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Microbiology > Bacteriology Exam 12 (Spirochetes, Rickettsia, Chlamydia) > Flashcards

Bacteriology Exam 12 (Spirochetes, Rickettsia, Chlamydia) Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 spirochete genera are pathogenic to humans?

A

Leptospira
Borrelia
Treponema

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2
Q

What allows for spirochete motility?

A

Axial fibrils wound around a flexible cell wall, surrounded by an outer sheath (periplasmic flagella)

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3
Q

How does Treponema reproduce, as compared to Borrelia or Leptospira?

A

Treponema - transverse fission
Borrelia + Leptospira - binary fission

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4
Q

Describe the difference in “spirochete shape” between the 3 spirochetes discussed.

A

Leptospira - many tight coils with one or both ends being hooked
Borrelia - thicker with fewer and loose coils
Treponema - in between ^ with straight ends

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5
Q

What specimen types can be observed by WHICH type of microscopy of the Leptospira sp.?

A

Urine, Blood, CSF by darkfield or fluorescence microscopy

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6
Q

Virulence mechanisms of Leptospira

A

Reduced phagocytosis
Hemolysin production by some strains
Endotoxins

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7
Q

How is Leptospira typically spread from animals to humans?

A

Through urine of infected animals (usually rodents) and humans ingest contaminated food/water or swim in infected water

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8
Q

What media should be inoculated for optimal recovery of Leptospira?

A

EMJH or Fletcher’s medium

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9
Q

What tick is associated with Lyme disease?

A

Western black-legged deer tick (Ixodes, hard tick)

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10
Q

What tick is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Brown dog tick

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11
Q

Which spirochetes readily uptake stain and can be visualized with a gram stain or Wright-Giemsa stain, unlike other spirochetes?

A

Borrelia

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12
Q

What spirochete is grown using Kelly medium?

A

Borrelia

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13
Q

Borrelia spp. causes 2 main diseases, which are?

A
  1. Lyme disease
  2. Relapsing fever
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14
Q

Louse-borne relapsing fever is caused by what?

A

Borrelia recurrentis

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15
Q

Hard tick-borne relapsing fever is caused by what?

A

Borrelia miyamotoi

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16
Q

Soft tick-borne relapsing fever is caused by what?

A

Borrelia hermsii

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17
Q

Lyme disease is caused by what?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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18
Q

Relapsing fever (B. recurrentis) S&S

A

Reoccurring high-grade fevers associated with rigors and muscle spasms, abruptly ends with humoral response and reoccurs weeks later again and again

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19
Q

Endemic relapsing fever vs epidemic relapsing fever

A

Endemic - tick borne (B. hermsii) - Ornithodorus
Epidemic - louse borne (B. recurrentis) - Pediculus humanus

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20
Q

What louse spreads B. recurrentis causing relapsing fever?

A

Pediculus humanus

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21
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of B. recurrentis

A

Tetracycline

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22
Q

What is Jarisch-Herxheimer reactions?

A

fever, chills, headache, and myalgia due to B. recurrentis release of endotoxin

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23
Q

Clinical S&S of Lyme disease

A

Bulls-eye rash at site of tick bite (stage 1)
Bone/joint pain and fatigue (stage 2)
Chronic neurological/cardiac involvement with memory loss, arthritis (stage 3)
Only move to higher stages if disease goes untreated.

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24
Q

Virulence + pathogenicity of B. burgdorferi

A

B. burgdorferi binds plasminogen and urokinase plasminogen activators to its surface

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25
**Do we need to know western blotting for B. burgdorferi??**
26
What is the first test performed for B. burgdorferi?
IFA or EIA If positive and S&S >30 days: IgG western blot If positive and S&S <30 days: IgG and IgM western blot
27
Treatment for Borrelia burgdorferi in early stages of disease
Doxycycline + amoxicillin (synergy)
28
Treatment for Borrelia burgdorferi in chronic stages of disease
Ceftriaxone
29
What does T. pallidum pallidum cause?
Syphilis
30
What does T. pallidum pertenue cause?
yaws
31
What does T. pallidum endemicum cause?
Bejel aka endemic syphilis
32
What does T. carateum cause?
Pinta
33
T. pallidum pathogenicity and virulence
- Can cross mucous membranes and placenta - Can disseminate to any organ - Antigenic variation makes humoral response chronic
34
Differentiate between the 3 stages of syphilis
Stage 1: Localized chancre Stage 2: Generalized prodromal illness with rashes on hands/feet Stage 3: No longer contagious unless relapse, 66% develop gummas on skin/organs, and 33% spontaneously cure
35
S&S of congenital syphilis
Hutchinson's sign on teeth CNS damage Hepatosplenomegaly Anemia Mucocutaneous lesions Osteochondritis
36
Why should oral lesions for Syphilis testing be treated with care?
Treponema can be normal oral flora, so may not always be T. pallidum
37
Most commonly used diagnostic method for T. pallidum
Serology testing Non treponemal - RPR/VDRL flocculation reactions Treponemal - TP-PA, EIA
38
Treponemal vs non-treponemal testing
Treponemal testing is for confirmatory testing (IFA, Trep antibody) Non-treponemal testing is for screening (RPR)
39
What is the principle behind the RPR/VDRL test?
Detects Reagin directed against cardiolipin VDRL can use serum or CSF RPR uses serum only and uses charcoal particles
40
drug of choice for treatment of Syphilis
Penicillin
41
S&S of Yaws and what Treponema causes this?
Granulomatous nodules in skin with gangosa, soft/hard palate/nasal infection, erodes bone/cartilage/soft tissue in face Caused by T. pallidum pertenue
42
S&S of Pinta and what Treponema causes this?
Skin papules leading to skin de-pigmentation Caused by T. carateum
43
What is the main sexually transmitted Treponema?
T. pallidum pallidum
44
Differentiate the elemental body shapes of C. trachomatis, C. pneumoniae, and C. psitacci
C. trachomatis: round C. pneumoniae: pear C. psitacci: round
45
what are the natural hosts of C. trachomatis, C. pneumoniae, and C. psitacci?
C. trachomatis: humans C. pneumoniae: humans C. psitacci: birds
46
Which of the following have glycogen inclusions: C. trachomatis, C. pneumoniae, or C. psitacci
C. trachomatis
47
Which of the following are susceptible to sulfa drugs: C. trachomatis, C. pneumoniae, or C. psitacci
C. trachomatis
48
Which is the infective form and which is the non-infective form? (Elemental bodies and reticulate/inclusion bodies)
Elementary bodies: infective form Reticulate/inclusion bodies: non-infective form
49
Describe the unique growth cycle of Chlamydia
Elementary bodies infect host cell through phagocytosis or endocytosis Intracellular replication to increase size and form --> reticulate bodies Continued multiplication and reorganization into elementary bodies Elementary bodies released from infected cell and cell dies Cycle repeats, elementary bodies go on to infect more and more cells
50
What serovariants of Chlamydia are associated with severe eye infections?
A/B/C
51
What serovariants of Chlamydia are associated with conjunctivitis?
D/E/F/G/H/I/J/K
52
What serovariants of Chlamydia are associated with STDs?
L (LGV)
53
T/F: Chlamydia is the most common STD.
True
54
Signs of Chlamydia transmitted to newborn
- Can only come from vaginal birth Swollen eyelids with yellow discharge Pneumonia, conjunctivitis, nasopharyngeal infections
55
Ideal Chlamydial specimen
Will contain epithelial cells and NOT exudative fluid First morning urines and vaginal swabs
56
Ideal collection for Chlamydial specimen (also what is NOT acceptable)
Ideal collection = rayon/dacron/cytobrush tip Not acceptable = calcium alginate, cotton, wooden shaft This is bc PCR is most common form of Chlamydia testing.
57
What type of testing is recommended for NEWBORN chlamydia testing?
Direct microscopic examination (95% sensitivity)
58
What was the gold standard for Chlamydia testing before PCR?
Cell culture; not used anymore
59
What cell culture media can Chlamydia grow on, although not performed anymore?
Buffalo green monkey kidney McCoy HEp-2 HeLa
60
What is MOMP?
Major outer membrane protein, part of infectious elementary bodies
61
What is the gold standard for Chlamydia testing? What is it testing for? What specimens are acceptable for this method?
PCR testing; tests for rRNA of C. trachomatis Acceptable = endocervical swabs of women, urethral swabs in men, and urine from both sexes
62
Which method of Chlamydia testing is useful for screening very large volume specimens?
Immunoassays (using blood, detecting antigen against LPS/MOMP) not as common
63
Treatment of LGV C. trachomatis (STD)
Doxycycline or erythromycin
64
Treatment of conjunctivitis C. trachomatis
Azithromycin or tetracycline
65
What does C. pneumoniae cause?
Pneumonia or respiratory-like illness (pretty self explanatory)
66
Treatment for c. pneumoniae
Macrolides (Azithromycin or erythromycin)
67
Gold standard specimens/testing for C. pneumoniae
Serology Any respiratory related specimen
68
What to associate C. psittaci with?
BIRDS - pneumonia-like illness very rare.
69
Treatment for c. psittaci
Tetracycline
70
What genus are included in the family anaplasmataceae?
anaplasma ehrlichia
71
What genus are included in the family Rickettsiaceae?
Rickettsia Orientia (Coxiella was removed)
72
Rickettsia Typhus group
R. prowazekii R. typhi
73
Rickettsia Spotted Fever group
R. rickettsia
74
ID50 for Rickettsia sp.
LOW (less of the organism needed to infect)
75
Eastern vs Western US vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Eastern: american dog tick (Dermacentor variabilis) Western: Rocky mountain wood tick (Dermacentor andersoni)
76
What is the most severe form of Rickettsial infection?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
77
correlated lab values to rocky mountain spotted fever
Thrombocytopenia DIC Hyponatremia Elevated liver enzymes
78
Treatment for rocky mountain spotted fever
Doxycycline
79
T/F: Rickettsia will grow on routine media
False
80
What is Brill-Zinsser Disease/Epidemic Typhus and what is it caused by?
Caused by R. prowazekii Louse-borne typhus (Pediculus humanus corporis) Brill-Zinsser is a rare complication of Epidemic Typhus
81
Causative agent of Murine Typhus (Vector + bacteria)
Vector = flea (Xenopsylla cheopsis) Bacteria = R. typhi
82
What is the causative agent of Scrub Typhus? (vector + bacteria)
Scrub Typhus AKA Bush Typhus Vector = infected chiggers Bacteria = Orientia tsutsugamushi
83
S&S of Scrub Typhus
ESCHAR formation**
84
What BS level is required for Rickettsial organisms if cultured?
BSL III
85
Samples of choice for Rickettsia
Blood
86
The Weli-Felix test is a non-specific agglutination test for Rickettsia against Proteus sp. - What strain of Proteus does Orientia tsutsugamushi react with?
Proteus mirabilis OXK
87
The Weli-Felix test is a non-specific agglutination test for Rickettsia against Proteus sp. - What strain of Proteus does the Typhus group (R. prowazekii and R. typhi) react with?
Proteus vulgaris OX19
88
The Weli-Felix test is a non-specific agglutination test for Rickettsia against Proteus sp. - What strain of Proteus does Spotted Fever Group (R. rickettsia) react with?
Proteus vulgaris OX2 and OX19
89
Where does Ehrlichia multiply inside vs Chlamydia or Rickettsia?
Chlamydia and Rickettsia = cytoplasm Ehrlichia = phagosomes and phagolysosomes
90
Lone star tick genus and species
Amblyomma americanum
91
Black legged tick genus and species
Ixodes scapularis
92
What does E. chaffeensis cause?
Human monocytic ehrlichiosis
93
Natural reservoir of Ehrlichia
dog
94
Ehrlichiosis late vs early disease sign and symptoms
Early: acute febrile illness, fever, headache, myalgia, GI issues, rash Late: renal failure, hepatic failure, toxic shock, coagulopathies, ARDS, meningitis
95
Ehrlichia infects __________. Anaplasma infects _________.
Monocytes Granulocytes
96
CBC of someone with Ehrlichia would look like?
Leukopenia Thrombocytopenia Elevated liver enzymes Anemia
97
Where is Anaplasma most prevalent and what does it cause? Vector?
Most prevalent in upper Midwest and Northeast USA Causes HGA Vector = Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus
98
Anaplasma may be spread by ________ __________.
Blood transfusions
99
What species causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetti
100
Characteristics of Coxiella?
SPORE FORMING intracellular pathogen triggered by acidic environment
101
What disease that we talked about is considered a bioterrorism agent?
C. burnetti causing Q fever
102
Reservoir of C. burnetti
Goats/sheep/cattle Spread by dairy products ASSOCIATE WITH FARMER/LIVESTOCK
103
What is the most commonly sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen?
Chlamydia trachomatis
104
What strains of C. trachomatis are more invasive, producing a more serious infection and pronounced antibody response?
LGV strains
105
______ are better assays for the diagnosis of C. trachomatis infections compared with cultures.
NAATs
106
C. __________ is a relatively common respiratory tract pathogen considered responsible for many cases of community-acquired pneumonia.
pneumoniae
107
_____________ is the cause of psittacosis, aka parrot fever or ornithosis. This bacterium produces lower respiratory tract infections in humans.
C. psittaci
108
Ehrlichia and Anaplasma are intracellular parasites of WBCs -- ____________, and ___________, respectively.
mononuclear cells and granulocytes

Microbiology (24 decks)

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