Basics Flashcards
Monitor PTT
Activates anti-thrombin III
Heparin
Warfarin antidote
Vit K
FFP
Heparin antidote
Protamine sulfate
Antidote for Organophosphate poisoning
Pralidoxime
First line is Atropine
Most important limiting factor for permeation
Lipid diffusion
Predicts rate of movement of molecules across a barrier
Fick’s law of diffusion
What molecules are more water soluble, leading to increased clearnace?
Ionized (charged) and polar
What molecules are more lipid soluble, leading to increased capacity to cross biological membranes?
Non-ionized (uncharged) and non polar
PH= pKa + log of A?/B?
A: Unprotonated
B: Protonated
Weak acid can be excreted faster by __________ the urine with __________.
Alkalinizing
Bicarbonate HCO3
To make ACIDIC BASIC, give BICARB
ABB
Weak base can be excreted faster by __________ the urine with __________.
Acidifying Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) or KCl
To make BASIC ACIDIC, give AMMONIUM CHLORIDE
BAA
Identify: Site of drug metabolism is in the gut wall, portal circulation and liver, usually noted in oral drugs
First Pass Effect
Bypasses first pass effect
IV
IM
Sublingual
Transdermal
Anticoagulants cannot be given via _____ route
IM
Can cause hematomas
Order based on superiority
Oral, IV, IM, SubCu, Buccal/Sublingual, Rectal
IV IM SubCu Buccal/Sublingual Rectal Oral
Partial avoidance of first pass effect in ________ route
Rectal
Which of the 3 veins of the rectum exhibits first pass effect?
Superior Rectal Vein
Order based on decreasing evaporation:
Ointment
Gel
Lotion
Cream
Lotion
Gel
Cream
Ointment
Acute inflammation of the skin:
Use drugs with Increased or decreased evaporation?
Increased
Chronic inflammation of the skin:
Use drugs with Increased or decreased evaporation?
Decreased
Can bound drugs cross membranes?
No
Only unbound drugs can cross
Acidic and basic drugs are BOUND
Drugs that are not modified by the body and continue to act until excreted
Drugs?
Mannitol
Lithium
Concentration decreases 50% for every half life
Concentration decreases exponentially
Most common
Type of elimination
First Order
Rate of elimination is constant for every half life
Concentration decreases linearly
Zero order
Drugs that display Zero Order Kinetics
WHAT PET
Warfarin Heparin Aspirin Tolbutamide Phenytoin Ethanol Theophylline
In the presence of a full agonist, a ___________ agonist can act as an inhibitor
Partial
These do not provoke a biological response by themselves upon binding to a receptor
Blocks or dampens drug response in the presence of an agonist
Antagonist
Irreversible antagonist
Not overcome by adding more agonist
Non-competitive
Reversible antagonist
Overcome by adding more agonist
Competitive
Shifts dose response curve to the right
Competitive antagonist
Shifts dose response curve to the left
Non-competitive antagonist
Binds to a different receptor producing an effect that is opposite to the effect of the drug it is antagonizing
I.e. Histamine and epinephrine
Physiologic antagonists
Reduces constituitive activity
Opposite effects are produced by the agonist
I.e. Propranolol, thyroid hormone
Inverse agonist
Antagonist that interacts directly with the drug to remove it or prevent it from reaching its target
Doesn’t depend on interaction with agonist receptors
I.e. Dimercaprol for lead poisoning
Pralidoxime for organophosphate poisoning
Chemical antagonists
Drugs that exhibit Tachyphylaxis
DELaMar watches CNN in HD
Dobutamine Ephedrine LSD Metoclopramide Calcitonin Nitroglycerin Nicotine Hydralazine Desmopressin
Define: Drug input equals rate of elimination
Steady state
Number of half lives to reach steady state
4-5
Plasma drug concentration is inversely proportional to_______
Vd and Clearance
Vd is __________ proportional to half life
Directly
Clearance is ___________ proportional to half life
Inversely
Area under the curve (AUC ) is a measure of_________
Bioavailability
Clearance is __________ proportional to Maintenance dose
Directly
Desired plasma concentration is _______ proportional to maintenance dose
Directly
Bioavailability is ___________ proportional to maintenance dose
Inversely
Monitor PT/INR
Inhibits Vit K dependen5 factors
Warfarin
Trough determinines the minimum ___________ concentration
Effective
Peak determines the minimum ___________ concentration
Toxic
Effect of renal disease and reduced CO on drug clearance
Decrease
Phase I reactions that convert a parent drug to a more polar or water soluble product
Not highly selective of substrates
HORD
Hydroxylation
Oxidation
Reduction
Deamination
75% of drugs are metabolized by Cytochrome______
CYP 3A4
CYP 2D6
Phase II reactions that makes original drug more polar (water soluble) less lipid soluble
Not very selective
GAG GSM
Glucuronidation Acetylation Glutathione conjugation Glycine conjugation Sulfation Methylation
Asians are ______ acetylators
Fast
Must increase drug
Caucasians are ________ acetylators
Slow
Cytochrome P450 inducers
Ethanol Barbiturates Phenytoin Rifampicin Griseofulvin Carbamazepine St. John's Wort/Smoking
Ethel Booba takes PHEN-phen and Refuses Greasy Carb Shakes
Cytochrome P450 Inhibitors
Isoniazid Sulfonamides Cimetidine Ketoconazole Erythromycin Grapefruit Juice Quinidine Valproic Acid Ritonavir Amiodarone
ISO Santa Claus Kissing Every Girl, Quickly Vanishing Right After
Class of Drugs:
Safe in pregnant human
Safe in pregnant animal
Folic acid, thyroid hormone
A
Class of Drugs:
No studies in pregnant human, Safe in pregnant animal
OR
Safe in pregnant human, unsafe in pregnant animal
Zidovudine
B
Class of Drugs:
No studies in pregnant human, Unsafe in pregnant animal
OR No studies in both human and pregnant animals
Aspirin
C
Class of Drugs:
Unsafe in pregnant human
Unsafe in pregnant animal
ACE inhibitors, Anticonvulsants
D
Class of Drugs:
Unsafe in pregnant human
Unsafe in pregnant animal
Statins, OCPs, Chlomiphene, Misoprostol, High Dose Vit A
Teratogenic
X
Fetal-renal damage
ACE inhibitors
Neural Tube Defects
ADR of which drug?
Anti-epileptic drugs
Fetal Hydantoin Syndrome
ADR of which drug?
Phenytoin
Neonatal hypoglycemia
ADR of which drug?
Oral hypoglycemic agents
Neonatal dependence
ADR of which drug?
Barbiturates
Vaginal Clear Cell AdenoCA
ADR of which drug?
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
Fetal Alcohol syndrome
ADR of which drug?
Ethanol
Ebstein’s anomaly
ADR of which drug?
Lithium
Craniofacial malformations
ADR of which drug?
Isotretinoin
Congenital hypothyroidism
ADR of which drug?
Iodide
Mobius sequence
ADR of which drug?
Misoprostol
Cutis laxa
ADR of which drug?
Penicillamine
Phocomelia
ADR of which drug?
Thalidomide
IUGR
ADR of which drug?
Smoking
Tooth discoloration
ADR of which drug?
Tetracycline
Ototoxicity
ADR of which drug?
Streptomycin
Aplasia Cutis Congenita
ADR of which drug?
Methimazole
Kernicterus
ADR of which drug?
Sulfonamides
Cartilage damage
ADR of which drug?
Fluoroquinolones
Chondrodysplasia
ADR of which drug?
Warfarin 1st trimester
CNS malformations
ADR of which drug?
Warfarin 2nd trimester
Bleeding diatheses
ADR of which drug?
Warfarin 3rd trimester
In vitro test for mutagenicity
Ames test
In vivo mutagenicity test in mice
Dominant lethal test
Preclinical data up to proposal for clinical trials
Investigational New Drug
Includes preclinical and clinical testing
Request for approval of general marketing of drug for prescription use
New Drug Application
Phases of Drug Trial:
Among normal human volunteers (25-50)
Is it safe?
Phase I Trial
Phases of Drug Trial:
Among volunteers with target disease (100-300)
Is it effective?
Phase II Trial
Phases of Drug Trial:
Among many patients and clinicians (1000-5000)
Compare with older therapies and discover toxicities
Phase III Trial
Detects infrequent toxicities
Post-marketing surveillance
Phase IV Trial
Drug for a rare disease, affecting fewer than 1 every 200,000 people
Orphan drug
Safe range between the minimum therapeutic concentration and minimum toxic concentration of a drug
Therapeutic window