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AOR Flashcards

1
Q

What is “Go-mindedness”?

A

The idea of go-mindedness is that except for the occurrence of a problem or hindrance, where
there is a serious doubt that the airplane can fly safely, it is safer to continue the take-off than to
reject it from a point near V1.
Notes on Go-mindedness:
- Decision is left to the Captain’s best judgement
- Engine failure with thrust loss, or a take-off warning, that would render the airplane unflyable
prior to V1 should be rejected
- Over EGT or engine fire without thrust loss near V1 should be continued (PIC)
- Malfunctions such as tire or anti-skid failure can hinder braking performance during an RTO

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2
Q

What is the RTO policy of calling out any malfunction during the take-off roll?

A

The crewmember recognising a malfunction before V1, DEEMING THE TAKEOFF SHOULD BE
REJECTED, shall call it out clearly. Although callout for all other malfunctions shall be left to the
crewmember’s judgement depending on circumstances, care should be taken for not causing an
unnecessary high-speed RTO. In the case of engine failure, it is enough to call out only “Engine
Failure” without mentioning the engine number

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3
Q

What is the minimum amount of braking required during an RTO if there is a failure of the RTO
braking system?

A

If the autobrakes become inoperative or disengaged during RTO, MAXIMUM manual braking
must be applied, until the airplane is sufficiently decelerated

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4
Q

Can reverse thrust be used on an RTO following an engine fire indication?

A

Yes, in order to establish the maximum deceleration configuration at the earliest, use all reversers
even where there is an engine fire warning

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5
Q

When should the V1 call be made?

A

The PM should initiate the V1 callout as the airspeed needle is observed within 5kts of V1 speed,
and complete the callout by V1

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6
Q

Who has control of the aircraft during an RTO?

A

When the Captain decides to reject a take-off, he will call “Reject”, assume control and initiate the
procedure, while the Co-pilot shifts to perform the PM duty. The call of “Reject” should also be
interpreted as “I have control”

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7
Q

Following a “Go” decision, until when are the thrust levers the Captain’s area of responsibility?

A

The thrust levers are the Captain’s area of responsibility until the landing gear lever is placed to
UP

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8
Q

What are some considerations following an RTO?

A

The following should be noted following an RTO:

  • Necessity of passenger evacuation
  • Passenger notification (PA)
  • Necessity of brake cooling
  • Use of parking brakes
  • Risk of tire burst with ground crew in the vicinity
  • Necessity for brake energy calculation prior to another attempted take-off
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9
Q

An RTO executed at V1 + 4kts will cross the threshold at what speed?

A

65kts

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10
Q

Explain the required V1 take-off performance standard:

A

Take-off performance requires that the airplane will be able to attain a height of 35ft over the end
of the runway when an engine failure occurs before V1 (VEF) and the take-off is continued. Take-off
performance standard also requires that the airplane will be able to stop on the runway without using
reverse thrust when an RTO is initiated at V1

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11
Q

What is the “Balanced field length concept”?

A

V1 is selected in order so that the accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance

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12
Q

How should the initiation of a non-normal procedure be made?

A

Do not start the procedure by reflex reaction even if the specified checklist includes some
memory items. The Captain must first verify the condition, then select an appropriate procedure
according to the flight situation and decide whether to take over the PF duty. Then the Captain shall
command the required non-normal procedure at the right time

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13
Q

Describe the basic PF and PM task assignment during a non-normal procedure:

A

It is basically designed so that PM takes charge of all the operations except for those directly
related to vertical / lateral navigation (such as special escape procedure / rapid depress manoeuver /
requirement to enter the holding pattern etc.) When the Captain instructs to commence a nonnormal
procedure, the PF works on the future flight plan (route of flight)

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14
Q

What are the confirmed action switches and how are these performed?

A

In non-normal procedures, confirmed actions are established and the crewmember shall carry out
his procedure only after confirmation by the other crewmember. The listed confirmed actions are
those that are hard to recover or irreversible, but do not apply during the DUAL ENGINE FAILURE
checklist, such as:
- Engine fire switch
- APU fire switch
- Cargo fire arm switch (NOT the discharge switch)
- Generator drive disconnect switch
- Engine shutdown (i.e. fuel control switch)

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15
Q

Is a wind correction required during autothrottle use?

A

No, because the autothrottle automatically adjusts thrust for any wind speed changes at varying
altitude along the approach path, however a 5kt tolerance is added

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16
Q

Why is a wind correction to target approach speed required?

A

Generally, wind speed is lower closer to the ground surface so airspeed decreases during
approach in a headwind, possibly leading to a short touchdown

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17
Q

What is the wind correction on target approach speed formula?

A

Basic target approach speed is BUG + (1/2 Headwind + Gust)

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18
Q

When should the wind correction on target approach speed be held until?

A

The nearer the aircraft approaches the threshold; the less important it becomes to maintain the ½
head wind speed additive to prevent a short landing. When passing through the threshold, airspeed
of BUG + Gust will be appropriate. Due to landing performance, unnecessary speed additive should
be eliminated, gradually and not forcibly during approach

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19
Q

What target approach speed is used when wind is reported as calm?

A

BUG + 5 is used

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20
Q

Can the engine pod ever scrape the runway with a nose-up attitude?

A

No, nose down attitude must be greater than minus 1, and roll angle must be 12 degrees or
greater

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21
Q

Which parts of the aircraft are suspect to ground contact during inappropriate landing pitch and
roll values?

A

The following parts of the aircraft may make contact with the ground:

  • Nose gear
  • Engine nacelle
  • Leading edge slat
  • Wing tip
  • Elevator
  • Tailskid
  • Aft body
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22
Q

At what pitch angle is there a possibility of tail contact on landing?

A

In the case of main gear struts extended, there is a possibility of tail contact at a pitch angle of 9.5
degrees, when roll is zero. In case of main gear compressed, the ground clearance decreases, and
the margin of pitch angle decreases by approx. 2 degrees to 7.5 degrees nose up

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23
Q

What is the definition of “standard callouts”?

A

Standard callouts are the minimum required callouts relating to the following items, and exclude
callouts that instruct specific operation (i.e. Gear Up / V1):
- Altitude / Position / Speed
- Significant deviation in flight path / speed / descent rate
- Information to aid judgement for making a landing or missed approach
- Flight and navigation instruments / autopilot system status

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24
Q

What are the main objectives of standard callouts?

A

They are:

  • To confirm information on altitude, position, speed and system status
  • To enhance crew coordination, common recognition, and fail safe function
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25
Q

What is the purpose of acknowledging a crew callout?

A

PF’s acknowledgement to the PM’s callout is his expression that PF has understood the
message, and this is also an effective way of quickly detecting crew incapacitation of the PF

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26
Q

Why does the PF make a callout of “Stabilised”?

A

The PF makes a “stabilised” callout at 500ft verifying a stabilised approach from all aspects.
General indications of a stabilised approach condition include parameters such as airspeed, sink
rate, and vertical / lateral path. However, the final decision should be made by the PF based on his
experience, knowledge and skill. For example, even if there is some deviation in the flight path or
approach speed, due to external disturbance, if the PF is confident that he can make necessary
correction and land safely, the condition could be “stabilised”

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27
Q

What is the purpose of an altitude callout at the outer marker or fix?

A

These callouts confirm that you’re not capturing a ghost beam. Altitude callouts are called off the
PM’s altimeter. The ghost beam appears above the normal beam and its path is double that of the
normal glide path

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28
Q

Below what height should deviation calls related to speed be called? What is the tolerance for
these speeds?

A

After passing 500ft above field elevation, “airspeed” calls should be made when reference speed
is above 10kts from the target approach speed, or below 5kts with landing flaps

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29
Q

What is the PF’s callout after “continue” at the MDA?

A

A: In a non-precision approach there are no standard callouts after calling “continue” at MDA, and
the PF continues to descend of circle with the runway in sight. The PF should make a callout to
show of his intention and clarify his intentions to the situation, such as “Landing”, or “Flaps 25/30”

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30
Q

What is the purpose of the 5000ft standard callout?

A

To give attention to the PF that the maximum speed is now 300kts, and the maximum decent rate
is now 2500fpm, even if a speed limit is not specified

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31
Q

What is the purpose of the VDP standard callout?

A

To notify the PF of reaching optimum descent point for landing in a non-precision approach

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32
Q

When is the “Altitude” callout made when attempting to maintain MDA?

A

When the PF descends more than 50ft below MDA

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33
Q

Notes on “Situations beyond the scope of Non-Normal checklists”:
GENERAL:

A
  • Situations resulting from mid-air collision, bomb explosion, catastrophic failure, or other major
    malfunction
  • Selected elements of several different checklists may need to be applied to fit the situation
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34
Q

BASIC AERODYNAMICS AND SYSTEM KNOWLEDGE:

A
  • Aileron control to serve as rudder control and vice versa
  • If both aileron and rudder control affected, the use of asymmetrical engine thrust may aid roll
    and directional control
  • If elevator control is affected, stabiliser trim, bank angle and trust may be used to control
    pitch
  • Pitch up with thrust increase, pitch down with thrust decrease
  • Flight control break-out feature is incorporated onto the 767
  • There should be no concern about damaging the mechanism by applying too much force to
    the control columns during break-out
  • Limit bank angle to 15 degrees if manoeuvring capability is in question
  • Trading airspeed for altitude and vice versa should be considered
35
Q

FLIGHT PATH CONTROL:

A
  • Take whatever action is necessary to maintain a safe flight path
  • Fuel jettison (if installed) should be a primary consideration is performance appears to be
    critical
  • If operation of flaps is in doubt, leading and trailing edge devices should not be changed
    unless performance requires such action
  • Anytime an increased rolling moment is experienced during flap transition (indicating a failure
    to automatically shutdown an asymmetric flap situation), return the flap handle to the
    previous position
  • On the ground during landing, aggressive differential braking and / or use of asymmetrical
    reverse thrust, in addition to other control inputs, may be required to maintain directional
    control
36
Q

CHECKLISTS WITH MEMORY STEPS:

A
  • Only after the flight path control has been established, do the memory steps of the
    appropriate non-normal checklist
  • Complete all non-normal checklists prior to beginning final approach
  • There may be times where two non-normal checklists conflict with directions. The intended
    course of action should be consistent with the damage assessment and handling evaluation
37
Q

COMMUNICATIONS:

A
  • Establish flight deck communications as soon as possible. This may require use of the
    interphone, or in extreme noise levels, hand signals and gestures
  • Declare an emergency with ATC to assure priority handling and declare emergency services
    on the ground
  • If possible, organise a discrete radio frequency to minimise distractions and frequency
    changes
  • Squawk 7700
  • Communications with the cabin crew and with the company are important, but should be
    accomplished only as time permits
38
Q

DAMAGE ASSESSMENT AND AIRPLANE HANDLING EVALUATION:

A
  • If possible, attempt to take time to assess the effects of the damage before attempting to
    land
  • Make configuration and airspeed changes slowly
  • Conduct the damage assessment and handling evaluation at an altitude that provides safe
    margin for recovery should flight path control be inadvertently compromised
  • If structural damage is suspected, attempt to access the magnitude of the damage by direct
    visual observation from the flight deck and / or passenger cabin
  • Consider contacting the company and use them as a valuable source of technical information
    if required from expert sources
  • If controllability is in question, consider performing a check of the airplane handling
    characteristics. The purpose of this check of to determine minimum safe speeds and the
    appropriate configuration for landing
39
Q

LANDING AIRPORT:

A
  • The following items should be considered when selecting an airport for landing:
  • Weather conditions (VMC preferred)
  • Enroute time
  • Length of runway available (Longest possible runway preferred, wind permitting)
  • Emergency services available
  • Flight crew familiarity
  • Other factors dictated by the specific situation
40
Q

When is the light forward pressure on the control column released during the take-off roll?

A

When approaching VR, reduce the forward pressure to make it neutral at VR

41
Q

What is the normal pitch-up rate during rotation?

A

Make a rotation smoothly and continuously at a pitch up rate of 2 to 2.5 degrees per second

42
Q

What are the ‘general’ deviations from steady flight conditions that may indicate the presence
of windshear?

A

Generally, at an altitude of 1000ft and below, it could be said that windshear causes deviations
from normal steady flight conditions in excess of the following:
- 15kts indicated airspeed
- 500fpm vertical speed
- 5 degrees pitch attitude
- 1 dot displacement from the glide slope
- Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time (from QRH)

43
Q

What are some possible weather related indications that low level windshear may be present?

A

The following may be used to assess the possibility of low-level windshear:
- A thunderstorm in the vicinity of the airport, especially when accompanied by heavy rain, and
when generally in the vicinity of 5 to 6 miles, (sometimes up to 12 miles)
- When a passing front has a temperature difference of over 5c before and after the front
- When a passing front is moving at over 30kts
- When virga is present

44
Q

What is the initial pitch-up attitude when encountering windshear?

A

To begin with, maintain 15 degrees nose-up and if a drop in altitude is still seen, bring the pitch to
that prior to occurrence of the stick shaker

45
Q

What is the reason that 15 degrees pitch-up is used for windshear recovery?

A

It has been indicated that when encountering severe windshear, the higher the pitch attitude is,
the higher the windshear recovery ability is, but at the same time it has been confirmed that stick
shaker margin becomes a factor. For this reason, compromising on both recovery ability and stick
shaker margin, 15 degrees was adopted as an initial pitch target

46
Q

What is the most VR can be increased if using an increased VR for potential windshear?

A

20kts, but not above the V1 for the performance limited take-off weight, so that obstacle
clearance and climb gradient can still be met, whilst avoiding an overrun during the take-off

47
Q

How far is the nose gear behind the pilot position?

A

The nose gear is located 2 meters behind the pilot position

48
Q

What is the recommended maximum speed for turning on a slippery taxiway?

A

3kts

49
Q

When taxiing, when should you turn the nose wheel when entering a taxiway of 45 degrees or
90 degrees?

A

Turn as follows:
- 45 degree turn: Turn when the pilot’s eye position intersects the outer edge of the taxiway
you are entering
- 90 degree turn: Turn when the pilot’s eye position intersects the extended centreline of the
taxiway you are entering

50
Q

What are the 4 principle policies of operational procedures?

A

As follows: (FAAP)

  • 1) Fly first
  • 2) Assure secured and reliable operation
  • 3) Achieve effective and efficient operation
  • 4) Promote standardised and uniform operation
51
Q

What is meant by “assure secured and reliable operation”?

A

Secured operation means establishing procedures that are immune from mistakes. Reliable
operation means employing fail-safe features and procedures to prevent mistakes

52
Q

What is meant by “effective and efficient operation”?

A 
Constantly reviewing (or establishing new) procedures with operational and technological
improvements and advancements
53
Q

What is meant by “promoting standardised and uniform operation”?

A

With various combinations of flight crew, small variations in individual procedures in the cockpit
could greatly compromise safety. Therefore uniform standard operating procedures are established
that are built on practical reasoning and clear-cut concepts that all flight crew can accept and carry
out

54
Q

What are the 6 principle concepts when establishing operational procedures?

A

As follows: (TCCMWD)

  • 1) Task sharing
  • 2) Crew coordination
  • 3) Crew communication
  • 4) Monitor and cross-check
  • 5) Workload management
  • 6) Discipline
55
Q

hat is meant by “task sharing”?

A

The present concept can be described as PF / PM roles based on area of responsibility. PF
mainly controls the aircraft, and PM mainly does tasks other than flying the aeroplane. The concept
is consistent throughout all phases of flight. Tasks are assigned to PF / PM according to the
accessibility of a panel or a switch position. The Captain maintains the ultimate responsibility

56
Q

What is meant by “crew coordination”?

A

Safe flight is not assured without well-coordinated teamwork. ‘Mind your own business’ does not
apply. Good coordination consists of timing and proceeding with due consideration to your
colleagues progress. Major elements of crew coordination are:
- 1) Use of checklists: Checklists are the last guard to ensure secured and reliable operation,
and there are procedures in place to detail how to start the checklist, how to challenge and
respond, and what to do when the checklist is interrupted etc.
- 2) Confirmed actions: The more critical the situation, the more imperative secured operation
and good coordination become. A cross-check procedure is employed when shutting down a
failed engine in the air due to damage or fire, even if it may be time consuming

57
Q

What is meant by “crew communication”?

A

Many accidents are attributed to ineffective human redundancy due to poor expression, failure to
hear correctly, or lack of understanding among crewmembers. Major elements of crew
communication are:
- Standard response to order: It is basic operational procedure that crewmembers respond to
an order by repeating the order before initiating the action. The crewmember then carries out
the action, and then reports to the PF on completion of the action
- Standard callouts: Standard callouts play a role as a fail-safe function, and to make crew
members aware of the current flight situation
- Briefing: The PF makes his intentions clear to all crewmembers and lets them participate in
verifying the plan. It is done especially for take-off and landing where a considerable amount
of vital information must be gathered

58
Q

What is meant by “monitor and crosscheck”?

A

Bad weather or failure of systems and equipment in flight tends to draw entire crewmember’s
attention, and can lead to a lack of monitoring of aircraft status. Major elements of monitor and
crosscheck are:
- Scan pattern and instrument monitor during approach: This prevents the danger of
simultaneous head-down, or simultaneous head-up
- Speed and descent rate during descent and approach: Particularly at low attitude
- Verification of autopilot and autothrottle engaged mode: It is important for crew to keep
aware of exactly what systems are currently controlling, and what the system is doing, so
engaged modes, armed modes and their changes should always be verified
- CDU or MCDU operation: Both pilots simultaneous concentration on the CDU operation
should be avoided, and to avoid erroneous data entry a mutual crosscheck of the data before
and after entry should be made

59
Q

What is meant by “workload management”?

A

Workload may increase during take-off and landing, as well as when experiencing bad weather or
system malfunction. Workload management is defined as establishing task priorities or changing
task assignment to keep workload within the controllable range. Workload management is basically
left to flight crew discretion, however effective use of auto flight systems supports the “fly first” and
affords the pilots time to make comprehensive decisions. Workload management can broken into:
- Flying the aeroplane: The more critical the condition becomes the more correct judgement
and operation becomes necessary, so positive use of the auto flight system in an urgent
situation in recommended
- Use of auto flight systems: In approach and landing under low visibility, autoland is
recommended in addition to effective use of the auto flight system in other situations

60
Q

What is meant by “discipline”?

A

Flight crew are expected to conduct themselves in a professional manner. It is important to
confirm all actions using reliable references, which is standard operating procedures. Intentional
deviation from standard operating procedures will upset crew coordination and deteriorate mutual
monitoring that could result in mistakes and greatly impair secured and reliable operation. The most
important discipline is strict adherence to standard operating procedures.

61
Q

Why is raw data monitoring required when flying a VOR approach in LNAV?

A

According to the NAV database coding rules, a “RWXX” (which is at the runway threshold) is
coded on the final approach course of the VOR approach. This means that the coded approach to
the runway threshold could be parallel to the published chart course. There will be an increase in
deviation from the published chart as you gradually approach the runway

62
Q

What is the tolerance on raw data monitoring during a VOR approach being flown in LNAV?

A

Raw data should be monitored and the course deviation should be within 2.5 degrees, which is ½
a dot on the HIS

63
Q

What should be done if raw data monitoring indicates that the deviation on the VOR approach
(in LNAV) exceeds 2.5 degrees?

A

Change LNAV to HDG SEL in order to modify the course, except if visual reference is already
established

64
Q

What touchdown point has been used in the non-normal configuration landing performance
data?

A

1250ft

65
Q

What brake setting has been used in the non-normal configuration landing performance data?

A

Full manual braking

66
Q

What temperature and pressure altitude has been used in the non-normal configuration landing
performance data?

A

ressure altitude: Sea level

Temperature: 30 degrees (dry/wet runway) / 0 degrees (snow/ice/slush)

67
Q

Over what snow depth is take-off prohibited?

A

½ inch (13mm)

68
Q

What are the 4 maximum wind categories to be considered prior to landing?

A

They are:

  • Crosswind
  • Tailwind
  • Wind components for autoland (Headwind, tailwind, crosswind)
  • Crosswind for Cat I, Cat II and III operations
69
Q

When must the reported wind be under the maximum values for take-off?

A

The reported wind must be within the allowable values when take-off clearance is received

70
Q

When must the reported wind be under the maximum values for landing?

A

There are 2 options:
- 1) The reported wind must be within the allowable values when landing clearance is
received
- 2) If the reported wind when receiving a landing clearance is over the allowable values,
request approach may be continued, however request the surface wind again. The updated
surface wind must be within the allowable values before reaching 500ft AGL

71
Q

If landing clearance is given at 600ft AGL and wind limitations are not exceeded, what actions
should be taken if, at 300ft the reported wind is over the maximum limits?

A

Proceed with the landing, regardless of the wind condition reported thereafter, as long as it is
judged that the airplane can land safely

72
Q

What is the reasoning behind continuing the approach if, below 500ft the wind strength is in
excess of the maximum limit?

A

At low altitudes below 500ft, flight crew should concentrate on the control of the airplane rather
than the complicated procedure of confirming whether the reported wind is within the allowable
values or not. The airplane must however be in a stabilised condition and able to approach and land
safely

73
Q

Can the IRS/CDU wind data be used in calculating maximum wind values for landing?

A

No, a decision to land must be made based on the reported runway winds by the tower

74
Q

Will braking action be reported on a runway covered with thin slush of less than 2mm?

A

On thin slush of less than 2mm, slushplaning cannot arise and slipperiness is similar to braking
action in “good” conditions. Current measuring devices cannot measure reliable friction coefficient in
slush conditions, therefore braking action will not be reported.

75
Q

What are the 2 forms of drag created by take-off and landing on runways covered with
standing water, snow or slush?

A

There are 2 types of drag created:
- Displacement drag: The drag created when the aircraft wheels push through standing water,
snow or slush
- Spray impingement drag: Is a secondary drag created when water or slush is sprayed by the
spinning wheels against the fuselage and wing. It is possible to cause damage to the wheels,
flaps etc.

76
Q

What are the major differences between “Company Standard” (Critical operation) and AFM
(Wet) in landing performance standards?

A

Company standard AFM Wet
Threshold speed Ref + 15kts Ref + 0
Touchdown point 2000ft 950ft
Transition time 3 seconds 0.3 seconds

77
Q

Who makes the final judgement for runway conditions (i.e. Damp / Wet / Flooded / Ponding)?

A

Runway conditions are generally not issued from airport authorities, and so flight crew or flight
dispatch officers should make the final judgement for runway conditions, based on information such
as visual observation, intensity of precipitation, and METAR code

78
Q

What is the approximate definition of a damp runway?

A

Runway surface is damp but not glittering, meaning no water film

79
Q

What is the approximate definition of a wet runway?

A

Runway surface is sufficiently wet and glittering

80
Q

In Japan, what precipitation rate will determine a runway to be flooded?

A

If the intensity of precipitation is more than 30mm/hr. the runway is considered to be flooded. In
Japan, if more than 30mm/hr. precipitation is observed the met office will issue a METAR code with
RI++

81
Q

What is meant by “ponding”?

A

Ponding is a locally flooded condition that results from a geographical shape of the runway

82
Q

Who makes the observation or judgement for snow or ice covered runways?

A

A runway covered with snow or ice is issued a “SNOWTAM” by the airport authorities, so the flight
crew makes the decision for operations based on the report. In case the official information is not
available, then the reports from other flight crew or flight dispatch may be used as an alternative

83
Q

How is snow measured on a runway?

A

In the SNOWTAM, the runway is divided into 3 segments and for each segment the snow depth is
measured at more than 2 points at relatively flat snow surface 2 to 8 meters on both sides of the
runway centreline, then the average snow depth is reported on each segment

84
Q

If the runway is covered in different characteristics of snow type, snow depth and braking
action, what is used for take-off performance and braking action?

A
  • Take-off / landing restriction by snow depth: Apply the performance for the worst condition of
    all three segments
  • Braking action: Use the worse of the last two segments

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