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Microbiology > Bacteriology Exam 1 > Flashcards

Bacteriology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The periplasmic space is found only in gram _______ bacteria.

A

negative

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2
Q

what is the function of the periplasmic space?

A

assists in nutrient uptake and contains several enzymes for degradation and detoxification

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3
Q

prokaryotic chromosomes

A

double-stranded, closed, circular, not inside of a nucleus

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4
Q

all of the following are differential media except:

a. chocolate agar
b. Macconkey’s agar
c. blood agar
d. eosin methylene blue agar

A

A

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5
Q

where do bacteria get their nutrients from?

A

the environment

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6
Q

Other than the chromosomes, where are genes found in prokaryotes?

A

on plasmids and transposons

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7
Q

how do bacteria multiply?

A

by binary fission

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8
Q

what is polycistronic mRNA

A

may encode several genes - regulated by an operon-based promotor

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9
Q

what do operons regulate

A

bacterial genes during transcription, translation, or posttranslation

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10
Q

Describe anabolic enzymes

A

“BUILD UP” Essentially a negative feedback loop - during the synthesis of genes, these enzymes will repress the genes in increased presence of the gene’s final product to prevent waste and overproduction

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11
Q

Describe catabolic enzymes

A

“BREAK THINGS DOWN” These enzymes are induced when the degraded substrate of the catabolic enzyme is present so they can degrade them. When the substrate is absent, a repressor binds to the operon and blocks the transcription of the gene.

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12
Q

Is the LAC operon a catabolic or an anabolic reaction?

A

it is a catabolic reaction.

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13
Q

What are the types of horizontal gene transfer?

A

transformation, transduction, and conjugation

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14
Q

Transduction

A

transfer of genetic material through viruses

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15
Q

Transformation

A

cell uptake of free DNA from the environment from another dead bacterial cell (phagocytosis)

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16
Q

conjugation

A

transfer of genetic material from one bacterial cell to another via cell contact through sex pili

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17
Q

Example of vertical gene transfer

A

binary fission

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18
Q

Most bacteria get their energy from __________.

A

Glycolysis

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19
Q

The 2 general methods for ATP production in bacterial cells (which one is best)?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

substrate-level phosphorylation - best method

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20
Q

Process that uses final electron acceptors other than oxygen

A

Anaerobic respiration

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21
Q

single-celled, multi-celled, or other? : viruses, fungi, parasites, bacteria

A

bacteria: single cell, PROK
viruses: other; not a cellular organism
fungi: single or multi, EUK
parasites: single or multi, EUK

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22
Q

What provides support for cellular structure in prokaryotes? Eukaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes: cytoskeleton
Prokaryotes: cell wall composed of peptidoglycan

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23
Q

what color does gram positive stain

A

purple

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24
Q

what color does gram negative stain

A

pink/red

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25
Q

What is another name for peptidoglycan

A

Murein layer

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26
Q

Is the peptidoglycan layer thicker in gram positive or gram negative?

A

gram positive

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27
Q

Is an outer membrane found in gram positive, gram negative, or both?

A

gram negative only

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28
Q

What is found in the outer membrane (LPS layer) of gram negative cells?

A

Porins, Lipid A, periplasmic space `

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29
Q

What is the repeated pattern of units found in the peptidoglycan of bacteria? What amino acid does it end with?

A

NAG-NAM-NAG-NAM, and it ends with Alanine

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30
Q

T/F: the peptidoglycan layer is not essential for survival in bacteria

A

FALSE; it is essential, which makes peptidoglycan a great target for antibiotics.

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31
Q

Function of peptidoglycan

A

gives cell shape and strength to withstand environmental pressure changes to prevent cell lysis

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32
Q

What does a gram positive cell wall contain?

A
  • a thick peptidoglycan layer

- lipoteichoic and teichoic acids

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33
Q

Example of bacteria with a waxy substance within the peptidoglycan layer that makes it more stubborn to toxic substances

A

Mycobacterium

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34
Q

Function of the capsule

A

protects bacteria from the host immune system and forms biofilm to help with attachment

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35
Q

T/F: the capsule functions as an effective permeability layer and adds strength to the cell envelope

A

False

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36
Q

hairlike structures that extend from the cell membrane

A

fimbriae or pili

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37
Q

F factor

A

fertility factor - allow bacteria to perform conjugation

38
Q

T/F: F positive cells only initiate mating with F negative cells

A

true

39
Q

structure responsible for bacterial motility

A

Flagella

40
Q

Where do mostly all functions occur that are not conducted by the cell membrane?

A

the cytosol

41
Q

Examples of organisms that produce endospores

A

Bacillus and Clostridium sp.

42
Q

When would an endospore form (in endospore-forming bacteria)

A

during harsh physical and chemical conditions and when nutrients are scarce

43
Q

A systematic process applied to all living entities to classify them based on name to identify organisms by phenotype or genotype

A

Taxonomy

44
Q

Variations in gene expression not caused by nucleic acid sequence similarities or differences

A

Epigenetics

45
Q

A method for organizing microorganisms into groups or taxa based on similar morphologic, physiologic, and genetic traits

A

Classification

46
Q

What is the “gold standard” for bacteria speciation?

A

the use of 16S rRNA in bacterial DNA hybridization

47
Q

Classification/Taxonomy hierarchy in order from least specific to most specific

A

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

48
Q

What is the difference between vertical and horizontal gene transfer?

A

Vertical: gene transfer resulting in a new generation (daughter cells)
Horizontal: gene transfer between organisms of the same generation (no new cells result, just transferring genes between already existing cells)

49
Q

Function of the cytoplasmic membrane in bacteria?

Is it found in gram negative, gram positive, or both?

A

Present in both; it is heavily laced with various proteins linked to cellular metabolism

50
Q

Difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNA?

A

prokaryotic: polycistronic (produces several proteins that are functionally related)
eukaryotic: monocistronic (produces a single protein)

51
Q

What is the ideal time of illness that specimens should be collected?

A

During the acute phase of an illness - within 2 to 3 days for viral infections and before any antibiotics or medicines are given

52
Q

Which is a preferred method of collection: swabs or tissue/needle aspirates?

A

Tissue or needle aspirates are preferred if they are able to be obtained.

53
Q

Should specimens be collected in wooden swabs?

A

No

54
Q

What type of swab is suitable for aerobic and anaerobic cultures?

A

Eswabs

55
Q

Most specimens should be transported to the laboratory within ________ of collection.

A

2 HOURS

56
Q

Specimen transportation guidelines

A
  • transported to lab within 2 hours
  • sealable, leak-proof bag with separate section for paperwork
  • special preservatives if necessary to ensure organism survival
57
Q

Boric acid preservative

A

Used in urine samples

58
Q

Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) and buffered formalin for preservatives

A

used for stool for ova and parasite (O&P) examination

59
Q

What is holding media? Name 2 examples

A

Maintains the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen without supporting the growth of the organisms
Ex. Stuart’s medium and Amie’s medium

60
Q

Anticoagulants as preservation method

A

Used in specimens to prevent clotting such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid

61
Q

What type of anticoagulant should not be used for microbiology specimens?

A

EDTA, Citrate

62
Q

SPS (sodium polyanethol sulfonate) as a preservative

A

anticoagulant; used at a concentration of 0.025% because Neisseria and some anaerobic bacteria are particularly sensitive to higher concentrations

63
Q

Heparin as a preservative method

A

anticoagulant; commonly used for viral cultures but may inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria and yeast

64
Q

What samples should be stored at 4 degrees celsius?

A

Urine, stool, viral specimens, sputa, swabs, and catheters

65
Q

How long can serum for serologic studies be frozen for and at what temp?

A

Up to 1 week at -20 degrees celsius

66
Q

What temp should tissues or specimens for long-term storage be at?

A

-70 degrees celsius

67
Q

What is a requisition slip?

A

A medical order sent along with the sample from a physician to the lab along with the specimen

68
Q

Name a few things that should be on a requisition slip (all are listed below)

A

Name, hospital identification #, age, DOB, sex, collection date and time, ordering physician, nature and source of the specimen, diagnosis (may be ICD-10 code), current antimicrobial therapy

69
Q

What samples need a direct gram stain?

A

Samples that are typically sterile and would usually not have bacteria at the site.

70
Q

What type of specimens would you not do a direct gram stain on?

A

Throat, nasopharyngeal, or stool (because they typically have bacteria on them regardless)

71
Q

Nutrient media and (example of one)

A

Supports the growth of a wide range of non-fastidious microorganisms and are considered nonselective (ex. blood agar)

72
Q

Blood agar is considered to be _______ and _______ medium.

A

nutritive and differential

73
Q

Selective media (and example)

A

Support the growth of one group of organisms but not another due to inhibitory chemicals found in the medium (ex. MacConkey agar)

74
Q

MAC

A

selective media (crystal violet inhibits growth of gram positives) and differential media (lactose fermenting vs non lactose fermenting)

75
Q

Columbia agar

A

selective media (Colistin and nalidixic acid inhibit gram-negative growth)

76
Q

MAC lactose vs non-lactose fermenting colors

A

pink - lactose fermenting

yellow/clear - non lactose fermenting

77
Q

enrichment media (and example)

A

supports the growth of fastidious organisms such as Haemophilus spp (ex. chocolate agar)

78
Q

Backup broth

examples of some

A
  • allow low number of organisms in an environment to grow compared to agar plates
  • allow anaerobes to grow at the bottom of the tube
  • allows damaged organisms to grow
    ex. brain-heart infusion, tryptic soy brother, thioglycollate broth
79
Q

What is selection of media for a given specimen based on?

A
  1. body site location

2. what pathogens are most likely to cause disease in that body site

80
Q

beta-hemolysis on BAP

A

complete hemolysis - visualizes a clear/transparent ring around the colonies on the plate

81
Q

alpha-hemolysis on BAP

A

partial hemolysis - visualizes a green/opaque color on the plate

82
Q

gamma-hemolysis on BAP

A

no hemolysis occurred - no change around the colonies on the plate

83
Q

chromogenic agars

A

produce a pigmented colony to presumptively identify a particular bacteria (ex. MRSA, VRE, Candida)

84
Q

Aerobes

A

21% oxygen, 0.03% CO2

85
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

killed in the presence of oxygen, must grow in 5-10% hydrogen, 5-10% CO2, 80-90% nitrogen, 0% oxygen

86
Q

aerotolerant

A

do not use oxygen, but are not killed by a small amount

87
Q

capnophile

A

(ex. haemophilus influenzae and neisseria gonorrhoeae) require 5-10% CO2 and 15% O2

88
Q

microaerophile

A

(ex. campylobacter jejuni and helicobacter pylori) grow in 8-10% CO2 and 5-10% oxygen

89
Q

Classification of bioterrorist agents

A

Category A - highest risk
Category B - moderate to low mortality rates and transmission
Category C - emerging pathogens that could be at risk for mass spread in the future

90
Q

Category A bioterrorism agents

A

Anthrax, Botulism, Plague, Smallpox, Tularemia, Viral hemorrhagic fevers

91
Q

Category B bioterrorism agents

A

Brucellosis, epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringens, Glanders, Food safety threats

Microbiology (24 decks)

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