Antibiotics Flashcards

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1
Q

What 3 antibiotics are resistant to ESBL producers?

A

Cephalosporins
Penicillins
Aztreonams

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2
Q

MIC definition

A

Lowest concentration of antibiotic that prevents growth

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3
Q

MBC definition

A

Lowest concentration of antibiotic at which bacterial population killed

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4
Q

MIC testing methods

A

Broth
E test
Automated systems

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5
Q

Qualitative susceptibility tests

A

Kirby Bauer

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6
Q

Principle of E test

A

Plastic strips containing preformed and predefined continuous stable antimicrobial gradient

Mueller Hinton agar

Ellipsis of growth - MIC

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7
Q

What tube is the MIC?

A

First tube without turbidity

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8
Q

Principle of Kirby Bauer

A

Single drug concentration diffuses out of disk

Creates a gradient (highest closest to disk)

Measure zone of inhibition

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9
Q

What things can cause an falsely large zone in Kirby Bauer?

A

Thin media

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10
Q

What can cause a false small zone in Kirby Bauer?

A

Too much in bacteria

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11
Q

What antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Beta lactams (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapanems, monobactams)

Vancomycin

Daptomycin

Polypeptides

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12
Q

What antibiotics inhibit gyrase?

A

Topoisomerase

Quinolones

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13
Q

What antibiotics inhibit folate synthesis?

A

Trimethoprim

Sulfamethoxazole

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14
Q

What antibiotics inhibit free radicals?

A

Metronidazole

Nitrofuratoin

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15
Q

What antibiotics inhibit the 50S unit?

A
Macrolides
Clindamycin 
Linezolid 
Streptogramins
Chloramphenicol
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16
Q

What antibiotics inhibit 30S?

A

Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Tigecycline

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17
Q

what causes:
Tetracycline zone too large
clindamycin zone too small
E. coli or S. aureus controls

A

pH too low

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18
Q

what causes:
small tetracycline zone
large clindamycin zone
E coli or S aureus controls

A

pH too high

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19
Q

what causes:
small aminoglycoside zone
P. aeurginosa control

A

Ca and/or Mg too low

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20
Q

penicillins

A

methicillin, oxacillin, ampicillin, piperacillin

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21
Q

cephalosporins

A

cephalexin

cefotoxin

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22
Q

carbapenems

A

imipenem

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23
Q

monobactams

A

aztreonam

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24
Q

glycopeptides

A

vancomycin

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25
Q

macrolides

A

erythromycin

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26
Q

tetracylcines

A

tetracycline

doxycycline

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27
Q

aminoglycosides

A

gentamycin
tobramycin
amikacin

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28
Q

sulfonamides

A

trimethoprim

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29
Q

quinolones

A

ciprofloxacin

levofloxacin

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30
Q

major organism natural penicillins

A

strep

31
Q

1st gen cephalosporins

A

cephalothin
cefazolin
cephalexin
cefadroxil

32
Q

1st gen cephalosporin activity

A

G+C except enterococcus

enterics

33
Q

2nd gen cephalosporins

A

cefoxitin
cefuroxime
cefotetan
cefuroxime

34
Q

3rd gen cephalosporins

A

ceftoxamine
ceftriaxone
ceftizoxime
ceftazidine

35
Q

aztreonam active against

A

pseudomonas

GNR

36
Q

beta lactams

A

penicillins
cephalosporins
monobactam
glycopeptides

37
Q

miscellaneous beta lactams

A

imipenem
meropenem
doripenem

38
Q

vancomycin active against

A

G+

C diff

39
Q

bacitracin active against

A

G+
some G-
topical

40
Q

polymyxin B and colistin active against

A

G-

topical

41
Q

aminoglycosides active against

A

G+

G-

42
Q

what is tobramycin particularly useful for

A

pseudomonas and acinetobacter

43
Q

tetracyclines active against

A

G+
G-
intracellular organisms

44
Q

macrolides active against

A

intracellular organisms

45
Q

erythromycin active against

A
G+
Respiratory infections (M pneumoniae, Legionella, Neisseria, Haemophilus)
46
Q

clindamycin active against

A

G+

47
Q

what G+C is universally susceptible to penicillin

A

group A, B, C strep

48
Q

drugs for G- infections

A
aminoglycosides
ES pencillins
cephalosporins
quinolones
imipenem
49
Q

drugs for pseudomonas

A

aminoglycosides
ES penicillins
3 gen cephalosporins
imipenem

50
Q

ANA drugs

A
ES penicillins
B lactams
cefoxitin
chloramphenicol
imipenem
metronidazole
51
Q

nalidixic acid active against

A

UTI

52
Q

flroroquinolones active against

A

complicated UTI

invasive ear infectionsfrom G-

53
Q

too much Ca and Magnesium in Mueller Hinton affects

A

decreased activity of aminoglycosides and tetracyclines

54
Q

increased thymidine in mueller hinton affects

A

decreased activity of sulfonamides

55
Q

increased pH affects what

A

increased activity against aminoglycosides, eryhtromycin, clindamycin
(increased diameter)
decreased activity of tetracycline

56
Q

agar too thick

A

smaller zones of inhibition

57
Q

agar too thin kirby bauer

A

larger zones of inhibition

58
Q

drugs for enterobacteriaceae

A
penicillins
cephalosporins
aztreonam
imipenem
aminoglycosides
quinolones
tigecycline
trimethoprim
sulfamethoxazole
59
Q

drugs for staph

A
penicillins
quinolones
vanc
erythromycin
clindamycin
trimethoprim
tigecycline
60
Q

drugs for pseudomonas

A
penicillins
cephalosporins
aztreonam
imipenem
aminoglycosides
quinolones
61
Q

drugs for enterococcus

A
ampicillin
gentamycin
vancomycin
tigecycline
linezolid
62
Q

drugs for strep pneumoniae

A
pencillin
cephalosporins
imipenem
quinolones
vanc
erythromycin
clindamycin
trimethoprim
63
Q

organisms that most often produce beta lactamase

A
staph
haemophilus influenzae
neisseria gonorrhoeae
moraxella 
enterococcus
64
Q

most sensitive beta lactamse method

A

chromogenic cephalosporin nitrocefin

65
Q

3 mechanisms for resistance to beta lactam anitbiotics in staph aureus

A

production of penicillin binding protein (mecA gene)
hyper beta lactamase production
production of modified PBPs

66
Q

which type of MRSA is resistant to clindamycin and erythromycin

A

health care associated infections from MRSA

67
Q

what gene is responsible for erythromycin resistance

A

msrA

68
Q

what gene is responsible for clindamycin resistance

A

erm

69
Q

what test is used to detect inducible resistance to clindamycin

A

D test

70
Q

organisms that can be ESBL

A
e coli
klebsiella
proteus
morganella
serratia
enterobacter
pseudomonas
71
Q

what induces AmpC

A

cefoxitin
imipenem
ampicillin

72
Q

organisms with AmpC

A
providencia
aeromonas
citrbacter
enterobacter
morganella
pseudomonas
73
Q

what is AmpC

A

cephalosporinase

cephalosporin resistance