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Biochemistry > Anticancer Therapies, Radiation, and Drugs > Flashcards

Anticancer Therapies, Radiation, and Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

If p53 doesn’t get signaled, what happens to the progression of the cancer cells?

A

they are blocked because p53 is not activated and there is no leukemia

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2
Q

It is not only the duration of exposure that increases the risk of cancer development, but a ____ factor associated with that.

A

time/age (time or age of onset)

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3
Q

What is the treatment designed to induce, enhance, or suppress the immune system?

A

immunotherapy

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4
Q

What are some facial features of a patient in prednisolone?

A

swollen face and prominent cheeks from water retention

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5
Q

What is the chromosomal translocation associated with AML M3?

A

translocation of the RARA (#17) with the PML (#15)

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6
Q

What are some potential risk factors for cancer development?

A
  • radiation exposure
  • UV light from the sun
  • chemicals
  • life style
  • viruses
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7
Q

What are some of the certain genetic conditions that increase the risk of a patient developing ALL?

A 
Down syndrome
Ataxia telangiectasia
Bloom syndrome
Neurofibramatosis
Schwachman syndrome
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8
Q

Diagnostic x-rays generate ___ radiation than energies from radiation therapy.

A

less

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9
Q

What is the goal of the maintenance therapy phase?

A

to kill any remaining leukemia cells that could cause a relapse with lower doses of treatment medication

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10
Q

____ binds irreversibly to microtubules and spindle proteins in the S phase of the cell cycle and interferes with the formation of the mitotic spindle to arrest tumor cells in metaphase.

A

Vincristine

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11
Q

Is dental care significantly different in individuals who has childhood lymphomas and leukemias?

A

No

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12
Q

What happens when p53 is phosphorylated?

A

MDM2 gets removed and p53 binds to the regulatory region of the p21 gene, which is a CDK inhibitor

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13
Q

Currently, what is the easiest AML subtype to treat?

A

AML M3 (Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia)

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14
Q

____ forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals which cause breaks in the DNA.

A

Bleomycin sulfate

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15
Q

When Gleevec is bound to the Bcr-Abl gene, ___ cannot be phosphorylated and activated.

A

p53

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16
Q

____ places itself between base pairs in the DNA helix, preventing DNA replication to inhibit protein synthesis and forms oxygen free radicals that have cytotoxicity in the cell.

A

Doxorubicin

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17
Q

What are three hallmark symptoms of ALL?

A

joint and bone pain
foul-smelling urine
easily bruised

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18
Q

What are the key properties of cancer cells?

A
  • they reproduce without regard to normal restraints on cell growth and division
  • the invade and colonize areas normally reserved for other cells
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19
Q

How does CML get treated? What does its treatment target?

A

the Bcr-Abl fusion protein

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20
Q

What is the first sign of ALL?

A

bone and joint pain

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21
Q

A single mutation is not enough to cause cancer. Inherited mutations confer ___ of developing cancer.

A

increase risk

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22
Q

What is p21?

A

a CDK inhibitor

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23
Q

What binding site does Gleevec bind to to prevent the phosphorylation of p53?

A

ATP-binding site

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24
Q

If p53 prevents the cell from entering the cell cycle (an inhibitor of the cell cycle), it is considered a ____.

A

tumor suppressor

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25
Q

What does the translocation of the Philadelphia chromosome create?

A

a fusion gene protein between Bcr and Abl genes

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26
Q

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is associated with an overgrowth of the ____ cell population.

A

granulocyte

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27
Q

Patients with ____ can develop blood-clotting and bleeding problems.

A

AML M3

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28
Q

What does the phosphorylation of p53 eventually lead to?

A

the inactivation of G1/S CDK and S-CDK via p21 action

29
Q

How many different subtypes of AML are there, based upon the cell that the leukemia develops from?

A

8

30
Q

In what phases of the cell cycle is p53 involved?

A

G1/S-CDK
S-CDK
M-CDK

31
Q

What does the RARA-PML fusion protein bind with high affinity to?

A

sites on DNA important for granulocyte differentiation

32
Q

Which cancer therapy has a radioisotope given internally?

A

Internal Radiation Therapy

33
Q

____ binds to tubulin and inhibits microtubule formation, resulting in disruption of mitotic spindle assembly and arrest of tumor cells in the M phase of the cell cycle.

A

Vinblastine

34
Q

____ is a treatment that targets the RARA-PML cancerous fusion protein that causes AML M3.

A

all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA)

35
Q

____ is a synthetic glucocorticoid that binds to and activates specific nuclear receptors, resulting in altered gene expression and inhibition of pro-inflammatory cytokine production. It stimulates apoptosis in sensitive tumor cell populations.

A

Prednisolone

36
Q

____ therapy uses a particle accelerator to beam high energy particles to better localize the radiation dosage and cause less damage to surrounding tissues.

A

Charged Particle or Proton Therapy

37
Q

What is the goal of the induction phase?

A

to kill the leukemia cells in the blood and bone marrow to put the leukemia into remission

38
Q

Which type of cancer is best treated with internal radiation therapy?

A

thyroid cancer (with radioactive iodine)

39
Q

Tumors or ____ are abnormal cells that grow (increase in mass) and proliferate (divide).

A

neoplasms

40
Q

When does the phosphorylation of p53 occur?

A

when DNA damage is detected by CHK1/2 kinases

41
Q

How are p53’s levels regulated?

A

post-transcriptionally

42
Q

Do all tumors metastasize?

A

NO

43
Q

What type of cancer is leading in new cases per year?

A

reproductive tract cancers of epithelium

44
Q

What is CML caused by?

A

chromosomal translocation called the Philadelphia chromosome

45
Q

___ works by direct ionization of atoms in the DNA chain or indirectly by ionization of water to form hydroxyl radicals that can then damage DNA.

A

Photon therapy (X-ray/Gamma Ray)

46
Q

What happens if ALL gets into the spinal fluid?

A

they sequester in there and hide (most relapses come from spinal or brain re-colonization)

47
Q

____ forms highly charged platinum complexes which bind to GC-rich sites in DNA, inducing many cross-links to cause apoptosis.

A

Cisplatin

48
Q

What does radiation induce and what does it lead to?

A

DNA damage; cell death

49
Q

____ is part of an immune checkpoint control system that keeps immune cells from attacked themselves.

A

PD-1

50
Q

What is the goal of the consolidation phase?

A

to kill any remaining leukemia cells that may not be active but could begin to grow and cause a relapse

51
Q

What is the basic strategy for treating cancer with drugs or radiation?

A

to induce so much damage to the tumor cells via DNA damage that they cannot divide (so, induce cell death)

52
Q

Where do the plant derivatives that 70% of cancer drugs are synthesized from come from?

A

the rainforest

53
Q

What is another important factor in the prognosis of a patient with ALL?

A

how quickly and how low the leukemia cell count drops after initial treatment

54
Q

What are some risk factors of ALL?

A
  • being exposed to x-rays before birth
  • being exposed to radiation
  • past treatment with chemotherapy
  • having certain changes in the genes
  • having certain genetic conditions
55
Q

____ inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which results in the inhibition of purine nucleotide and thymidylate synthesis, eventually halting DNA and RNA synthesis.

A

Methotraxate

56
Q

Under normal conditions, p53 is bound by another protein called ____. What does this lead to?

A

MDM2; p53 being ubiquinylated and degraded

57
Q

When are tumors considered benign?

A

if neoplastic cells do not become invasive

58
Q

In the case of ___, the bone marrow is producing too many immature lymphocytes.

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

59
Q

Does ATRA kill the immature leukemic promyelocytes?

A

NO - just induces their terminal differentiation to eventually undergo apoptosis

60
Q

___ is leukemia characterized by increased production and growth of myeloid cells in the bone marrow that then circulate in the blood.

A

CML

61
Q

Why does the overall incidence of cancer increase with age?

A

because the longer we live, the more mutations we accumulate or encounter a second “hit”

62
Q

____ uses a machine to send high energy beams from outside the body to the tumor area.

A

External Beam Therapy

63
Q

The protein ___ mediates the cellular response to DNA damage and induces cell death or cell-cycle arrest.

A

p53

64
Q

When are tumors considered malignant?

A

when they acquire the ability to invade surrounding tissue

65
Q

What is the parent drug used to treat CML?

A

Gleevec (imatinib)

66
Q

What is the most important factor in assessing the prognosis of a patient with ALL?

A

what the WBC count is (lower numbers signify a higher change of survial)

67
Q

What medications target PD-1 on T-cells?

A

Opdivo and Keytruda

68
Q

What are the sites called where secondary tumors form?

A

metastases

69
Q

What are the three phases of leukemia treatment?

A

1) induction
2) consolidation
3) maintenance

Biochemistry (17 decks)

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