Bacteriology Exam 5 (Enterobacterales) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only oxidase positive GNR?

A

Plesiomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the lactose positive GNR?

A

E. coli, Citrobacter, Klebsiella, Enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What GNR is non-motile at 37 degrees C?

A

Yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two non-motile GNR?

A

Klebsiella and Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you differentiate between Klebsiella oxytoca and Klebsiella pneumoniae/granulomatis?

A

Klebsiella oxytoca is indole positive
Klebsiella pneumoniae/granulomatis are indole negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you differentiate between Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis?

A

P. vulgaris is indole positive
P. mirabilis is indole negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which Enterobacterales is spread by fleas (bubonic plague)?

A

Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the common characteristics of Enterobacterales?

A

All reduce nitrate to nitrite
All ferment glucose
All except one are oxidase negative (Pleseomonas is positive)
Referred to as Enterics
All members are facultative anaerobes
GNR
All are motile except for Kleb and Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the primary pathogens of interest if a routine stool culture is ordered? What are they the causative agents of?

A

Salmonella and Shigella; they are the causative agents of typhoid fever and dysentery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the primary pathogens of Enterobacterales?

A

E. coli
Salmonella sp.
Shigella sp.
Yersinia sp.
P. shigelloides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What Enterobacterales is the most common cause of UTI/Kidney infection?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What color is E. coli on EMB?

A

Shiny green metallic color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What color would E. coli (or normal flora) be on XLD agar?

A

Bright yellow colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What color would Salmonella sp. be on XLD agar?

A

Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is E. coli O157:H7 found as normal flora?

A

Cows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What meat can you consume and risk acquiring E. coli O157:H7

A

Beef (normal flora in cows)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)? What can it cause?

A

E. coli O157:H7; may cause hemorrhagic colitis causing watery/bloody diarrhea and severe cramps due to consuming bad beef, can cause HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Does E. coli O157:H7 (EHEC) have a low or a high ID50? What does this mean?

A

Low; it means only a small amount of the bacteria is needed to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you test for E. coli O157:H7? What would it look like?

A

MacConkey Sorbitol Agar, O157:H7 would be clear on this plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do EHEC cause?

A

hemorrhagic colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do ETEC cause?

A

“Travelers diarrhea” - toxins not related to EHEC; special toxins (LT and ST) cause lining of intestine to secrete excess fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do EPEC cause?

A

Pediatric diarrhea with large amounts of mucus but no blood - often outbreaks in nurseries and daycares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

EIEC

A

rare in U.S/less common worldwide; produces dysentery similar to shigella; EIEC E. coli are lactose negative and non-motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does EAEC cause? What group does it mostly affect?

A

Diarrhea by adhering to mucosal surface of intestine; watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, abdominal pain; mostly affects infants and AIDS PATIENTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which members of Enterobacterales swarm the BAP?

A

Proteus spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the phenylalanine positive Enterobacterales?

A

Proteus, Morganella, Providencia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What members of Enterobacterales are H2S positive?

A

Salmonella, Proteus, Citrobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What members of Enterobacterales are indole positive?

A

Edwardsiella, Providencia, Morganella, P. vulgaris, E. coli, Citrobacter, K. oxytoca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the commonly recovered species from infections involving aquatic environmental wounds, contamination, or ingestion of contaminated water or fish?

A

Edwardsiella tarda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What Is the most common infection caused by Enterobacter spp.?

A

HAIs via catheterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What citrobacter sp. is associated with nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses?

A

C. koseri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common Citrobacter spp. infections:

A

UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which species is slowly urea positive, and may be mistaken for Salmonella in stool cultures because it is H2S positive on HE/XLD?

A

Citrobacter species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where are Klebsiella species found?

A

GI tract of animals and humans, soil, water, plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What species has very mucoid colony morphology?

A

Klebsiella; also Enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does Klebsiella oxytoca most commonly cause?

A

UTIs

37
Q

What is a Donovan body?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis found intracellular (inside endothelial cells)

38
Q

What is the most commonly recovered Enterobacter spp.?

A

E. cloacae

39
Q

What is the main pathogen of Serratia spp? What do they most likely cause?

A

Serratia marcescens; infections in medical devices

40
Q

What organism is DNase positive?

A

Serratia

41
Q

What organism produces a unique red pigment?

A

Serratia marcescens

42
Q

What are the two main Proteus species of interest?

A

P. vulgaris/P. mirabilis

43
Q

Nearly all Proteus spp infections are associted with ____, _____, _____, and _____.

A

urine, ears, wounds, blood

44
Q

What organism can cause a dog’s paws to smell like fritos?

A

Proteus spp.

45
Q

Morganella epidemiology

A

Ubiquitous through environment and normal flora of the GI tract.
Emerging pathogen for skin, soft tissue, and UTIs as HAI

46
Q

Motile, GNR that lives in freshwater environments and causes infections through ingestion or direct contact through wounds in humans/animals (Considered an emerging pathogen for food and waterborne illnesses)

A

Plesiomonas shigelloides

47
Q

How to differentiate Aeromonas spp. and Plesiomonas spp. (since they are both oxidase POS)

A

Aeromonas spp. is DNase-positive
Plesiomonas spp. is DNase negative

48
Q

What may cross react with Shigella antisera? What is the difference between these two?

A

Plesiomonas shigelloides; but it is much less virulence than Shigella

49
Q

What organism will grow well on CIN agar?

A

Yersinia spp.

50
Q

What organism grows best at room temperature, but grows at 37 C and shows no motility at this temp?

A

Yersinia spp

51
Q

What organism has a safety pin appearance gram stain?

A

Yersinia spp.

52
Q

What organism can survive cold temperatures, contaminating blood products, and causes appendicitis-like signs/symptoms?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

53
Q

Is Yersinia enterocolitica a part of normal GI flora?

A

No

54
Q

What does Yersinia enterocolitica grow like on CIN agar?

A

Red bulls-eye colonies

55
Q

What is the H antigen?

A

Flagellar

56
Q

What is the O antigen?

A

Somatic

57
Q

What is the normal habitat of S. enterica? Cold or warm blooded environments?

A

Warm-blooded animals (humans!)

58
Q

Where are Salmonella species normally found?

A

GI tract of cold blooded animals and birds

59
Q

Where does a human acquire Salmonella?

A

undercooked poultry, milk, eggs, and dairy products

60
Q

Vi/K antigen

A

Capsular antigen

61
Q

How can MLS manipulate samples to access the O antigen of Salmonella?

A

Boil sample to destroy heat labile Vi/K antigens and then retype to access heat stable O antigen

62
Q

How do you ID Salmonella for routine stool culture?

A

XLD agar, HE agar, Selenite broth, Positive motility

63
Q

Salmonella ID50

A

Salmonella is highly sensitive to gastric acid so a large ID50 is required –> need a lot of Salmonella to cause disease

64
Q

What bacteria causes a BLOODY diarrhea and destruction of GI tissue through VERTICAL INVASION of colonic epithelial cells?

A

Salmonella

65
Q

Non-typhoidal vs Typhoidal Salmonella

A

Typhoidal: systemic disease (Refers to S. typhi and S. paratyphia) can become bloodstream infections

Non-typhoidal: acute gastroenteritis (all serotypes of Salmonella enterica except above)

66
Q

Is non-typhoidal or typhoidal salmonella more common? Which is more virulent?

A

Non-typhoidal is more common, Typhoidal is more virulent

67
Q

When do GI symptoms start after ingestion of Salmonella?

A

8-36 hours and is self-limiting and resolves within 7 days (non-typhoidal)

68
Q

Are antibiotics recommended with Salmonella? Why?

A

No; it can cause a carrier state and relapse in non-typhoid species of Salmonella

69
Q

How is Shigella spread? Is it normal flora?

A

Shigella is NEVER normal flora; it is spread person to person by poor hygiene

70
Q

Clear colony on XLD/HE

A

Shigella

71
Q

4 Major O antigen groups of Shigella
(Group A, Group B, Group C, Group D)

A

A - S. dysenteriae
B - S. flexneri
C - S. boydii
D - S. sonnei

72
Q

What is the most predominant group of Shigella worldwide?

A

Group B - S. flexneri

73
Q

What is the most severe/high death rate Shigella group?

A

Group A - S. dysenteriae

74
Q

What is the most predominant in industrialized countries and in the US Shigells group?

A

Group D - S. sonnei

75
Q

Is the ID50 for Shigella low or high?

A

Low ID50 - can withstand gastric acid and is very contagious

76
Q

What organism causes Notorious tissue invasion as an intracellular pathogen and multiplies/spreads to adjacent/HORIZONTAL epithelial cells?

A

Shigella

77
Q

Does Shigella invade the bloodstream?

A

Rarely

78
Q

When do symptoms appear after ingestion of Shigella?

A

2-4 days after ingestion, self-limiting, antibiotics useful in severe cases

79
Q

How long can stool samples be held?

A

48 hours

80
Q

What is the routine media for Enterobacterale?

A

BAP/CHOC/MAC
XLD/HE for Salmonella & Shigella

81
Q

When is WellColex performed?

A

AFter API20E

82
Q

Citrate and VP positive organisms?
How can they be further narrowed down?

A
  • Enterobacter –> motile and LF
  • Klebsiella –> non-motile and LF
  • Serratia –> motile and NLF
83
Q

E. cloacae vs E. aerogenes

A

E. cloacae is arginine and ornithine positive
E. aerogenes is lysine and ornithine positive

84
Q

E. coli hemolysis

A

Beta hemolytic

85
Q

E. coli citrate and VP

A

negative

86
Q

E. coli IMViC reactions

A

++–
(indole, methyl red, BP, citrate)

87
Q

K. pneumoniae IMViC reactions

A

–++
(indole, methyl red, VP, citrate)

88
Q

What enzyme do CPEs produce? What is CPE?

A

AmpC; Carbapenem resistant enterbacteriaceae