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Undeleted > AIM J > Flashcards

AIM J Flashcards

1
Q

What are some limitations of the NDB?

A

The NDB us subject to disturbances that may cause erroneous bearing indication, such as:

  • Attenuation
  • Night errors
  • Terrain errors
  • Coastline errors
  • Errors in the vicinity of electrically charged cumulonimbus
  • No “Flag”, therefore navaid must be continuously monitored
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2
Q

What is the rated coverage of the NDB and VOR?

A

A far greater coverage may be obtained proportionally to aircraft altitude. These are the “proofed”
distances:
- VOR 40nm Enroute, 25nm Terminal
- NDB 75nm Enroute, 25nm Terminal

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3
Q

What is the mandatory aerodrome lighting aids required for an aerodrome served for night
landings or precision approaches?

A

A: The following lighting is mandatory:

  • Aerodrome beacon (ALL)
  • Taxiway edge lighting (ALL)
  • Wind direction indicator (ALL)
  • Approach lighting system (CAT 1/2/3)
  • PAPI (CAT 1/2/3)
  • Runway edge lights (CAT 1/2/3/Night)
  • Runway threshold lights (CAT1/2/3/Night)
  • Runway centreline lights (CAT 2/3) (However, installed at all CAT 1)
  • Runway touchdown zone lights (CAT 2/3)
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4
Q

How spaced apart are the runway centreline lights on a CAT 2/3 precision runway?

A

15m

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5
Q

How are the touchdown zone lights arranged, and what colour are they?

A

They extend from the landing threshold and extend to 900m. They are spaced with an interval of
60m, or 30m for CAT 2/3. They are white in colour

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6
Q

What are the colours of the runway centreline lights?

A

The lights are arranged as follows:
- The lights are white in colour from the landing threshold until 900m before the end of the
runway
- The lights alternate red then white from 900m to 300m from the end of the runway
- The lights are steady red for the last 300m of the runway

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7
Q

What colour are the taxiway lights?

A

The lights are as follows:
- Taxiway edge lighting is steady BLUE
- Taxiway centreline lighting is steady GREEN
- Rapid exit taxiway lighting is alternating YELLOW and GREEN
Yellow lights visible until aircraft tail section is clear of ils crit area for cat2/3

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8
Q

How can you determine that you are halfway down the runway?

A

A: You can determine that you are halfway down the runway by the halfway runway markings. They
are white in colour, and they are 3 parallel markings crossing the runway 1.5M OR WIDER STRIPES

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9
Q

What is the distance to the beginning of the main aiming point marker for a runway greater than
2400m?

A

For a runway length of 2400m or longer, the distance to the beginning of the main aiming point
marker is 400m from the landing threshold

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10
Q

What is the distance to the beginning of the main aiming point marker for a runway between
1500-2399m?

A

For a runway length of 1500m-2399m, the distance to the beginning of the main aiming point is
300m

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11
Q

What is the distance between the inside of the threshold and the runway threshold markings?

A

6m

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12
Q

How can you determine if the stopway pavement strength is equal to the pavement strength of
the runway?

A

When the stopway is the same as the strength as the runway it is indicated by ->->->
When the stopway is of less strength than the runway it is indicated by&raquo_space;»»»»>

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13
Q

What speed restrictions exist in a class D control zone?

A

The following speed restrictions apply in a control zone:

  • Above 3000ft = 250kts
  • At or below 3000ft = 200kts
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14
Q

What are the dimensions of a control zone?

A

A control zone extends to a 9km (5nm) radius of ARP. Generally, the upper limit is 3000ft at civil airports,
and is generally higher at military airports

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15
Q

What is Positive Control Airspace?

A

PCA is airspace in the vicinity of high-density airports with highly congested airspace, such as
Narita, Tokyo, Sendai, Naha and Fukuoka etc.

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16
Q

How is reported tower wind direction and velocity broadcast?

A

In magnetic bearing with 10-degree increments, and one knot increments

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17
Q

Is a “ready” call required in Japan?

A

No, a controller should regard a turbine aircraft ready for departure when approaching the
departure point, unless otherwise the pilot informs that take-off preparations are not yet completed.
Therefore, a pilot is not required to inform “ready” unless otherwise requested by ATC, THEREFORE MUST REPORT TO TWR IF NOT READY!!

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18
Q

What wake turbulence category is the B767?

A

MTOW greater than 300,000lbs or more = HEAVY

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19
Q

What items are to be included when requesting an airways clearance? When shall the request
be made?

A

The following items must be included in an airways clearance, at least 5 minutes prior to EOBT:

  • Destination
  • Altitude
  • Parking location
20
Q

When should the pilot activate the transponder?

A

A pilot should activate the transponder prior to take-off as late or possible, and deactivate it after
completing the landing roll as soon as possible. A taxiing aircraft is required to set it ON when either
starting push back or commencing taxi at Narita, Tokyo, Kansai, Osaka, and Fukuoka

21
Q

When requested to report clear of the runway, when may an aircraft report clear?

A

A: An aircraft is clear of the runway when all parts of the aircraft comes beyond the stop line, PAST HOLDING PT

22
Q

What is the meaning of a steady green light from tower to an aircraft?

A

Cleared to take-off / land

23
Q

What is the meaning of a steady red light from the tower to an aircraft?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling/ ON GND STOP

24
Q

When should a pilot change frequency from tower to departures?

A

A pilot should not change frequency until instructed by tower, even if a departure frequency is
informed on the ATIS, or airways clearance prior to airborne

25
Q

What is the speed tolerance to be maintained?

A

Pilots should maintain a speed of +- 10kts or +- 0.02M

26
Q

A standard holding pattern requires turns in which direction?

A

RIGHT hand turns

27
Q

What timing is required for a standard holding pattern?

A

Timing is as follows:

  • At or below 14,000ft = One minute outbound
  • Above 14,000ft = One and a half minutes outbound
28
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds when holding at a navaid?

A

The required speeds are as follows:

  • 0 to 6000ft = 210kts
  • 6001ft to 14,000ft = 220kts
  • 14,001ft or higher = 240kts
29
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds when holding at a DME fix?

A

The required speeds are as follows:

  • 0 to 6000ft = 200kts
  • 6001ft to 14,000ft = 230kts
  • 14,001ft or higher = 265kts
30
Q

What is the maximum holding speed in turbulence?

A

280kts or 0.80M whichever is less. The protected area is generally predicated on the nonturbulent
conditions and therefore, the pilot should inform ATC when the speed for turbulent
conditions is required

31
Q

Q31: When applying a lateral offset, what side of track should this be done, and by how many miles?

A

The offset shall be established at a distance of one or two miles to the RIGHT of track by setting
on the FMS/OUTSIDE RADAR NO NEED INFORM ATC, IN RADAR MUST RQST FROM ATC

32
Q

What is the circling approach area for a category D aircraft?

A

2.5nm

33
Q

What is the minimum vertical separation during circling for a category D aircraft?

A

550ft

34
Q

What is the VDP?

A

The visual descent point is established at a certain point on the final approach course at which the
lowest flight path dictated by the PAPI reaches MDA, in order to conduct an adequate descent to the
touch down point

35
Q

Should a pilot descend prior to the VDP if the runway or visual reference is in sight?

A

A pilot should maintain MDA until crossing VDP even if the runway or visual references are
sighted prior to VDP

36
Q

What is the rated coverage of the ILS glideslope?

A

10nm

37
Q

What is the rated coverage of the ILS localiser?

A

Where no topographical features dictate, it is rated to 25nm. Where topographical features do
dictate, it is rated to 18nm

38
Q

What is a CAT 1 approach?

A

Operations to an RVR/CMV of 550m or greater, with a DH of 200ft or higher

39
Q

What is a CAT 2 approach?

A

Operations to an RVR of 300m or greater, with a DH of 100ft or higher and lower than 200ft

40
Q

What is the required manoeuvre if a missed approach is required prior to the MAPt?

A

The pilot should initiate a go-around and fly on the instrument approach route segment as
published to the MAPt, then follow the missed approach procedures

41
Q

What is the required manoeuver if a missed approach is required during circling?

A

In principle, climb out toward the landing runway, or direction presumed to be the centre of the
airport

42
Q

If a speed adjustment has been issued after being cleared for approach, when is it terminated
automatically?

A

The speed shall be maintained up until one of the following:
- The outer marker or equivalent DME fix, or 5nm from touchdown, whichever is closer
during an ILS approach
- Turning base, or 5nm from the threshold whichever is closer during a visual approach
- 5nm from touchdown when neither of the above are applicable

43
Q

What is the pilot in commands authority during actions in an emergency?

A

The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the
operation of that aircraft. In an emergency requiring immediate action, it may be difficult to comply
with any of the prescribed procedures or ATC instructions in order to cope with the emergency. If an
emergency action is taken that deviates from the provisions of an ATC clearance, the pilot in
command shall promptly notify ATC, and when normal operations are resumed, obtain a clearance
as much as possible

44
Q

What phraseology is required during a TCAS RA?

A

As soon as possible, notify the appropriate ATC unit of any RA as follows:

  • “TCAS RA”
  • “CLEAR OF CONFLICT, RETURN TO (assigned clearance)
  • “CLEAR OF CONFLICT, (assigned clearance) RESUMED
  • “UNABLE, TCAS RA”
45
Q

What is meant by “minimum fuel” in Japan?

A

: A pilot should advise ATC of their fuel status when the fuel supply has reached a state where any
unexpected delay cannot be accepted to ensure a safe landing. Minimum fuel is NOT an emergency
situation, but indicates that an emergency situation is possible, should any unexpected delay occur.
A minimum fuel advisory does not indicate a need for traffic priority

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