains a

A

urine is hypertonic to the blood and contains a high urea and solute concentration

581
Q

the combination of passive diffusion and active transport in the Loop of Henle of solutes helps in the

A

conservation of water

582
Q

ADH will allow water to be reabsorbed at the distal tubules and collecting ducts when water conservation is need.

A

.

583
Q

HCO3-, bicarbonate ion is the form in which CO2 is carried predominantly in the

A

blood

584
Q

humoral immunity is responsible for the production of

A

immunoglobins or antibodies

585
Q

T-lymphocytes are involved in

A

cell-mediated immunity

586
Q

B lymphocytes produce

A

antibodies

587
Q

amphibian

A

a vertebrate that is able to live on land and water

588
Q

the amphibian has a

A

closed circulatory system

589
Q

at the end of gastrulation in an amphibian egg, we see

A

endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm.

590
Q

? is the most abundant metabolic waste product

A

CO2

591
Q

DNA synthesis occurs during

A

S-phase

592
Q

In G2 the cell prepares to

A

divide

593
Q

During G1, we see the production of

A

mitochondria, ribosomes and much protein synthesis

594
Q

ribosomes are assembled by the

A

nucleolus

595
Q
which organism came first?
reptiles
amphibians
bony fish
jawless fish
cartilaginous fish
A
jawless fish (include hagfish and lampreys).
lampreys are parasites, hagfish are scavengers, and they were the first to evolve.
596
Q

during denaturation of a protein there is a change in:

A

2degree, 3degree, and 4degree protein structure

597
Q

what can cause denaturation of a protein:

A

heat, pH change, radiation, heavy metals such as Pb+2, Ag+, and Hg2+.

598
Q

which process generates the most ATP?

A

electron transport chain and occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria

599
Q

where is bile produced

A

liver

600
Q

where is pollen produced

A

anther

601
Q

pistil

A
  • female part of the plant

- consists of the stigma, style, and ovary

602
Q

stigma

A

is sticky and will catch the pollen

603
Q

style

A

is a tube-like structure connecting the stigma to the ovary.

604
Q

stamen

A

the male part of the plant

605
Q

petal

A

the colorful part of the plant that attracts insects, they have odors as well

606
Q

collagen is found in the

A

extracellular matrix; a meshwork of macromolecules

607
Q

collagen is a fibrous protein with a

A

triple helix; very rich in glycine

608
Q

an osteoblast will create

A

new bone

609
Q

platelets do not contain a

A

nucleus

610
Q

myoglobin consists of

A

a single chain, and will store O2 in muscle

611
Q

hemoglobin consists of

A

2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains (a globular protein)

612
Q

which process goes against a concentration gradient?

A

active transport

613
Q

active transport

A

transport across a membrane and it requires ATP

614
Q

facilitated transport

A

goes along the concentration gradient

615
Q

simple transport (diffusion)

A

utilizes specific transport molecules

616
Q

acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter of the

A

parasympathetic nervous system

617
Q

norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter of the

A

sympathetic nervous system

618
Q

acetylcholine has excitatory and inhibitory effects on

A

muscles and glands throughout the body

619
Q

an action potential is an

A

all-or-nothing event

620
Q

DNA segments that are movable are:

A

transposable elements

621
Q

differentiation occurs when a cell has become

A

specialized

622
Q

differentiation will arise as a result of

A

selective gene expression

623
Q

an annelid has a

A

closed circulatory system

624
Q

an arthropod has a

A

an open circulatory system

625
Q

annelids are the

A

segmented worms

626
Q

nephridia is

A

the excretory organ of annelids

627
Q

what factor is responsible for the striations in skeletal muscle?

A

the alternating between the thin actin filaments and the thick myosin filaments

628
Q

thin filaments

A

are the actin, they are light bands [I-bands]

629
Q

myosin filaments

A

are the thick, dark bands

630
Q

nucleic acids are linear polymers linked by:

A

phosphodiester bonds

631
Q

what is the first proof of a new species?

A

reproductive isolation

632
Q

what causes a conformational change in the enzyme

A

substrate binding

633
Q

enzymes display specificity and have an optimum pH.

A

.

634
Q

as substrate is depleted the reaction rate

A

decreases

635
Q

cephalopods

A
  • have tentacles to capture prey
  • include the squid; the largest known invertebrate
  • contain a well developed nervous system
  • giant nerve fibers connect the brain with muscles used in jet propulsion
  • are highly active and have huge O2 demands
  • have a closed circulatory system
636
Q

prions

A

infectious protein particles

637
Q

viruses can infect

A

plant and animal cells

638
Q

RNA viruses are called

A

retroviruses

639
Q

can antibiotics work against viruses?

A

no

640
Q

prions are implicated in

A

mad cow disease, kuru, scrapie in sheep and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

641
Q

the shape of the tRNA molecule is maintained by

A

hydrogen bods

642
Q

translation refers to

A

the synthesis of proteins

643
Q

DNA sequences that appear to move from one part of the genome to another are called

A

transposable elements

644
Q

a distinguishing feature of tRNA is the presence of unusual bases such as

A

methylinosine, pseudouridine, and 4-thiouridine

645
Q

glycolysis will produce

A

2 ATP net
2 NADH
2 moles pyruvate
2 H+

646
Q

net reaction of glycolysis:

A

Glucose + 2Pi + 2ADP + 2NAD+ -> 2pyruvate + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H+ + 2H2O

647
Q

Kingdom Monera

A

blue-green algae and bacteria

648
Q

Kingdom Protista

A

Paramecim

649
Q

Kingdom Fungi

A

mushrooms

650
Q

Kingdom Protista

A

green algae

651
Q

Nematoda (phylum):

A

hookworms and pinworms

652
Q

Platyhelminths (phylum):

A

tapeworms and flukes

653
Q

Annelida (phylum):

A

leeches and earthworms

654
Q

Echinodermata (phylum):

A

sea urchins, sea stars

655
Q

Mollusca (phylum):

A

snails, slugs, clams, and octupuses

656
Q

Cnidaria (phylum):

A

corals and sea anemones

657
Q

tunicate (sea squirt)

A

a chordate, but also an invertebrate

658
Q

echinoderms do not have a ? during any development stage

A

notochord

659
Q

malpighian tubules of insects form

A

uric acid and discharge it into the gut

660
Q

the functional unit of excretion in the earthworm is the

A

nephridium

661
Q

echinoderms and chordates are

A

deuterostomes

662
Q

deuterostomes

A

the mouth is formed after the anus from the blastopore

663
Q

Bryophytes:

A

mosses

664
Q

Bryophytes:

A

non-vascular land plants

665
Q

Angiosperms:

A

flowering plants

666
Q

Sporazoans:

A

plasmodium

667
Q

arm bones include:

A

the humerus, ulna, and radius

668
Q

leg bones include:

A

the fibula, tibia, and femur

669
Q

osteoblasts are

A

bone-forming

670
Q

osteoclasts are

A

bone-resorbing

671
Q

osteoarthritis

A

as a person ages, the cartilage that covers the bone ends of freely moveable joints begins to wear away

672
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

is a degenerative disorder with a genetic basis

673
Q

marrow

A

soft, net like mass of connective tissue found inside bones

674
Q

bone contains blood and

A

nerves

675
Q

triglycerides are contained in the

A

yellow bone marrow

676
Q

distinguishing feature of bone are

A

ground substance and collagen

677
Q

haversian canals are

A

interconnected channels for blood vessels and nerves

678
Q

trapped osteoblasts within the small spaces of bone, will

A

mature into osteocytes (living bone cells)

679
Q

red blood cell:

A

oxygen transport

680
Q

white blood cell:

A

infections

681
Q

macrophage and neutrophils:

A

phagocytosis

682
Q

plasma cells:

A

antibody production

683
Q

mast cells:

A

histamine release

684
Q
an amnion is present in all of the following except:
pigeon
turtle
frog
man
lizard
A

frog

685
Q

the allantois is found only in

A

reptiles, birds, and mammals

686
Q

organisms which have the greatest number of similarities are grouped in a

A

genus

687
Q

the most abundant RNA is

A

rRNA

688
Q

the least abundant RNA is

A

mRNA

689
Q

the smallest of the RNA molecules is

A

tRNA

690
Q

a few kinds of bacteria convert Nitrogen to ammonia, which will rapidly dissolve in water to produce

A

NH4+

691
Q

greenhouse gases include

A

methane, carbon dioxide, ozone, and chlorofluorohydrocarbon

692
Q

in denitrification, bacteria can convert

A

nitrate or nitrite to N2, and a small amount of N2O

693
Q

CO2 gas, fossil fuel burning, factory emissions, cars, and deforestation all contribute to the

A

greenhouse effect

694
Q

fungi groups include:

A

Zygomycete
Basidiomycetes
Ascomycetes

695
Q

Lichen is a combination of

A

a blue-green algae with a fungus

696
Q

Lichen is a classic example of

A

symbiosis; the alga supplies the food, while the fungus protects the alga and absorbs water and minerals for both

697
Q

the amount of blood in an average-sized adult is:

A

5 quarts

698
Q

plasma

A

is the liquid portion of the blood and contains hundred of plasma proteins such as albumin, fibrinogen, and globulin

699
Q

albumin

A

is the most abundant of plasma proteins; and is important for maintaining the blood’s osmotic pressure

700
Q

blood clotting involves a series of chain reactions in which

A

fibrinogen is converted into fibrin

701
Q

fibrin fibers form a “mesh” that

A

traps red blood cells to become a solid barrier to blood loss

702
Q

unlike other blood cells, white blood cells can

A

leave the blood vessels and circulate in the lymphatic system

703
Q

antibodies (immunoglobins) consist of

A

two heavy chains linked to two light chains by disulfide bonds

704
Q

disulfide bonds -S-S- is seen in many proteins such as

A

antibodies, hair, and insulin; restrict the way the protein can fold; is a covalent bond

705
Q

which part of a flower will catch the pollen?

A

stigma

706
Q

fats yield more than twice the energy than a protein or a carbohydrate.

A

.

707
Q

the electron transport chain pumps protons out of the mitochondrial matrix, thus creating a proton gradient.

A

.

708
Q

molecular oxygen is the

A

final electron acceptor

709
Q

Each NADH yields

A

3 ATP

710
Q

Each FADH2 yields

A

2 ATP

711
Q

O2 is needed for the electron transport system to operate.

A

.

712
Q

FADH2 and NADH will transfer the electrons.

A

.

713
Q

the savanna is

A

a grassland with low rainfall and punctuated with hooved, plant-eating mammals such as giraffes

714
Q

the tundra will exhibit

A

a treeless frozen plain with a permafrost

715
Q

a biome is

A

a particular type of regional ecosystem that is dominated by certain plants and animals

716
Q

oceans cover more than ?% of the earth’s surface

A

70%

717
Q

in a desert

A

there is very little rainfall and the potential for evaporation is much greater than the potential for rainfall

718
Q

during evolution, several different well-protected species have come to resemble one another in what is called

A

mullerian mimicry

719
Q

a bird will avoid a red colored insect with white stripes after two such insects have stung it. this is an example of

A

mullerian mimicry

720
Q

plants may contain ?, which imparts an unsatisfactory taste to leaves and twigs, thus will discourage herbivores from consuming them.

A

tannin

721
Q

unpalatable prey is often highly colored, which can warn predators that such organisms should be avoided.

A

.

722
Q

batesian mimicry

A

we see deceptive mimicry. example: there is a family of flies that resemble the yellow bees and hornets, but do not sting at all.

723
Q

B cells are lymphocytes that…

A

mature in the bone marrow and mediate anti body directed immunity

724
Q

antibodies are produced by ? cells and can bind to ?

A

antibodies are produced by B cell and can bind to antigen

725
Q

in cell-mediated immunity, T cells respond to virally infected

A

cells, fungi. parasites, and bacteria

726
Q

stem cells i the bone produce ? by ?

A

lymphocytes by mitotic division

727
Q

emphysema is a pathology marked by the destruction of the

A

alveoli

728
Q

ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells are found in the

A

trachea and the upper respiratory system

729
Q

pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells may contain

A

goblet cells

730
Q

goblet cells

A

secrete mucous

731
Q

smoking can damage the cilia of respiratory cells and allow toxins to remain in the lungs.

A

.

732
Q

human oocytes can be fertilized most successfully by the use of which technique?

A

micro-injection

733
Q

micro-injection technique

A

involves directly injecting the sperm cell into an egg; the average success rate is about 75%. (treatment of male infertility)

734
Q

in-vitro fertilization

A

involves fertilization between an egg and a sperm in a glass dish in the lab.

735
Q

the promoter region in eukaryotes which contain a group of nucleotides is called a:

A

TATA box (very rich in adenine and thymine)

736
Q

the promoter region in PROKARYOTES which contain a group of nucleotides is called a:

A

Pribnow box (very rich in adenine and thymine)

737
Q

the assemblage of operator, promoter, and structural genes is called an

A

operon

738
Q

an operator is the site to which

A

a repressor of protein synthesis binds

739
Q

the operator is like an “on-and-off” switch that is the control point for

A

transcription

740
Q

a repressor binds to the operator and will block ? polymerase attachment to the promoter, thus stopping transcription.

A

RNA

741
Q

RNA polymerase bind to DNA regions called

A

promoters

742
Q

five classes of immunoglobins:

A

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD “GAMED”

743
Q

Helper T cells refer to a type of ? that stimulates the production of ? by ? cells when an antigen is present.

A

Helper T cells refer to a type of lymphocyte that stimulates the production of antibodies by B cells when an antigen is present.

744
Q

an antigenic determinant is the site on

A

an antigen to which an antibody binds; thus forming an antigen-antibody complex

745
Q

several types of T cells include:

A

killer T cells
supressor T cells
memory cells

746
Q

large white blood cells derived from monocytes are called

A

macrophages

747
Q

macrophages

A

will engulf the antigen and present it to the Tcells that will activate the immune responce

748
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Rh- mother; Rh+ fetus. The Rh refers to a blood group. Rh + means you have the ability to produce the Rh antigen, while Rh - means you lack antigen production ability. In this case, the mother produces antibodies. (During birth, some of the baby’s blood may enter the mother’s blood.) If she later carries another Rh + fetus, her Rh antibodies will diffuse across the placenta and cause the blood cells to agglutinate and fetal blood cells are consequently destroyed.

749
Q

an egg cell will contain

A

23 chromosomes and 23 chromatids

750
Q

small DNA binding proteins that allow DNA coiling are called

A

histones

751
Q

histones are found only in

A

eukaryotes

752
Q

a chemical defense system that works with the immune response and supplements the inflammatory response is termed:

A

complement

753
Q

the briefest mitotic stage is:

A

anaphase

754
Q

anaphase

A

the centromeres split, and the daughter chromosomes begin to separate

755
Q

eukaryotic cells are larger than prokaryotic cells.

A

.

756
Q

what structural evidence represent crossing over

A

chiasmata

757
Q

synapsis occurs in

A

prophase I of meiosis

758
Q

in synapsis,

A

we see the pairing of homologous chromosomes

759
Q

the formation of new species due to geographical isolation is called

A

allopatric speciation

760
Q

if speciation occurs after ecological, genetic or behavioral barriers arise within the same geographical boundary of single population, it is termed

A

sympatric speciation

761
Q

genetic drift is most important in ? populations

A

small populations

762
Q

allopatric population do not interbreed, since they are geographically separated.

A

.

763
Q

a new population arises because of a single individual, or a few individuals causing a change in allele frequency is termed the

A

Founder Effect

764
Q

Changes in the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium may be caused by

A

genetic drift, mutations, or by natural selection

765
Q

in a genetic or population bottleneck, a disaster such as

A

flood, disease, or starvation nearly wipes out a large population

766
Q

when O2 binds to hemoglobin, we see an increased affinity for O2 binding in the remaining subunits. This is called:

A

cooperativity

767
Q

Green Algae (phylum):

A

spirogyra

768
Q

Red Algae (phylum):

A

rhodophyta

769
Q

Bryophytes (phylum):

A

moss

770
Q

Nemotoda (phylum):

A

roundworms

771
Q

Platyhelminthes (phylum):

A

flatworms

772
Q

Annelida (phylum):

A

earthworm

773
Q

cephalization refers to

A

having sensory structures and nerve cells mainly up front, in a head.

774
Q

mollusks, arthropods, and annelids are

A

protostomes

775
Q

echinoderms and chordates are

A

deuterostomes

776
Q

in protostomes, the opening of the first indentation becomes the

A

mouth

777
Q

in deuterostomes, the opening of the first indentation becomes the

A

anus

778
Q

if an organism is too warm, blood vessels will

A

dilate

779
Q

if an organism is too cold, the blood vessels will

A

constrict

780
Q

the oncotic pressure tends to

A

pull fluid into the capillary

781
Q

the hydrostatic pressure tends to

A

push fluid out of a capillary

782
Q

a zymogen is an inactive form of

A

an enzyme; ex: pepsinogen

783
Q

estrogen is a ? hormone, while insulin is a ? hormone.

A

estrogen is a steroid hormone, while insulin is a peptide hormone.

784
Q

endocytosis

A

requires ATP. may involve the transport of liquid droplets into animal cells. sometimes called pinocytosis. during endocytosis we may also see solid material taken into the cell. material attaches to the cell membrane, and induces the membrane to bulge inward producing a vacuole. when the substance is solid, the process is called phagocytosis

785
Q

spherical bacteria:

A

cocci

786
Q

rod shaped bacteria:

A

bacilli

787
Q

helical shaped bacteria:

A

spirilla

788
Q

staphylococci:

A

clusters

789
Q

streptococci:

A

chains; virulent

790
Q

lymph nodes may contain

A

lymphocytes and macrophages

791
Q

plasma cells produce

A

antibodies

792
Q

the greatest resistance to blood flow is in the

A

arterioles

793
Q

in the normal adult there are how many incisors, canines, premolars, and molars

A

4 canines
8 incisors
8 premolars
12 molars

794
Q

the greater GC amount, the more

A

stable and more heat resistant the bacteria will be

795
Q

cytochromes are a group of ? found in ?

A

cytochromes are a group of heme containing proteins found in the electron transport chain

796
Q
era from most recent to oldest:
Cenozoic 
Paleozoic
Precambrian
Mesozoic
A

Cenozoic > Mesozoic > Paleozoic > Precambrian

797
Q

dinosaurs appeared during which era

A

Mesozoic

798
Q

the first land vertebrates, land plants, fish; many alga appeared in the

A

Paleozoic era

799
Q

invertebrates, monera, fungi where in the

A

Precambrian era

800
Q

“ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” refers to:

A

embryonic stages of development of an organism repeat the evolutionary history of the species

801
Q

shrinkage of a cell due to water loss is called

A

plasmolysis

802
Q

sucrose is hydrolyzed into:

A

1 mole glucose and 1 mole of fructose

803
Q

maltose

A

2 moles glucose

804
Q

lactose

A

1 mole galactose + 1 mole glucose

805
Q

the earliest organisms were probably

A

heterotrophs

806
Q

obligate anaerobes cannot survive in an atmosphere of

A

oxygen

807
Q

peptidoglycans contain

A

amino sugars

808
Q

halophiles are bacteria that live in

A

extremely salty water

809
Q

the purple or green bacteria found in anaerobic sediments of lakes or ponds carry out photosynthesis in which ? is the electron donor.

A

H2, H2S, or D

810
Q
DNA is not found in:
erythrocytes
lymphocytes
skin cells
hair cells
sperm cells
A

erythrocytes

811
Q

hemoglobin gives up more ? under acidic conditions

A

O2

812
Q

hemoglobin is a ?, while myoglobin is a ?

A

hemoglobin is a tetramer, while myoglobin is a monomer

813
Q

the heme group is the same in both hemoglobin and myoglobin.

A

.

814
Q

oxygen binding to hemoglobin is

A

cooperative

815
Q

in the Bohr effect

A

we see hemoglobin-unloading O2 under condition of low pH (high CO2,[H+])

816
Q

during allosteric interaction

A

when a molecule binds, a conformational change occurs and the primary binding site will no longer bind to its usual substrate.

817
Q

what is known as the “second messenger”

A

cyclic AMP

818
Q

cyclic AMP

A
  • activates enzymes
  • initiates protein synthesis
  • can alter membrane permeability
819
Q

monocots and dicots differ in the arrangement of

A

vascular bundles

820
Q

monocots contain

A

one cotyledon

821
Q

dicots contain

A

two cotyledons

822
Q

in monocots, leaf veins run

A

parallel

823
Q

in dicots, leaf veins

A

are netlike

824
Q

protist include:

A
hydra
paramecium
euglena (some have plant and animal features)
algae
-they are eukaryotic
-live in moist environments
825
Q

bacteria are

A

prokaryotes that are in Kingdom Monera

826
Q

Mendel proposed the Laws of

A

Independent Assortment & Segregation

827
Q

According to Mendel’s Law of Segregation,

A

the two genes segregate from each other at meiosis, thus each gamete produced after meiosis has an equal chance of receiving one or the other gene, but not both

828
Q

According to Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment

A

each pair of alleles segregates into gametes independently

829
Q

A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is characteristic of the ? generation

A

F2

830
Q

a monohybrid cross that gave a 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation is indicative of:

A

incomplete dominance

831
Q

pheromones is a chemical that travels

A

outside the body, carrying information to members of the same species

832
Q

pheromones may act as a

A

“sex attractants”

833
Q

an example of pheromones produced by ants is

A

formic acid

834
Q

many vertebrates use pheromones in

A

feces, urine, or scent glands to mark territories

835
Q

each gene pair tends to assort into gametes independently of other gene pairs that are located on

A

nonhomologous chromosomes

836
Q

an observable trait of an organism is termed its

A

phenotype

837
Q

an allele is

A

an alternative molecular form of a gene

838
Q

mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own genetic information.

A

.

839
Q

if an organism has a diploid number of 18, how many chromatids are visible at the end of mitotic prophase?

A

36 chromatids

840
Q

a pH gradient is seen in which process

A

electron transport chain

841
Q

order of increasing size between nucleus, chromosome, gene, adenine, and thymine

A

thymine < adenine < gene < chromosome < nucleus

842
Q

which technique is most widely used to elucidate the three-dimensional structure of a macromolecule?

A

X-ray cyrstallography

843
Q

lactate is produced in a fatigued

A

muscle

844
Q

fermentation utilizes the reactions of glycolysis to produce

A

ethanol anaerobically

845
Q

actively contracting muscle has a high rate of ? formation

A

lactate

846
Q

in yeast cells that grow anaerobically, pyruvate is converted into

A

ethanol

847
Q

under aerobic conditions, most of the pyruvate from glycolysis is oxidized by the

A

TCA cycle

848
Q

lysosomes are found in both plants and animal cells.

A

.

849
Q

macrophages are differentiated from monocytes.

A

.

850
Q

macrophages are rich in

A

lysosomes.

851
Q

the pH of the lysosome is about

A

5

852
Q

food is prevented from entering the lungs due to the

A

epiglottis

853
Q

the little “valve like” cartilage is called the

A

epiglottis

854
Q

the larynx is the

A

voice box

855
Q

the pharynx is the

A

back of the throat

856
Q

the esophagus allows food to enter the

A

stomach

857
Q

glands in the lining of the esophagus produce mucus, which will keep the passageway moist to

A

facilitate swallowing

858
Q

a bacteriophage contains:

A

DNA or RNA. it is a virus that infects bacteria; it lacks cellular organelles

859
Q

if a cell is attacked by a virus, which protein is produced by an animal cell in response?

A

interferon

860
Q

interferon belong to a class of ? called ?

A

interferon belong to a class of glycoproteins called cytokines

861
Q

the main purpose of a fungi is:

A

decomposition

862
Q
which of the following is not an example of fungi?
mold
mildew
yeast
algae
mushroom
A

algae; it is classified as a protist

863
Q

which trophic level has the least biomass?

A

tertiary consumers

864
Q

bacteria and fungi are decomposers that occupy no particular trophic level since they feed on organisms from all trophic levels.

A

.

865
Q

the average ecological efficiency of any one trophic level is approximately

A

10%

866
Q

the climax community is

A

the most stable community marked by a large biomass with no environment change

867
Q

the orderly sequence of changes that occur is called

A

ecological succession

868
Q

which procedure is most useful to study the intracellular location of proteins?

A

Pulse-Chase experiment

869
Q

Pulse-Chase experiment

A

involved using a radioactive label on a protein to detect what is happening to the molecules in cells.

870
Q

chemotrophs are

A

organisms that use redox reactions to produce ATP

871
Q

Ubiquinone, also called Coenzyme Q, is a

A

lipid-soluble electron carrier seen in the electron transport chain

872
Q

in oxidative phosphorylation, electrons are transferred from NADH to O2 through an ? to produce ?

A

electron transport chain; ATP

873
Q

in a typical eukaryotic cell, the pH is usually around

A

7.4

874
Q

amino acids are amphoteric; they can act as

A

acids or bases

875
Q

the pH of gastric juice is under

A

2.0

876
Q

glycine is the only ? since it has no chiral carbons

A

optically inactive amino acid

877
Q

hemoglobin and myoglobin are ? globular proteins

A

water-soluble

878
Q

after ovulation the ovarian follicle creates:

A

corpus luteum