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M&M Test 2 > B6-070 Multiple Trauma Fractures > Flashcards

B6-070 Multiple Trauma Fractures Flashcards

**content warning for child abuse**

1
Q

what type of fracture tends to shorten and redisplace, even if splinted?

A

oblique/spiral complete fractures

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2
Q

in a […] fracture, the fragments usually remain in place after closed reduction

A

transverse

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3
Q

fracture with more than two fragments

A

comminuted

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4
Q

fracture where fragments are jammed tightly together and fx line is indistinct

A

impacted fx

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5
Q

fracture where bone is buckled or bent
seen in children because of increased plasticity of their bone

A

greenstick

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6
Q

fracture due to crumpled cancellous bone
seen in adult vertebral bodies

A

compression fracture

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7
Q

bone incompletely divided and periosteum remains intact

A

incomplete

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8
Q

mid portion of bone

A

diaphyseal

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9
Q

proximal and distal portions of bone [2]

A

metaphysis
epiphysis

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10
Q

diaphyseal fx can be [3]

A

simple
wedge
complex

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11
Q

proximal and distal fx can be [2]

A

extra-articular
intra-articular

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12
Q

displacement is described by relationship of

A

distal fragment to proximal fragment

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13
Q

displacement sideways, backwards, or forwards is called

A

translation

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14
Q

displacement causing tilt is called

A

angulation

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15
Q

if uncorrected, angulation will cause

A

malalignment

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16
Q

translation of fracture fragments in more than one plane is

A

rotation

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17
Q

bone breaks at a distance from where force is applied

A

indirect force

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18
Q

fractures occurring due to repetitive heavy loading
common in athletes, dancers, military

A

stress fractures

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19
Q

fractures treated operatively without callus formation

A

primary fracture healing

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20
Q

fractures treated non-operatively with formation of callus

A

secondary fracture healing

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21
Q

what type of bone demonstrates faster union?

A

cancellous

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22
Q

fractures unite faster in what age group?

A

children

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23
Q

factors that may prolong fracture healing

A

ischemia
infection
soft tissue interposition
misalignment

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24
Q

what type of fractures often go into delayed union or non-union?

A

open fx

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25
Q

leading cause of of childhood traumatic injury and death

A

non-accidental trauma

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26
Q

children between the ages of […] and […] are at the greatest risk of death from NAT

A

0-3

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27
Q

most common cause childrens death due to NAT

A

abusive head trauma

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28
Q

most common finding of child abuse in children:
second most common:

A

bruising/contusions
fractures

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29
Q

skeletal survey consists of at least […] radiographs spanning the skeleton

A

20

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30
Q

fractures that have high specificity for NAT [5]

A

classic metaphyseal lesions
rib fx (esp posterior medial)
scaupular fx
spinous process fx
sternal fx

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31
Q

infant held around chest, squeezed, and shaken may cause what fracture?

A

rib

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32
Q

caused by torsional and tractional shearing across metaphysis (pulling/twisting extremity)

A

classic metaphyseal lesions

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33
Q

scapular, spinous process, and sternal fractures results from

A

targeted blunt force trauma

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34
Q

fractures that indicates moderate suspicion for NAT

A

multiple fractures (especially bilateral)
fractures of different ages

35
Q

most common type of shoulder dislocation

A

anterior

36
Q

common glenoid fracture resulting from anterior dislocation

A

bankhart

37
Q

common humerus fracture resulting from anterior dislocation

A

Hill-Sachs

38
Q

Colles fracture typically results from

A

FOOSH

39
Q

fracture of the distal radial metaphyseal region with dorsal angulation and impaction

A

Colles

40
Q

ankle fractures are commonly due to what mechanism?

A

inversion

41
Q

metaphyseal fractures in skeletally immature patients can involve the growth plate resulting in what class of fracture?

A

Salter-Harris

42
Q

what 3 radiographic views should be ordered for an ankle fracture?

A

frontal
lateral
mortise

43
Q

the modality of choice for further characterization/classification of ankle fractures, especially in pediatric patients

A

ankle CT

44
Q

if diagnosed early, a scaphoid fracture will heal in […], if diagnosed late it can take up to […]

A

12 weeks
6 months

due to poor blood supply

45
Q

The standard radiographic evaluation of a patient with a suspected shoulder injury should include what views?

A

frontal (internal/external rotation)

axillary
scapular Y views

46
Q

types of fractures commonly associated with anterior shoulder dislocations [2]

A

Hill-Sachs
Bankart

47
Q

serves as the foundation for evaluating patients in cases of suspected NAT

A

skeletal survey

48
Q

The highly specific fractures for NAT include [5]

A

Rib fractures (particularly posterolateral)
classic metaphyseal lesions
scapular fractures
spinous process fractures
sternal fractures

49
Q

the inferior component of an anterior shoulder dislocation is caused by

A

post-traumatic spasm in pectoralis

50
Q

following a shoulder dislocation, why is it important to order post reduction radiographs?

A

to evaluate for Hill-Sachs fracture

51
Q

fractured glenoid following shoulder dislocation

A

Bankart

52
Q

gold standard for imaging traumatic shoulder pain

A

MR arthrography

53
Q

why is it important to reduce a shoulder dislocation as quickly as possible?

A

to prevent muscle spasm

**can deepen Hill-Sachs

54
Q

[…] ligament injuries represent approximately 85% of all ankle sprains

A

lateral

55
Q

evident widening of the lateral clear deep space indicates

A

syndesmotic rupture (injury to intraosseous ligaments)

56
Q

a triplane ankle fracture is most likely to occur in which age group?

A

12-14 years

57
Q

Salter-Harris fracture refers to a fracture through the

A

physis (growth plate)

58
Q

two-part triplane fractures can usually be treated with

A

closed reduction

59
Q

three-part triplane fractures are typically treated with

A

surgical reduction

60
Q

when initial radiographs are normal but there is a high suspicion for fracture […] can detect fractures of the distal radius and carpal bones

A

MRI without contrast

61
Q

which portion of the scaphoid is most susceptible to AVN following fracture

A

proximal pole

62
Q

children between the ages of […] and […] are at the greatest risk of death from NAT

A

0-3

63
Q

the majority of deaths related to NAT are due to

A

head trauma

64
Q

most common finding in NAT

A

cutaneous lesions

65
Q

in skeletal survey, […] view of the ribs should be obtained to increase the accuracy of diagnosing fractures

A

oblique

66
Q

initial imaging modality of choice for assessment of acute hip pain with suspected fracture

A

Xray

67
Q

foramen made up by the ischium and pubic bones

A

obturator ring

68
Q

an intact obturator ring helps to exclude a fracture of

A

pelvic rami

69
Q

curvilinear line running from the iliosacral joint along the medial border of the iliac wing and superior border of the superior pubic bone

A

iliopectineal line

70
Q

delineates the inner margin of the pelvic ring

A

iliopectineal line

71
Q

most appropriate initial imaging study for patient with suspected diabetic osteomyelitis of the foot

A

conventional radiographic and MRI examinations are acceptable first-line imaging studies for evaluation of potential osteomyelitis

72
Q

inexpensive and easy to obtain; poorly sensitive for osteomyelitis

A

xrays

73
Q

expensive and difficult to obtain; highly sensitive and specific for osteomyelitis

A

MRI

74
Q

Seen on Xray:
Irregularity of the cortical bone and periostitis
Gross destruction of the cortical and underlying trabecular bone

A

osteomyelitis (associated with diabetic nephropathy)

75
Q

LOW T1 and HIGH T2 signal intensity

A

Marrow edema (osteomyelitis)

76
Q

Marked INCREASED bony enhancement on post-contrast T1 weighted imaging

A

osteomyelitis

77
Q

T1 and T2 weighted sequences are both sensitive at demonstrating

A

bony edema

78
Q

study of choice for evaluation of a suspected, radiographically occult hip fracture

A

MRI

79
Q

USPSTF recommends screening for osteoporosis in women starting at what age?

A

65

**or younger if fracture risk is equal to 65 year old

80
Q

imaging examination that determines the density of the patient’s bones through attenuation of dual-energy x-ray beams

A

DEXA

81
Q

Risk of avascular necrosis of femoral head increases with

A

degree of displacement of fracture

82
Q

imaginary curved line drawn along the inferior border of the superior pubic ramus and along the inferomedial border of the neck of femur

A

Shenton’s line

83
Q

Shentons line is a radiographic marker used to detect

A

superior femoral head subluxation (acetabular dysplasia)

M&M Test 2 (18 decks)

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