BADM 3601 Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Main challenge for businesses today?

A

satisfy customers through exceptional perforce of their processes and products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Costs of quality four major categories

A

prevention, appraisal, internal failure, external failure (ethics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Defect

A

any instance when a process fails to satisfy its customer

rework or rectification, scrap, or waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Prevention costs

A

costs associated with preventing defects before they happen
-redesigning process, redesigning service or product
-firms must invest additional time, effort, and money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Appraisal costs

A

costs incurred when the firm assesses the performance level of its processes
-increase costs of prevention and performance, decrease appraisal cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Internal failure costs

A

costs resulting from defects that are discovered during the production of a service/product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

External failure costs

A

costs that arise when a defects that are discovered during the production of a service/product

repairs/servicing, complaints, returns, warranty service/litigation costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ethical failure costs

A

societal and monetary costs associated with deceptively passing defective services or products to internal or external customers such that it jeopardizes the well-being of stockholders, customers, employers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sampling plan

A

specifies sample size, time between successive samples, and decision rules that determine when action should be taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sampling distributions

A

sample mean, range, and standard deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Common causes of variation

A

purely random, unidentifiable sources of variation that are unavoidable with the current process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Assignable causes of variation

A

any variation causing factors that can be identified and eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Control Charts

A

time-ordered diagram that is used to determine whether observed variations are abnormal

R-chart, X-bar chart, P-chart, C-chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type I and II Error

A

I: sample result falls outside control limits

II: process is out of statistical control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Process capability

A

ability of the process to meet design specifications for a service or product

index that measures the potential for a process to generate defective outputs relative to either upper or lower specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nominal value

A

target for design specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tolerence

A

allowance above or below nominal value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Process capability ratio

A

tolerance width divided by 6 standard deviations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inventory management

A

planning and controlling of inventories to meet the competitive priorities of an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lot sizing

A

determination of how frequently and in what quantity to order inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

lot size

A

quantity of an inventory item that management either buys from a supplier or manufactures using internal processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inventory

A

stock of material used to satisfy customer demand or to support the production of services or goods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Inventory holding cost

A

sum of the cost of capital and the variable cost of keeping items on hand, such as storage and handling costs, taxes, insurance, and shrinkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pressures for small inventories

A

cost of capital, storage/handling cost, taxes, insurance, and shrinkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pressures for large inventories

A

customer service, ordering cost, setup cost, labor and equipment utilization, transportation cost, payments to suppliers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ordering cost

A

cost of preparing a purchase order for a supplier or a production order for manufacturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Setup cost

A

cost involved in changing over a machine or workspace to produce a different item

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Quantity discount

A

drop in price per unit when an order is sufficiently large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Types of inventories

A

accounting inventories and operational inventories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Accounting inventories

A

raw materials: inventories needed for the production of service or goods

work-in-progress (WIP): items, such as components or assemblies, needed to produce a final product in manufacturing or service operations

finished goods: items in manufacturing plants, warehouses, and retail outlets that are sold to firms’ customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Independent demand items

A

items for which demand is influenced by market conditions and is not related to the inventory decisions for any other item held in stock or produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dependent demand items

A

items whose required quantity varies w/ the production plans for other items held in the firm’s inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Four forms of inventory

A

cycle inventory: portion of total inventory that varies directly with lot size

safety stock: surplus inventory that a company holds to protect against uncertainties in demand, lead time, and supply changes

anticipation: inventory used to absorb uneven rates of demand or supply

pipeline: inventory that is created when an order for an item is issued but not yet recieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Inventory reduction tactics

A

primary lever: must be activated if inventory is to be reduced

secondary lever: reduces penalty cost of applying the primary lever and the need for inventory in the first place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cycle inventory reduction tactics

A

primary lever: simply reduce the lot size of items moving in the supply chain

secondary lever: 1. streamline methods for placing orders and making setups to reduce ordering and setup costs and allow Q to be reduced
2.increase repeatability to eliminate the need for changeover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Safety stock inventory reduction tactics

A

primary lever: place orders closer to the time when they must be received

secondary levers: 1. improve demand forecasts so that fewer surprises come from customers 2. cut lead times of purchased or produced items to reduce demand uncertainty 3. reduce supply uncertainties 4. rely more on equipment and labor buffers, such as capacity cushions and cross-trained workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pipeline inventory reduction tactics

A

primary lever: reduce lead time

secondary lever: 1. find more responsive suppliers and select new carriers for shipments between stocking locations or improve materials handling within the plant 2. change Q in those cases where the lead time depends on the lot size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anticipation inventory reduction tactics

A

primary lever: simply to match demand rate with production rate

secondary lever: 1. add new products with different demand cycles so that a peak in the demand for one product compensates for the seasonal low for another 2. provide off-season promotional campaigns 3. offer seasonal pricing plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)

A

lot size that minimizes total annual cycle-inventory holding and ordering costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Time between orders (TBO)

A

average elapsed time between receiving (or placing) replenishment orders of Q units for a particular lot size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Continuous Review System

A

aka reorder point system (ROP): system designed to track the remaining inventory of a SKU each time a withdrawal is made to determine whether it is time to reorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Inventory position

A

measurement of a SKU’s ability to satisfy future demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Scheduled receipts

A

orders that have been placed but have not yet been received

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Reorder point

A

predetermined minimum level that an inventory position must reach before a fixed quantity Q of the SKU is ordered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Visual system

A

system that allows employees to place orders when inventory visibly reaches a certain marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Two-bin system

A

visual system version of the Q system in which a SKU’s inventory is stored at two different locations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Periodic review system

A

system in which an item’s inventory position is reviewed periodically rather than continuously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Perpetual inventory system

A

system of inventory control in which the inventory records are always current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Single-bin system

A

system of inventory control in which a maximum level is marked on the storage shelf or bin, and the inventory is brought up to the mark periodically

49
Q

Optional replenishment system

A

system used to review the inventory portion at fixed time intervals and, if the position has dropped to or below a predetermined level, to place a variable-sized order to cover expected needs

50
Q

External competitive pressures of supply chain

A

dynamic sales volumes, customer service/quality expectations, service/product proliferation, and emerging markets

51
Q

Supply chain design

A

designing a firm’s supply chain to meet the competitive priorities of the firm’s operations strategy

52
Q

Four categories of supply chain design

A

strategic options, logistical network options, integration options, sustainability options

53
Q

Three ways of measuring inventory

A

average aggregate inventory value, weeks of supply, and inventory turnover

54
Q

Average aggregate inventory value

A

total average value of all items held in inventory for a firm

55
Q

Weeks of supply

A

an inventory measure obtained by dividing the average aggregate inventory value by sales per week at cost

56
Q

Inventory turnover

A

An inventory measure obtained by dividing annual sales at cost by the average aggregate inventory value maintained during the year

57
Q

Efficient supply chain common design

A

make-to-stock (based on sales forecast)

58
Q

Responsive supply chain common design

A

assemble-to-order (product built using existing components), make-to-order (initiated by customer), design-to-order (built entirely by customer)

59
Q

Competitive advantages of mass customization

A

managing customer relationships, eliminating finished goods inventory, increasing perceived value of services or products

60
Q

Supply chain design for mass customization

A

assemble-to-order, modular design, postponement

61
Q

Channel assembly

A

process of using members of the distribution channel as if they were assembly stations in the factory

62
Q

Outsourcing

A

paying suppliers and distributors to perform processes and provide needed services and materials

63
Q

offshoring

A

supply chain strategy that involves moving processes to another country

64
Q

Next-shoring

A

supply chain strategy that involves locating processes in close proximity to customer demand or product R&D

65
Q

Backward integration

A

a firm’s movement upstream toward the sources of raw materials, parts, and services through acquisitions

66
Q

Forward integration

A

acquiring more channels of distribution, such as distribution centers, and retail stores, or even business customers

67
Q

make-or-buy decisions

A

a managerial choice between whether to outsource a process or do it in-house

68
Q

Supply chain integration

A

effective coordination of supply chain processes through seamless flow of information up and down the supply chain

69
Q

External causes of supply chain disruptions

A

environmental disruptions, supply chain complexity, loss of major accounts, loss of supply, customer-induced volume changes, service and product mix changes, late deliveries undefiled shipments

70
Q

Internal causes of supply chain disruptions

A

internally generated shortages, quality failures, poor supply chain visibility, engineering changes, order batching, new service/product introductions, service/product promotions, information errors

71
Q

Bullwhip effect

A

phenomenon in supply chains whereby ordering patterns experience increasing variance as you proceed upstream in the chain

72
Q

SCOR model

A

framework that focuses on a basic supply chain of plan, source, make, deliver, and return processes, repeated again and again along the supply chain

73
Q

Supply chain risk management

A

practice of managing the risk of any factor or event that can materially disrupt a supply chain, whether within a single firm or across multiple firms

74
Q

Hedging

A

supply chain risk-management strategy used in limiting or offsetting the probability of loss from fluctuations in the prices of commodities or currencies

75
Q

Futures contract

A

a contractual agreement, generally made on the trading floor of a futures exchange, to buy or sell a particular commodity or financial instrument at a predetermined price in the future

76
Q

Typical security activities of supply chain

A

access control, physical security, shipping/receiving, transportation service provider, ISO 28000

77
Q

ISO 28000:2007

A

set of requirements for a supply chain security management system that includes aspects of financing, manufacturing, information systems, and the facilities for packing, storing, and transferring goods between modes of transportation and locations

78
Q

Two key technologies to supply chain

A

cloud computing: practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the internet to store, manage, and process data

blockchain: digital record of transactions in which individual records, called blocks, are linked together in a single list, called a chain

79
Q

Benefits of blockchains

A

decentralization, transparency, immutability

80
Q

Radio frequency identification (RFID)

A

method for identifying items through the use of radio signals from a tag attached to an item

81
Q

Smart contracts

A

codified agreements that self-execute when the conditions are met

82
Q

New service or product development process

A

design, analysis, development, and full launch

83
Q

Supplier relationship process

A

sourcing, design collaboration, negotiation, buying, and information exchange

84
Q

Forecast

A

prediction of future events used for planning purposes

85
Q

Three forecasting methods

A

judgement. casual. and time-series methods

86
Q

Time series

A

repeated observations of demand for a service or product in their order of occurrence

  1. horizontal: fluctuation of data around a constant mean
  2. trend: systematic increase or decrease in the mean of the series over time
  3. seasonal: repeatable pattern of increases or decreases in demand, depending on the time of day, week, month, or season
  4. cyclical: less predictable gradual increases or decreases in demand over longer periods of time
  5. random: unforecastable variation in demand
87
Q

Demand management

A

process of changing demand patterns using one or more demand options

88
Q

Complementary products

A

services or products that have similar resource requirements but different demand cycles

89
Q

Revenue management

A

varying price at the right time for different customer segments to maximize revenues yielded by existing supply capacity

90
Q

backlog

A

an accumulation of customer orders that a manufacturer has promised for delivery at some future date

91
Q

backorder

A

customer order that cannot be filled when promised or demanded but is filled later

92
Q

stockout

A

an order that cannot be satisfied, resulting in a loss of the sale

93
Q

Aggregation

A

act of clustering several similar services or products so that forecasts and plans can be made for whole families

94
Q

Judgement methods and quantitative methods of forecasting techniques

A

judgement methods: translates the opinions of managers, expert opinions, consumer surveys, and salesforce estimates into quantitative estimates

casual methods: uses historical data on independent variables, such as promotional campaigns, economic conditions, and competitors’ actions, to predict demand

1.time-series analysis: statistical approach that relies heavily on historical demand data to project the future size of demand and recognizes trends and seasonal patterns

  1. trend projection with regression: forecasting model that is a hybrid between a time-series technique and the causal method
95
Q

forecast error

A

difference found by subtracting the forecast from actual demand for a given period

96
Q

Salesforce estimates

A

forecasts that are compiled from estimates of future demand made periodically by members of a company’s salesforce

97
Q

Executive opinion and technological forecasting

A

executive opinion: forecasting method in which the opinions, experience, and technical knowledge of one or more managers and summarized to arrive at a single forecast

technological forecasting: application of executive opinion to keep abreast of the latest advances in technology

98
Q

Delphi method

A

process of gaining consensus from a group of experts while maintaining their anonymity

99
Q

combination forecast

A

produced by averaging independent forecasts based on different methods

100
Q

Project

A

interrelated set of activities with a definite starting and ending point, which results in a unique outcome for a specific allocation of resources

101
Q

Project management

A

systemized, phased approach to defining, organizing, planning, monitoring, and controlling projects

102
Q

Program

A

interdependent set of projects that have a common strategic purpose

103
Q

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

A

statement of all work that has to be completed

104
Q

path and critical path

A

path: sequence of activities between a project’s start and finish
critical path: sequence of activities between a project’s start and finish that takes the longest time to complete

105
Q

Activity slack

A

the maximum length of time that an activity can de delayed without delaying the entire project

106
Q

Scrum

A

an agile project management framework that focuses on allowing teams to respond rapidly, efficiently, and effectively to change

107
Q

Closeouts

A

activity that includes writing final reports, completing remaining deliverables, and compiling the teams recs for improving the project process

108
Q

Linera programming

A

technique that is useful for allocating scare resources among competing demands

109
Q

Operations planning and scheduling

A

process of balancing supply with demand, from the aggregate level down to the short-term scheduling level

110
Q

Chase strategy

A

involves hiring and laying off employees

111
Q

Level strategy

A

strategy that keeps the workforce constant, but varies its utilization via overtime, undertake, and vacation planning to match the demand forecast

112
Q

Mixed strategy

A

strategy that considers the full range of supply options

113
Q

Rotating schedule

A

schedule that rotates employees through a series of workdays or hours

114
Q

Fixed schedule

A

schedule that calls for each employee to work the same days and hours each week

115
Q

Earliest Due Date (EDD)

A

priority sequencing rule that specifies that the job or customer with the earliest due date is the next job to be processed

116
Q

Sequencing

A

determining the order in which jobs or customers are processed in the waiting line at a workstation

117
Q

Priority sequencing rule

A

rule that specifies the job or customer processing sequence when several jobs are waiting in line at a workstation

118
Q

Expediting

A

process of completing a job or finishing with a customer sooner than would otherwise be done

119
Q

Advanced planning and scheduling systems

A

computer software systems that seek to optimize resources across the supply chain and align daily operations with strategic goals