Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

What are sulfonamides often combined with?

A

other antibiotics, rarely used alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MOA of sulfonamides?

A

-Bacteriostatic
-antagonize or inhibit an enzyme essential for bacterial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some therapeutic uses of sulfonamides?

A
  • Treatment of UTIs
  • Treatment of URIs
  • Treatment of ear infections
  • Treatment of pneumonia

UTIs = Urinary Tract Infections, URIs = Upper Respiratory Infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which bacteria are are commonly treated with sulfonamides?

A
  • Escherichia coli
  • Enterobacter species
  • Klebsiella spp.
  • S. aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a major contraindication for sulfonamides?

A

Allergy to sulfa drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name two contraindications for sulfonamides related to patient conditions.

A
  • Pregnancy/Lactation
  • Infants younger than 2 months

These groups are at increased risk of adverse effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some side effects of sulfonamides?

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Crystalluria
  • Toxic nephrosis
  • Anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome
  • Photosensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What nursing implication is important for patients taking sulfonamides?

A

Push fluid, 2000-3000 mL of fluid per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do penicillins inhibit?

A

Bacterial cell wall synthesis

This is vital for bacterial growth and reproduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are beta-lactamases?

A

Enzymes capable of destroying penicillin

These enzymes can lead to penicillin resistance in bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid called?

A

Augmentin

This combination enhances the effectiveness of amoxicillin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some therapeutic uses of penicillins?

A
  • Prevention of infections
  • Treatment of infections caused by gram (+) bacteria
  • Treatment of Enterococcus
  • Treatment of Streptococcus
  • Treatment of Staphylococcus

Penicillins are effective against various bacterial infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are common adverse side effects of penicillins?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Abdominal pain
  • Superinfections
  • Colitis

These side effects can affect patient compliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are common allergic reactions to penicillins?

A
  • Urticaria
  • Pruritus
  • Angioedema

Allergic reactions can vary in severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Adverse reactions associated with penicillins?

A

-Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
-idiosyncratic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What nursing implication should be observed after administering penicillins?

A

Monitor for an allergic reaction for at least 30 minutes

This is crucial to ensure patient safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What factors can decrease the absorption of oral penicillins?

A
  • Caffeine
  • Citrus fruit
  • Cola beverages
  • Fruit juices
  • Tomato juice

These substances can interfere with medication efficacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

First generation cephalosporin meds ?

A

cefazolin (Ancef)
cephalexin (Keflex)

First generation cephalosporins are primarily used for surgical prophylaxis and susceptible staphylococcal infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of bacteria do first generation cephalosporins have good coverage against?

A

Gram-positive bacteria

They have poor coverage against gram-negative bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Second generation cephalosporin mentioned?

A

Cefprozil

Second generation cephalosporins provide better gram-negative coverage than first generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the primary use of second generation cephalosporins?

A

Prophylactically for surgical prophylaxis in abdominal or colorectal surgeries

They have good gram-positive coverage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the third generation cephalosporin mentioned?

A

ceftriaxone

This generation is most potent against gram-negative bacteria but less active against gram-positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the key feature of fourth generation cephalosporins?

A

Broader spectrum of antibacterial activity than third generation

Particularly effective against gram-positive bacteria and used for uncomplicated and complicated UTI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the fifth generation cephalosporin known for?

A

Broadest spectrum of activity

It is effective against a wide variety of organisms, including MRSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
True or False: The fifth generation cephalosporin is the only one that can treat MRSA.
True ## Footnote This highlights its unique capability among cephalosporins.
26
What is a potential allergic reaction concern with cephalosporins?
Cross reaction with penicillin allergy ## Footnote There is a 10% incidence of allergic reactions in patients with a history of penicillin allergy.
27
What nursing implications should be observed when administering cephalosporins?
Observe for S&S of anaphylaxis, previous reaction to penicillins, given with food to decrease GI upset ## Footnote These are important considerations to minimize adverse effects.
28
Macrolide antibiotic drugs
erythromycin, azithromycin (Zithromax), clarithromycin (Biaxin), Clindamycin (Cleocin)
29
What type of antibiotic are macrolides classified as?
Broad spectrum antibiotic
30
How do macrolides affect bacteria?
Inhibits protein synthesis
31
What types of bacteria are macrolides active against?
Active against gram + and gram –
32
What should be used if a patient is allergic to PCN?
Macrolides
33
What are some common infections treated with macrolides?
Mild to moderate URI-tonsillitis, pharyngitis, lower respiratory tract infection-pneumonia, gonorrhea, Chlamydia, syphilis, Lyme disease
34
What are some side effects of macrolides?
Chest pain, hypotension, palpitations, prolongs QT interval, abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, hepatotoxicity, jaundice, anorexia
35
What serious gastrointestinal condition can be associated with macrolides?
Pseudomembranous colitis
36
How are macrolides metabolized?
Metabolized in the liver
37
What effect do macrolides have on oral anticoagulants?
Can increase the effects of oral anticoagulants
38
What is the effect of macrolides on oral contraceptives?
Decreases effectiveness of oral contraceptives
39
MOA of tetracyclines have on bacteria?
Bacteriostatic—inhibit bacterial growth -Inhibits protein synthesis
40
What types of bacteria do tetracyclines have a wide spectrum activity against?
* Gram positive * Gram negative
41
What strong affinity do tetracyclines have that affects their administration?
Strong affinity for calcium
42
What should tetracycline not be taken with?
Milk or any dairy products
43
What is a contraindication for tetracyclines during pregnancy?
Teratogenic effects
44
What age group should not be given tetracyclines?
Children younger than 8 years old
45
What are some side effects of taking tetracyclines?
* Discoloration of permanent teeth and tooth enamel * May retard fetal skeletal development during pregnancy * Diarrhea * Nausea * Vomiting * Photosensitivity
46
What severe conditions contraindicate the use of tetracyclines?
Severe hepatic or renal disease
47
What alteration in intestinal flora may result from tetracycline use?
Superinfection
48
What are potential consequences of superinfection due to tetracyclines?
* Diarrhea: Pseudomembranous colitis (c-diff) * Vaginal candidiasis * Oral candidiasis
49
What is a nursing implication for tetracyclines?
-Medications should be taken with 6 to 8 ounces of fluid -On an empty stomach or at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals -Avoid Sunlight
50
What should be monitored for when a patient is on tetracyclines?
Superinfections
51
What type of antibiotics are aminoglycosides?
Very potent antibiotics with serious toxicities
52
What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?
Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
53
What types of bacteria do aminoglycosides primarily target?
Kill mostly gram-negative; some gram-positive
54
Name two examples of aminoglycosides.
* gentamicin * streptomycin
55
How are aminoglycosides typically administered due to poor oral absorption?
Given IV
56
What serious toxicities are associated with aminoglycosides?
* Nephrotoxicity (renal failure) * Ototoxicity (auditory impairment and vestibular impairment)
57
What must be monitored to prevent toxicities while using aminoglycosides?
Drug levels (peak and trough)
58
What are the most significant adverse effects of aminoglycosides?
Ototoxicity (auditory impairment) and nephrotoxicity
59
Name some less common adverse effects of aminoglycosides.
* Paresthesia * Neuromuscular blockade (muscle paralysis) * Vertigo * Skin rash * Superinfections
60
What type of bacteria do fluoroquinolones primarily target?
Mostly Gram negative, some Gram positive, anaerobes, Mycobacterium tuberculosis
61
Examples of Quinolones
* ciprofloxacin (Cipro) * levofloxacin (Levaquin) * moxifloxacin (Avelox)
62
common ending for Quinolones
floxacin
63
List three therapeutic uses of Quinolones
* Lower respiratory tract infections * Bone and joint infections * Infectious diarrhea
64
What are some conditions where Quinolones should be used with caution?
* Seizure disorders * Renal disorders * Children <18 years & elderly
65
Adverse effects
-Dysrhythmias: Prolongs QT interval -pseudomembranous colitis -SJS -abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea -Seizures
66
What is the black box warning associated with Quinolones?
Increased risk for tendinitis and tendon rupture
67
Nursing implications for taking Quinolones
-taken with 3 L of fluid per day -Antacids, milk, and yogurt -BUN, creatinine -monitor for hypoglycemia when taking antidiabetics -decrease effectiveness of warfarin