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Bacteria - Gram Negative Flashcards

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1
Q

Morphology of Neisseria

A

Gram negative diplococci

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2
Q

Neisseria tests

A

Oxidase positive
Chocolate Agar Growth (heated blood agar)
VPN agar (Vancomycin, Polymixin, Nystatin) or Thayer Martin agar

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3
Q

Immunologic Deficiency putting patients at risk for Neisseria

A

C5-C9 deficiency unable to produce MAC complex

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4
Q

Virulence factors of Neisseria

A

Fimbriae - pili shows antigenic variation

IgA protease - for survival in mucosa

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5
Q

Transmission of Neisseria meningitides

A

Respiratory droplets

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6
Q

Neisseria meningitides and gonorrhea ferments what sugars?

A

M: Glucose and Maltose

G: Glucose

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7
Q

Capsule of Neisseria meningitides

A

Polyssacharide Capsule

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8
Q

Pathogenesis of neisseria meningitides

A 
Colonization of nasopharynx
production of Lipopolyssacharide, causing inflammation response
Increased capillary permeability
Petechial rash
Shock
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9
Q

Chacteristic PE finding of Neisseria Meningitides

A

Petechial rash from thrombocytopenia

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10
Q

Waterhouse Friderichsen Syndrome

A

Adrenal Insufficiency from hemorrhage from Neisseria Meningitides

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11
Q

Treatment and prophylaxis of choice in Neisseria Meningitides

A

Ceftriaxone
(treatment)

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

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12
Q

Where does neisseria gonorrheae usually stay and live?

A

Facultative Intracellular in PMNs

does not gram stain if intracellular

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13
Q

Capsule of Neisseria Gonorrhae

A

NO capsule

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14
Q

Clinical manifestations of Gonorrhea

A

Male - urethritis, prostatitis

Female - PID, white purulent discharge

Both - septic arthritis, usually knee

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15
Q

Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome is?

A

Spread of PID into peritoneum

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16
Q

Violin String Adhesions in liver are associated with

A

Neisseria gonorrheae

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17
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis is usually caused by what organism

A

Neisseria Gonorrheae

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18
Q

Treatment of choice for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

plus Macrolide / Doxycyline) Chlamydia treatment

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19
Q

Klebsiella, Enterobacter, and serratia all cause?

A

Hospital acquired pneumonia, UTI. MDR

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20
Q

Lactose fermenting enterobactericae

A

Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, E coli

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21
Q

Pink colonies on MacConkey agar signify

A

Lactose fermenters

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22
Q

Enterobacter morphology

A

Motile gram negative

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23
Q

Serratia morphology

A

Motile gram negative, with red pigment

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24
Q

Klebsiella is usually associated with what conditions

A

Alcoholic
Abcesses
Aspiration

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25
Q

Capsule of Klebsiella

A

Polysaccharide Capsule

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26
Q

Currant Jelly Sputum is associated with

A

Klebsiella

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27
Q

Morphology of Klebsiella

A

Immotile

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28
Q

Tests for Klebsiella

A

Urease positive

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29
Q

Salmonella morphology

A

Motile
Acid Labile - needs a lot of organisms to cause infection
Capsulated

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30
Q

Black colonies on Hektoen Agar signify

A

H2S positive - salmonella

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31
Q

Undercooked chicken is major cause of

A

Salmonella enterides

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32
Q

Salmonella typhi chronic carriers are in what organ

A

Gallbladder

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33
Q

Clinical features of S. typhi

A

Rose spots
Osteomyelitis in sickle cell
Pea soup diarrhea
Constipation

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34
Q

Treatment of S. typhi

A

Fluoroquinolones

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35
Q

Salmonella with vaccine and what type

A

S. Typhi - live attenuated

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36
Q

S. enteridides clinical manifestation

A

Inflammatory diarrhea from type III secretion system

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37
Q

Pathogenesis of salmonella

A

Facultative intracellular, once taken by macrophages and it transmits

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38
Q

Green colonies on Hektoin agar signify

A

Shigella

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39
Q

Morphology of Shigella

A

Immotile, acid stable (more potent)

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40
Q

Pathogenesis of Shigella

A

Phagocytosed in M cells in mucosa and released before reaching immune defenses. , then releases cytokines
Facultative intracellular

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41
Q

Clinical symptoms of shigella

A

Bloody diarrhea

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42
Q

Shigella dysenteriae in children may precipitate into what illness

A

Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome

shiga toxin induces endothelial damage including glomerulus

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43
Q

Pathogenesis of shiga toxin

A

Affects 60s binds ribosome, type III secretion

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44
Q

Morphology of E coli

A

Encapsulated With fimbriae

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45
Q

Lab tests for E coli

A

Metallic Green on EMB agar
Pink on macconkey agar
Catalase positive

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46
Q

Leading cause of gram negative sepsis

A

Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin of E coli

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47
Q

E coli general clinical manifestations

A

Gram neg sepsis

Neonatal meningitis in children

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48
Q

EHEC is transmitted by?

A

Undercooked meat

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49
Q

EHEC clinical manifestations

A

Bloody diarrhea

Hemolytic uremic syndrome in children under 10

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50
Q

EHEC lab features

A

Only E coli not fermenting sorbitol

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51
Q

Toxin in EHEC

A

Shiga-like toxin - targets 60s subunit of ribosome

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52
Q

O157:H7 antigen associated with outbreaks of what

A

EHEC

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53
Q

Traveller’s diarrhea is associated with

A

ETEC

Montezuma’s Revenge

54
Q

Transmission of ETEC

A

Water borne

55
Q

Toxins of ETEC

A

Heat labile - increases cAMP

Heat stable - increases cGMP

56
Q

Clinical manifestation of ETEC

A

Watery diarrhea

57
Q

The Black Plague was caused by what bacteria

A

Yersinia Pestis

58
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica is transmitted through

A

Puppy feces
Contaminated milk products

Common in toddlers

59
Q

Yersinia is more resistant to heat or cold

A

Cold

60
Q

Yersinia morphology

A

Bipolar staining, like safety pin
Encapsulated
Gram Negative

61
Q

Clinical manifestation of yersinia enterocolitica

A

Bloody Diarrhea
Fever, Leukocytosis, abscess
Intusucception,
NEC

62
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica mimics what abdominal disease

A

Appendicitis

63
Q

Incidental host and reservoir and transmission of yersinia pestis

A

Incidental host - human
Reservoir - rodents, prairie dogs
Transmission -flea

64
Q

Swollen tender lymph nodes is associated with

A

Bubonic plague

Bubons

65
Q

Toxins of yersinia pestis

A

Yops

From Type III secretions

66
Q

Treatment of Yersinia

A

Aminoglycoside + Tetracycline

67
Q

Type of vaccine in yersinia pestis

A

Killed vaccine

68
Q

Guillain barre syndrome is associated with

A

Campylobacter jejuni

69
Q

Campylobacter is heat resistant or cold

A

Heat - grows in high temp

70
Q

Transmission of campylobacter

A

Fecal-oral transmission from infected chicken

71
Q

Clinical manifestation of campylobacter

A

Bloody diarrhea
Reactive arthritis
Guillain barre syndrome

72
Q

Curved gram negative rods which are oxidase positive

A

Campylobacter
Vibrio
Helicobacter

73
Q

Ritter’s syndrome is

A

Reactive arthritis from campylobacter

74
Q

Comma shaped bacteria is representative of

A

Vibrio Cholerae

75
Q

Clinical manifestation of Vibrio Cholerae

A

Rice water stools (profuse)

76
Q

Pathogenesis of Vibrio cholerae

A

Bacteria attaches to mucosa by fimbriae,
releases toxin which increases cAMP
by binding adenylate cyclase in Gs pathway
- secretory diarrhea

77
Q

Treatment of Cholera

A

Oral Rehydration

78
Q

Growth of Cholera

A

Grows on Alkaline Media - Acid Labile

79
Q

Non-cholera vibrio usually involves what organism

A

Shellfish

80
Q

Helicobacter morphology

A

Helical shaped motile gram negative

81
Q

Tests for helicobacter

A

Oxidase positive

Urease positive

82
Q

Clinical manifestation of H pylori

A

Duodenal Ulcers
Gastric Ulcer
Risk of Gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma

83
Q

Pseudomonas morphology and environment

A 
Gram negative rod
Thrives in aquatic environments
Oxidase positive
Catalase positive
Encapsulated
84
Q

Pyocyanin and pyoverdin are associated with

A

Pseudomonas green pigment

85
Q

Grape-like odor is associated with

A

Pseudomonas

86
Q

Respirations of enterobactericae

A

Pseudomonas - obligate aerobe

The rest - facultative anaerobe

87
Q

Clinical manifestations of pseudomonas

A 
HAP
Pneumonia in cystic fibrosis
Osteomyelitis in DM and Drug Users
Infection in Burn Patient
Catheter associated UTI
Pruritic papular folliculitis
Otitis Externa
88
Q

Hot-tub folliculitis is caused by

A

Pseudomonas

89
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum is associated with

A

Pseudomonas - necrotic lesion for the skin

90
Q

Pseudomonas Toxin

A

Exotoxin A - identical with diptheria (ribosylate and elongation of EF-2)

91
Q

Treatment for Pseudomonas

A

PipTazo
Aminoglycoside
Fluoroquinolones
Ceftazidime

92
Q

Proteus morphology and tests

A

Swarming motility

93
Q

Staghorn calculi and struvite stones are associated with

A

Proteus mirailis

Urease positive allows alkalinization and stone formation

94
Q

Treatment for Proteus

A

Sulfonamides

95
Q

Filamentous hemagglutinin is associated with virulence from what bacteria

A

Bordatella pertussis

96
Q

Mechanism of pertussis toxin

A

Ribosylates Gi
increases cAMP
Disables lymphocyte receptors, causing lymphocytosis

Adenylate cyclase toxin (similar to EF in bacillus)

Trachea toxin - attacks trachea ciliated epithelium

97
Q

Clinical manifestations of pertussis

A

Catarrhal - nonspecific

Paroxysmal Stage - Whooping Cough

Convalescent Stage - lasts month

98
Q

Treatment of pertussis

A

Macrolide

99
Q

Transmission of pertussis

A

Respiratory droplet

100
Q

Vaccine for pertussis

A

Acellular, proteins (part of DPT)

101
Q

Morphology of Hemophilus influenzae

A

Cocco-bacillary shape, gram negative

102
Q

Media for Hemophilus influenzae

A

Chocolate agar - contains factor 5 (nicotinamide NAD)

- factor 10 (hematin)

103
Q

Transmission of hemophilus influenzae

A

Aerosol transmission

104
Q

Manifestations of Hemophilus influenzae

A

Pneumonia
Epiglottitis (inspiratory stridor, cherry red epiglottis)
Otitis Media
Meningitis (type B capsule)

105
Q

Vaccine for hemophilus influenza targets what

A

for Meningitis causing - HiB (type B)

polysaccharide capsule

106
Q

Gram negative bacteria which needs silver stain to be visualized

A

Legionella

107
Q

Culture media for legionella

A

Charcoal yeast extract with Iron and Cysteine

108
Q

Clinical features of legionella

A

Legionnaire’s disease - common in smokers, atypical pneumonia (hyponatremia,neurologic sx like headache and confusion, diarrhea, high fever)

Pontiac Fever - self limited fever and malaise

109
Q

Rapid diagnosis for Legionella

A

Rapid urine antigen test

110
Q

Treatment for Legionella

A

Macrolides, Fluoroquinolones

111
Q

Legionella is oxidase positive True or False

A

TRUE

112
Q

Warthin-Starry Stain is used to culture?

A

Bartonella henselae

113
Q

Clinical manifestation of Bartonella henselae

A

Cat scratch disease (fever, axillar lymphadenopathy, in immunocompetent)

Bacillary angiomatosis (in immunocompromised) (raised red vascular lesions)

Kaposi Sarcoma

114
Q

Treatment for Bartonella

A

Doxycycline - for angiomatosis
Macrolides
usually self limiting

115
Q

Reservoir for Brucella

A

Farm animals

Transmitted by contact with animals or unpasteurized products

116
Q

Respiration of brucella

A

Facultative intracellular

117
Q

Clinical manifestations of brucellosis

A

Fever, Anorexia,
Undulant Fever

Systemic spread - spleen, liver, lymph node enlargement

Osteomyelitis (chronic)

118
Q

Treatment of Brucellosis

A

Tetracycline + Rifampin

119
Q

Main reservoir for francisella tularensis

A

Rabbits

120
Q

Transmission of francisella tularensis

A

Dermacentor Tick

Aerosol (bioterrorism)

121
Q

Morphology of francisella tularensis

A

Gram negative coccobacilli

122
Q

Respiration of francisella tularensis

A

Facultative intracellular

123
Q

Clinical Manifestations of tularemia

A

Painful ulcer at site of infection

Granulomas with caseating necrosis in lymph nodes, spleen

124
Q

Treatment of Tularemia

A

Streptomycin (aminoglycoside)

125
Q

Reservoir of Pasteurella multocida

A

Dog and cat

Transmission by bites

126
Q

Clinical manifestation of pasteurella

A

Cellulitis at bite site
Osteomyelitis
Lymphadenopathy

127
Q

Features of pasteurella

A

Catalase positive
Oxidase positive
Capsulated

128
Q

Culture media for pasteurella

A

5% Sheep Blood Agar

129
Q

Morphology of pasteurella

A

Bipolar staining, safety pin like

130
Q

Treatment of pasteurella

A

Penicillin

Usually coamoxiclav

PLE Microbiology (9 decks)

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