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Animal Physiology > animal physiology midterm > Flashcards

animal physiology midterm Flashcards

1
Q

what is physiology

A

functional dynamics in living things

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2
Q

what are the levels of biological organization

A

biochemical, cellular, organ, systemic, organismal

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3
Q

what did aristotle observe

A

natural processes within bodies

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4
Q

what two people studied physiology with a connection to medicine

A

galen and harvey

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5
Q

anatomical studies lead to speculation about____

A

function

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6
Q

when did galen live

A

2nd century rome

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7
Q

what did galen postulate

A

flow dynamics of blood in human body

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8
Q

who studied medicine in early experimental investigations (post medieval)

A

william harvey

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9
Q

when did william harvey live

A

17th century

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10
Q

what did william harvey prove

A

refuted galens direction of blood flow through study of cardiovascular system

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11
Q

what processes affect the internal environment of an organism

A

temperature, ph, ion levels

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12
Q

what can affect membrane/protein structures in an organism

A

changes in the internal environment

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13
Q

how can reaction dynamics be affected in the internal environment

A

by changes in the internal environment via kinetic energy

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14
Q

why is a stable internal environment vital for organisms

A

to maintain constant internal conditions

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15
Q

what regualtes internal conditions

A

homeostasis

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16
Q

why is the father of physiology

A

c. bernard

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17
Q

when did bernard live

A

19th century france

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18
Q

what did bernard do

A

work on renal and cardiovascular systems emphasizing internal environment

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19
Q

what are two ways body parameters can be compromised

A

external environmental changes, internal generated changes

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20
Q

what are some external environmental changes

A

temperature, solutes

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21
Q

what are some examples of internally generated changes

A

rest vs exercise, eating vs fasting

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22
Q

what are additional complications to compromised body parameters

A

disturbance length, conform or regulate

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23
Q

what is a conformer

A

parameter changes with the environment, no homeostasis

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24
Q

what is a regulator

A

regulate against environmental changes until some extreme limit is reached

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25
Q

what is circumstantial regulation

A

animal itself is both a conformer and a regulator depending on the observed parameter

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26
Q

what is an example of a circumstantial regulator

A

salmon conform to temperature but regulates chloride ion concentration

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27
Q

what limits the ability of an organism to resist a change

A

compromised body parameters

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28
Q

what is the genomic perspective on evolutionary physiology

A

look at variability within the population, that variability is material for evolution to operate on

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29
Q

traits of evolution are programmed by ___

A

genetics

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30
Q

what is evolutionary physiology based on population genetics

A

morphological variation versus genetic variation

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31
Q

what is morphological variation

A

easily recognizable, involves allelic differences

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32
Q

why does genetic variation exist

A

because of allele differences within and between populations

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33
Q

why studied physiological genomics

A

t. garland

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34
Q

what about physiological genomics did t. gardland study

A

disease susceptibility, establishment of adaptive traits

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35
Q

what is a negative feedback system

A

constant monitoring of a controlled parameter that minimizes deviation from pet point giving stability of a parameter

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36
Q

why studied cybernetics

A

w. cannon

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37
Q

what about cybernetics did w. cannon study

A

regulatory system operation, constant monitoring of controlled parameter

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38
Q

what is a sensor

A

keeps tabs on regulated paramter

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39
Q

what parameter does a sensor usually keep tabs on

A

often more than one nerve cell or other neural component

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40
Q

what is the control center

A

usually in the brain to interpret parameter information and compare to a set point

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41
Q

what is the effector/inverting amplifier

A

deliver output to modify parameter value, minimizing deviation from set point to yield stability

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42
Q

what is a fever

A

elevated temperature set point

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43
Q

what is a positive feedback system

A

response augments deviation from set point

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44
Q

what is an example of a positive feedback

A

ap generation and blood clotting

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45
Q

what does it mean that duration of activity and level of change is tightly controlled in positive feedback systems

A

there is a maximum level that causes rapid termination before it gets out of control

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46
Q

what is a positive feedback operation

A

effector evokes change in the same direction as the parameter

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47
Q

what is a servomechanism

A

operation may entail negative feedback, set point not fixed over a short period of time

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48
Q

what effect can a servomechanism have

A

rapid error sensing and output corrections become critical with instantaneous changes being made

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49
Q

when does servomechanism occur

A

in skeletal muscle during locomotion (rapidly changing levels in strength output, muscle length, point position)

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50
Q

what is metabolism

A

all chemical dynamics within an organism and the regulation of certain parameters

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51
Q

ATP production =____

A

cellular respiration

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52
Q

what are the 4 ways to measure whole animal metabolism

A

heat production/calorimetry
o2 consumption
co2 production
respiratory quotient

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53
Q

what is calorimetry

A

heat liberated when breaking down substances and making ATP

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54
Q

how do you measure calorimetry

A

calorimeter

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55
Q

what is a calorimeter

A

system isolated from external envinroment that is well insulted

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56
Q

what is o2 consumption in terms of animal metabolism

A

measuring the loss of o2 in environment and resulting pressure changes

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57
Q

how can o2 consumption be measured

A

indirectly through manometry or directly

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58
Q

how do you measure co2 production in animal metabolism

A

directly measure with equipment

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59
Q

what is the respiratory quotient

A

ratio of amounts of co2 produced divided by the amount of o2 used (co2prod/o2used)

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60
Q

what can the respiratory quotient show

A

the fuel source of the organism and also gives insight about diet and nutritional status

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61
Q

what is the rq for carbs

A

1

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62
Q

what is the rq for proteins/ amino acids

A

0.8-0.9

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63
Q

what is the rq for fatty acids

A

0.7

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64
Q

what is the fasting rq

A

1

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65
Q

what is the principle source of body heat

A

temperature regulation

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66
Q

what is endothermy

A

use elevated level of metablosm to produce most of needed body heat

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67
Q

what organisms are endotherms

A

mammals and birds

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68
Q

what are the ecological tradeoffs for endothermy

A

activity versus food intake

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69
Q

what did else and hulbert study

A

lizard vs mammal/bird

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70
Q

what were the major findings from else and hulberts lizard vs mammal/bird study

A

the body composition differences, cellular consideration differences,

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71
Q

what is the difference in body composition between endo and ectotherms

A

endo tissues form a larger percent of body mass (larger liver, larger heart, more muscle)

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72
Q

what are the cellular differences between endo and ectotherms

A

endotherms have more mitochondira in cells and a greater oxidative capacity

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73
Q

what are the ATP differences between endo and ectotherms

A

both have same ATP pools, but endotherms have a higher ATP turnover

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74
Q

what are the differences in plasma membranes in endo vs ectotherms

A

endotherm plasma membranes much leakier to sodium and hydrogen

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75
Q

what is the benefit of having leaky plasma membranes

A

it gives excess heat production because fighting against leaks by using ATP, the generation of the ATP produces heat needed by endotherms

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76
Q

working muscle increases the usage of ___

A

ATP

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77
Q

what is the ideal response to working muscle

A

constant low o2 consumption at rest, jumps sharply to higher o2 level at exercise, drops sharply to lower level of o2 consumption at rest

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78
Q

what is the actual response to working muscle

A

progressive rise in o2 consumption to a sustained level, but an o2 defecit with develop

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79
Q

what does o2 levels rise in proportion to

A

intensity of activity

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80
Q

what is EPOC

A

(excess postexercise oxygen consumption) oxygen debt repayment to correct biochemical disturbances caused by exercise

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81
Q

why is the best case of oxygen consumption not what is observed

A

because early stages of exercise require anaerobic metabolism before aerobic metabolism is able to kick in which causes a defecity of o2

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82
Q

what happens to o2 consumption during intense exercise

A

exceeds aerobic capacity so anaerobiosis becomes vital

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83
Q

what does anaerobic metabloism cause

A

fatigue, especially over time

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84
Q

what does maximal aerobic exercise do

A

elevates resting metabolic rate by 5-15 fold

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85
Q

why can mammals use aerobic metabolism longer than any other animal

A

because ATP production is better supported

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86
Q

what is supramaximal exercise

A

above maximum aerobic capacity (huge defecit (EPOC) to correct)

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87
Q

what is energy metabolism

A

sustainable production of ATP in order to maintain activity (ATP fuelds muscle machinery)

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88
Q

in glycolysis how many ATP are produced for one glucose molecule

A

2 atp/glucose

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89
Q

glycolysis is a high flux pathway, what does this mean

A

a lot of fuel can go through this process quickly

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90
Q

where is glycolysis occurring

A

cytoplasm

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91
Q

what builds up in cells during glycolysis

A

pyruvic acid

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92
Q

what happens to pyruvic acid in cells

A

some goes through pyruvate oxidation, the rest is converted to lactic acid

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93
Q

what happens when lactic acid is formed

A

NAD supply is depleted and glycolysis bottle necks encouraging lactic acid formation to help rebalance the NAD supply

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94
Q

what is the only fuel for direct use in the glycolysis pathway

A

glucose

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95
Q

what happens if you dont have glucose and you need to undergo glycolysis

A

gluconeogenesis to synthesize glucose from other sources

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96
Q

what are the downsides to using glycolysis

A

low efficiency, quick fatigue

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97
Q

why does fatigue occur in glycolysis

A

because of free inorganic phosphate

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98
Q

what is the intermediate level of aerobic metabolism driven by

A

glucose/glycogen

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99
Q

what are prolonged exercises better supported by

A

fatty acids

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100
Q

what is the major source for ATP production in the beginning of exercise

A

glucose from muscle glycogen

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101
Q

what is the source of ATP production in long term exercise

A

glucose from blood and fatty acids

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102
Q

____ have better aerobic metabolism

A

endotherms

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103
Q

what is the aerobic scope for insects

A

50-200x increase in aerobic metabolism from resting level

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104
Q

what does lactate dehydrogenase do

A

converts pyruvic acid to lactic acid

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105
Q

what is the clash effect

A

should i conform or should i regulate

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106
Q

whats an example of a standard morphological variation

A

eye colour differences in humans

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107
Q

whats an example of physiological variation within a population

A

some individuals of same species and same population can show differences in things like oxygen consumption

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108
Q

whats an example of genetic diversity of a species

A

a species can have different traits based on external factors. ex field mice size in canada versus mexico

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109
Q

what is manometry used for

A

indirectly measuring O2 consumption

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110
Q

describe a basic calorimeter

A

animal in shell, shell surrounded by ice, animals body melts ice and basin below shells collects water for measurement of melt per minute

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111
Q

why is endothermy not preferred

A

high activity needs high food intake (very fuel expensive)

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112
Q

what are some cellular differences in endotherms versus ectotherms

A

endotherms have more mitochondria due to higher need to generate ATP

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113
Q

what are some other smaller enzyme pathways for reactions

A

energy of activation, substrate to product, induced fit (pyruvic acid to lactic acid)

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114
Q

what does maude menten graph show

A

reaction velocity over substrate concentration

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115
Q

describe maude menten graph

A

exponental

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116
Q

what is Vmax (maude menten)

A

maximum rate of catalysis (saturation)

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117
Q

what is Km (maude menten)

A

substrate cencentration needed to reach half vmax (half max rate catalysis)

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118
Q

What is glycogenesis

A

Glucose from non-carbs

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119
Q

what are some physical features required for gas exchange in animals

A

large surface area, thin layer, well vascularized

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120
Q

what are the main types of gas exchange in animals

A

cutaneous, gills, lungs, tracheal system

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121
Q

what is a gill

A

evagination of body surface (can be external or internal)

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122
Q

whats the difference between external and internal gills

A

internal gills have a flap over them, external gills are exposed to the environment

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123
Q

what are lungs

A

sac-like invagination of body surface

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124
Q

what are tracheal systems

A

tubular invaginations from body surface

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125
Q

what is the advantage of respiratory systems

A

ready diffusion of O2 and CO2

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126
Q

whats a disadvantage of respiratory systems

A

rapid exchange with water/atmosphere can disturb body fluid composition

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127
Q

if body fluid composition is disturbed what can happen to an organism

A

can lead to edema

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128
Q

what is edema

A

fluid build up

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129
Q

how does O2 and CO2 move across a respiratory organ

A

diffusion or bulk flow

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130
Q

what is the difference between diffusion and bulk flow

A

diffusion is by concentration gradients, bulk flow is by a pressure gradient

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131
Q

what is key to ventilation of respiratory organs

A

bulk flow

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132
Q

why is it critical to move oxygen along a boundary layer

A

if you dont then a layer of hypoxia will occur and tissues can die. needs to be an exchange of o2 in and out of boundary layer

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133
Q

what kind of respiratory organs do most insects have

A

multiple tubular invaginations

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134
Q

what is a boundary layer

A

a layer of stagnant fluid (o2 and co2) along a gas exchange membrane (separates external and internal membranes)

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135
Q

what kinds of organisms use a tracheal system for respiration

A

insects and some arthropods

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136
Q

describe in short the anatomy of the tracheal system

A

tubular invaginations at body surface (spiracles) with diaphragms, with smaller tracheoles to deliver and remove gasses

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137
Q

how many spiracles are common on insects and arthropods

A

12

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138
Q

what is the diameter of tracheoles

A

0.5 micrometers

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139
Q

what is the function of a diaphragm with spiracles

A

diaphragm covers spiracle to control whats coming in and going out

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140
Q

what is the transport methods in a tracheal system

A

diffusion (works well for small organisms)

ventilation (works great for large organisms)

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141
Q

where are spiracles found on the body of insects and arthropods

A

found on thorax and abdomen

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142
Q

how does ventilation in large insects work

A

air sacs near spiracle, abdominal movements create pressure gradients and bulk flow (allow to draw air in and out at different rates)

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143
Q

why is simple diffusion not good enough for larger insects

A

not enough o2 in air to support movement with simple diffusion, too large of a surface area

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144
Q

how does a tracheal system work in water insects

A

many have a plastron

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145
Q

how does a plastron work

A

it acts as a gill for the organism. o2 from water can go into the air bubble due to concentration gradient in water and bubble

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146
Q

what organisms have a cutaneous gas exchange

A

amphibians, invertebrates (worms, cnidarians)

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147
Q

what is required of an organism for cutaneous gas exchange

A

large, thin, well vascularized surface area (surface area is generally the epidermis)

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148
Q

what are some major issues with cutaneous gas exchange

A

mechanical protection issues, can dry out, little control on exchange rate, boundary layer issues

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149
Q

what is the epidermal thickness in cutaneous gas exchange

A

one cell thick or a few cells thick epidermis

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150
Q

what gas exchange does a hellbender have

A

lungs and cutaneous gas exchange depending on what environment its in

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151
Q

how can an organism increase surface area if it uses cutaneous gas exchange

A

it can make fleshy folds to increase surface area

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152
Q

how does a hellbender remove a boundary layer thats been created from being in stagnent water

A

starts to rock itself to make a small current

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153
Q

what is the gas exchange method of amphibians

A

most amphibians have multiple gas exchange method

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154
Q

what is a bird respiratory system

A

numerous air sacs through body connected by passageways

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155
Q

what are the primary sets of air sacs in avian respiration

A

cranial and caudal air sacs

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156
Q

the lungs of a bird are honeycombed with what

A

tubules (parabronchi)

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157
Q

what induces volume change of fluid in avian respiration

A

muscular movements of ribs and sternum

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158
Q

what is the direction of airflow if avian reduces pressure

A

reduced pressure allows air inflow

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159
Q

what is the direction of airflow if avian increased pressure

A

increased pressure moves air out

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160
Q

how many cycles of air flow do avians have

A

two unidirectional air flow in parabronchi (2 volumes at once)

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161
Q

why is it significant to have two cycles of air flow in avian

A

reduced dilution with old air, keeps air fresh in lungs and more oxygen rich

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162
Q

why is it significant that avian bloodflow is crosscurrent with airflow

A

gives high level of oxygenation in low environmental oxygen

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163
Q

what part of the avian respiratory system is vascularized

A

air sacs not really vascularized, vascularization happens in the parabronchi between the anterior and posterior air sacs

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164
Q

why is it significant that avian capilaries are cross current

A

gives longer exposure to air so it gives a better gas exchange (vital when in low oxygen environment–like the sky)

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165
Q

what is the bony structure in birds that creates vocalization

A

syrinx

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166
Q

what is the syrinx synonemous with in humans

A

larynx

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167
Q

the syrinx has membrane like vocal chords, how can these produce different pitch

A

they can extend or retract the length of the chord to produce different sound

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168
Q

when one hears a bird song who are they typically hearing

A

typically small male birds trying to attract a mate

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169
Q

where is the syrinx located

A

at the base of the trachea

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170
Q

how can birds change the length of their “vocal chords”

A

head and neck movements

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171
Q

why does the size of a beak matter in bird vocalization

A

beak size is correlated to speed of movement and song dynamic

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172
Q

do small or large birds have more complex vocalizations

A

small birds have more complex

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173
Q

simply what is an amphibian lung

A

simple sac with moderate surface area elaboration

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174
Q

what kind of pressure inflation do reptile lungs have

A

positive pressure

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175
Q

are amphibian or reptile lungs more complex

A

reptile are more complex

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176
Q

what kind of pressure dynamic do most vertebrate lungs have

A

most vertebrate lungs have a negative pressure system

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177
Q

what is a negative pressure dynamic

A

use bucal cavity to push air into lungs creating a positive pressure (bucal cavity contracts pushing air positively into lungs)

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178
Q

what animal has one functional lung

A

snakes within reptiles (other lung is vestigial)

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179
Q

how do reptiles compensate for exchange since the integument doesnt have any meaningful O2 exchange

A

have more sacculations in their lungs to increase surface area without necessarily creating a bigger lung

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180
Q

what is a faveoli

A

a sac within the lungs of reptiles

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181
Q

where is the most sacculation (faveoli) in the lungs of snakes

A

primarily in first 1/3 of the snakes lung (1st 1/3 cranially)

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182
Q

what does the last 2/3 of the snake lung act as

A

acts as bellows which activates pressure cycles

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183
Q

what is a bellows

A

an area that allows contraction or expansion

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184
Q

how does a snake lung act as a bellows

A

old air in last 2/3 of lung is pushed towards outward creating an inner pull for new air to come in

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185
Q

all amphibians have sacculated lungs, why

A

to increase surface area and increase gas exchange

186
Q

what is a thoracic cavity

A

present in mammalian lungs, pleural space, drained by lymphatic system)

187
Q

simply what are mammalian lungs

A

paired lungs with lobes

188
Q

how is air modified before coming into the lungs

A

air is conditioned to make it wetter, warmer, and cleaner

189
Q

where is the diaphragm

A

below the lungs

190
Q

how many lobes does a human heart have

A

5

191
Q

why is there no gas exchange on the conduction zone

A

its too thick

192
Q

why is gas exchange possible in the respiratory zone

A

because of millions of microscopic bubble like alveoli

193
Q

what does the respiratory tree begin with

A

trachea that is superior to the thoracic cavity

194
Q

the respiratory tree has successive branching, what are the main types of branching here

A

generations and alveoli

195
Q

how many generations are there in mammalian lungs

A

23 (0-16 conducting zone, 17-23 respiratory zone)

196
Q

what causes branchiolar constriction

A

smooth muscle walls of middle passagewats

197
Q

what was branchiolar constriction

A

reduced airflow

198
Q

what kind of constriction is present in asthma

A

hyperconstriction

199
Q

how many alveoli are in the lungs

A

300 million

200
Q

when would you use nearly all of the alveoli

A

when exercising

201
Q

what surface area does 300 million alveoli create

A

85m^2 surface area

202
Q

why do overweight individuals have a higher chance of having asthma

A

adipocytes release lung imflammatory protein (fatter you are, 3x more protein released and inflammation causes asthma)

203
Q

what promotes relaxation and increased airflow of bronchioles when having asthma attack

A

sympathetic division with epinephrine

204
Q

when would the bronchioles change in diameter

A

when they are inflammed they close up (asthma), when theyre relaxed theyre open

205
Q

as the diameter of the bronchioles increases, the resistence of fluid movement ….

A

decreases

206
Q

what affects the fluid movement of air in the bronchioles

A

tubule length and diameter

207
Q

what is the size of a single alveolus

A

300microns

208
Q

the main wall of the alveolus is made of what kind of cells

A

simple squamosal

209
Q

what are the type 1 epithelial cells

A

main all of alveolus

210
Q

what are the type 2 epithelial cells

A

between successive alveoli, secretory mitochondria

211
Q

what are secretory mitochondria

A

lamellated bodies

212
Q

what do secretory mitochindria produce

A

surfactant (dipalmitoyl lecithin)

213
Q

what does a lack of surfactant (dipalmitoyl lecithin) cause

A

can cause respiratory distress syndrome in children

214
Q

what do fibroblasts do

A

build connective tissue

215
Q

what do macrophages do

A

remove pathogens (defensive function)

216
Q

what kind of cells are type 2 epithelial cells

A

cuboidal

217
Q

whats the function of surfactant

A

reduces cohesion of water molecules, reducing surface tension

218
Q

what is the function of fibrocartilage in alveoli

A

ribrocartilage helps to keep alveoli open so gas exchange can continue

219
Q

what are ventilation dynamics

A

pressure volume changes (tissue fluid pressure in pleural cavity)

220
Q

why is tissue fluid pressure in pleural cavity higher than lung pressure

A

without the pressure difference lungs can collapse (pneumothorax)

221
Q

what is the pressure difference between pleural cavity and lungs during inhalation

A

3-4mmHg

222
Q

what is the pressure difference bwteen pleural cavity and lungs during exhalation

A

1-2mmHg difference from exhalation

223
Q

what is pneumothorax

A

when pressure between pleural cavity and lung is compromised, lung collapses and pleural cavity fills with air

224
Q

what forces lungs to move involuntarily

A

diaphragm will be activated to contract

225
Q

what direction do intercostals move

A

outward and up

226
Q

how much CO2 is in the body at all times

A

about 40mmHg

227
Q

how much CO2 is in the environment usually

A

about 100mmHg

228
Q

is inspiration or expiration always an active process

A

inspiration is ALWAYS an active process

229
Q

what are the types of volume changes

A

inhalation and exhalation

230
Q

how does inspiration happen

A

cavity boundaries expand and lung follows

231
Q

how does exhalation happen

A

cavity boundaries recoil, lungs follow

232
Q

how can exhalation be active or passive

A

passive because elastic recoil can force air from lungs, active because muscles (intercostals, rectus abdominus) can force air out of lungs

233
Q

what is anatomical dead space

A

the residual volume of air in lungs that cannot be forced out

234
Q

how much oxygen is found in alveoli

A

100mmHg

235
Q

how much oxygen is found in environment

A

160mmHg

236
Q

what is the exchange time to equilibrate blood to lung air

A

about 1/4 of a second

237
Q

what is the resting transit time to equilibrate blood to lung air

A

about 3/4 of a second

238
Q

what is the exercise transit time to equilibrate blood to lung air

A

about 1/3 of a second.

239
Q

equilibrating blood to lung air is a feature of which type of epithelial cells

A

type 1 epithelial cells

240
Q

elephants lack a pleural cavity, how do they keep their lungs from collapsing

A

lungs are tethered open

241
Q

what is west’s argument for elephant lungs being tethered open

A

evolved for snorkeling behavior, water compression would otherwise collapse the lungs

242
Q

what is elasticity

A

readily recoils to original shape

243
Q

what is compliance

A

stretches easily

244
Q

when is elasticity and compliance opposite of each other

A

at extreme ends of the spectra (if excessively elastic then lose compliance and vice versa)

245
Q

what are obstructive lung diseases

A

COPD and asthma

246
Q

what is COPD

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

247
Q

how is COPD caused

A

cigarettes, volatile chemicals get in the middle of the respiratory tree and causes imflammation that can lead to emphazema meaning air cant get to alveoli because air tubing was blown apart, non reparable

248
Q

what do obstructive lung diseases do

A

increase airway resistance

249
Q

what do restrictive lung diseases do

A

increase elasticity of lungs

250
Q

whats an example of a restrictive lung disease

A

fibrotic lung disease

251
Q

how does fibrotic lung disease work

A

air bourse particles not being filtered out so they go in conductive or respiratory zone, tubercles are made in defense where fibroblasts trap off that part of the lung eventually reducing lung capacity

252
Q

what does VC=

A

VC=TVr+IRV+ERV

253
Q

what is vc

A

vital capacity

254
Q

what is tvr

A

tidal volume resting

255
Q

what is irv

A

inspiratory reserve volume

256
Q

what is erv

A

expiratory reserve volume

257
Q

what is vital capacity

A

maximum amount of air that can move through lungs

258
Q

what is the typical total lung capacity

A

around 4-6L

259
Q

what is vital capacity volume

A

3-5L

260
Q

what is residual volume typically

A

1L

261
Q

what is residual volume

A

excess air in lungs that cant be pushed out

262
Q

what is tidal volume

A

amount of air moved in a breathing cycle

263
Q

what is a typical tidal volume at rest

A

about 500ml

264
Q

what is a typical inspiratory reserve

A

3L

265
Q

what is a typical expiratory reserve

A

1L

266
Q

inspiratory and expiratory each have their own ___ potantial

A

pacemaker

267
Q

what is the purpose of increasing depth and rate of breathing for tetrapod vertebrates

A

maintaining hemoglobin saturation of O2 and CO2

268
Q

what does branchiolar dialation do

A

lowers resistance

269
Q

where in the brain is breathing controlled

A

medulla oblongata

270
Q

what does the VRG of the medulla have

A

inspiratory and expiratory neurons

271
Q

what does the DRG of the medulla have

A

modifies VRG activity

272
Q

where does the pacemaker potention of inspiration and expiration happen

A

in the medualla

273
Q

what are chemoreceptors

A

nerve endings involved in tissue chemistry

274
Q

how do mammals regulate their breathing

A

through chemoreceptors

275
Q

what is the driving dynamic in terrestrial animals

A

mostly CO2 and in turn pH

276
Q

what is the driving dynamic in fish

A

o2

277
Q

why does ph change as co2 changes in a driving dynamic of terrestrial animals

A

as hydrogen ions increases ph drops, in turn as co2 increases ph drops

278
Q

what does driving dynamic affect? (the driving dynamic of)

A

blood and cerebral spinal fluid chemistry

279
Q

what happens when not enough o2 coming into organism (too much co2 within)

A

hypoventilation

280
Q

what happens when too much o2 comes in (not enough co2 within)

A

hyperventilation

281
Q

what is the function of a stretch receptor

A

sets limit on inhalation

282
Q

when can o2 be the driving dynamic in terrestrial animals

A

if o2 in body low enough it can become the driving dynamic

283
Q

what conditions can cause o2 to be driving dynamic in terrestrial

A

emphazema, elevation (mountain sickness)

284
Q

what is a secondary driving dynamic

A

driving dynamic that takes over when primary isnt most important anymore (ex. emphazema o2)

285
Q

what does the pons in the brain affect

A

breathing rythem

286
Q

why are higher brain centers like the pons required

A

needed for controlling rythm of breathing when swimming for exaplme

287
Q

what is responsible for involuntary breathing

A

medulla

288
Q

what are invertebrate gills common in

A

large bodied or more active aquatic invertebrates

289
Q

what are some examples of invertebrates that have gills

A

crustaceans and polycheates

290
Q

which invertebrates use gills on land

A

isopods

291
Q

what are parapodia

A

fleshy extensions with large surface area used in locomotion and gas exchange (polycheates)

292
Q

what are some examples of polycheates that use parapodia

A

sand worm and clam worm

293
Q

what kind of gills do decapod crustaceans have

A

internal cavity

294
Q

what are internal cavity gills

A

carapas covers the gills so its an evagination but its covered (similar to that of fish)

295
Q

what kind of breathing do fish have

A

ram ventilation or buccal-opperculum pumping

296
Q

what is ram ventilation

A

swim with the mouth open, water passes over the gills and goes out the gill slit

297
Q

where are the fish gills

A

internalized in chamber adjoining the pharynx

298
Q

what kind of fish have separate chambers for each gill

A

primitive fishes like hagfish and lampreys and condricthes

299
Q

osteichthyes have a ____ to cover gills and make them more internalized

A

opperculum

300
Q

what organ helps with osmoregulation and ion regulation in fishes

A

gills

301
Q

what is buccal-operculum pumping

A

expand buccal-operculum cavity with operculum closed and mouth open (water flows in due to reduced pressure) then contract buccal operculum cavity with operculum valve open and mouth closed (forces water over gills and outside the body)

302
Q

what kind of gas exchange dynamic do fish have

A

counter current dynamic

303
Q

what is counter current exchange

A

water flows across gill epithelium from pharynx toward gill slit, blood flows through vessels in opposite direction

304
Q

why is counter current gas exchnage good for fishes

A

blood hits increasing o2 levels keeping the blood very high in 02

305
Q

what is internal transport in animals

A

cardiovascular systems of animals

306
Q

why cant you call internal transport cardiovascular

A

because not all animals have blood vessels

307
Q

what is the driving dynamic for internal transport

A

multicellularity, effecient transport, bulk flow dynamics

308
Q

what are the components of internal transport system

A

hearts, vasculature, and blood

309
Q

what is a heart

A

muscular pump generating pressure cycles with 2 major configurations

310
Q

what are the two major configurations of a heart

A

chambered or tubular

311
Q

what does it mean for a heart to be neurogenic

A

nerve cells trigger activation of the muscle

312
Q

what heart type is usually associated with neurogenic

A

tubular heart

313
Q

what is myogenic heart

A

special muscle tissue with pace maker function

314
Q

what heart type is associated with myogenic

A

chambered hearts

315
Q

what organisms usually have tubular hearts

A

arthropods

316
Q

which heart type is best for active lifestyle

A

chambered (except in insects)

317
Q

which heart type has a higher pressure and a higher flow rate

A

chambered hearts

318
Q

what organisms have chambered hearts

A

vertebrates and cephalopods

319
Q

what kind of contractions does a tubular heart have

A

peristaltic

320
Q

what does it mean for vasculature to be open

A

very few vessels (more so extensions of the heart instead of strict vessels)

321
Q

what does it mean for vasculature to be closed

A

can have some open cavities but have many blood vessels

322
Q

where can you find an open cavity in the vasculature of vertebrates (closed)

A

in sinus of liver

323
Q

what is the function of an artery

A

direct blood away from the heart

324
Q

what are capillaries

A

uncountable microscopic vessels

325
Q

how thick are capilaries

A

1 cell layer thickness

326
Q

what is the function of capillaries

A

gas exchange occurs here since walls are thin enough

327
Q

what is the function of veins

A

direct blood back to the heart

328
Q

what is blood

A

moving fluid of plasma and formed elements

329
Q

what is the historic name for blood

A

hemolymph

330
Q

how much of blood is usually plasma

A

usually around 90%

331
Q

what do atria recieve

A

they are recieving chambers for venous blood

332
Q

the blood flow through body is focused about what

A

focused about gas exchange to support the aerobic needs of the organism

333
Q

blood flows along ____

A

pressure gradient

334
Q

when blood pressure levels increase the organism is in___

A

systole

335
Q

when blood pressure levels decrease the organism is in ___

A

diastole

336
Q

why does circulation in mammals have two circuits

A

to optimize oxygen delivery/co2 removal

337
Q

what is the basic anatomy of the heart

A

RA LA RV LV

338
Q

where does the pulmonary circuit flow from

A

RV to LA

339
Q

where does the pulmonary trunk go to

A

pulmonary trunk to lungs to pulmonary veins

340
Q

where does the systemic circuit flow from

A

LV to RA

341
Q

what artery is associated with the systemic circuit

A

aorta

342
Q

where does the aorta flow to

A

aorta to body to vena cava

343
Q

which circuit (systemic or pulmonary) is stronger

A

systemic is 5x stronger than pulmonary (has to send blood further through body)

344
Q

what happens if theres too much pressure in pulmonary

A

edema

345
Q

what is edema

A

drowning in your own tissue fluids

346
Q

what are the main muscles in the heart

A

superficial sinospiral, deep sinospiral, superficial bulbospiral

347
Q

what do the muscles of the heart allow for

A

increased pressure

348
Q

what are the valves of the heart

A

atrioventricular (bicuspid(mitral) and tricuspid), senilunar

349
Q

what helps to stabilize valves when open and closing in heart

A

the chordae tensonae

350
Q

when heart is relaxed what state is it in

A

diastole

351
Q

when heart is contracting what state is it in

A

systole

352
Q

what is the basic 4 step heart cycle

A

atrial systole ventricular diastole
ventricular systole atrial diastole
atrial diastole ventricular diastole
repeat

353
Q

how does the heart cycle change when excercising

A

shorten the length of A and V diastole in step 3

354
Q

how many heart beats per minute is average for a mammal

A

70 beats per minute

355
Q

how long is atrial systole

A

0.1s

356
Q

how long is ventricular systole

A

0.2s

357
Q

how long is diastole

A

0.5 seconds

358
Q

how much thicker is the left ventricle from the right ventrical

A

left ventrical is 3x thicker than right

359
Q

what is the main function of a valve in a heart

A

to keep blood flowing in the correct direction

360
Q

what side is the tricuspid valve on

A

on the right

361
Q

what side is the mitral(bicuspid) valve on

A

on the left

362
Q

what happens when the heart gets too muscular

A

hypertrophy

363
Q

action potential in hearts has what two major phases

A

depolarization and repolarization

364
Q

what is depolarization

A

cells become less negatively changed

365
Q

what is repolarization

A

cells return to the RMP

366
Q

who realized electrical field disturbance of heart can be masured at skin surface

A

willem einthoven

367
Q

what is an EKG

A

electrocardiogram

368
Q

what are the 3 pirnciple waves of the ekg

A

p wave, qrs wave, t wave

369
Q

what is the p wave

A

depolarization of atria

370
Q

what is the qrs wave

A

depolarization of ventricles

371
Q

what is the t wave

A

repolarization of ventricles

372
Q

what is the pr interval

A

transit time for action potential to go from sa node and through av node

373
Q

what is pr segment

A

av delay

374
Q

what is qt inerval

A

complete timeline of ventricular action potential

375
Q

what is st segment

A

depolarization plateau

376
Q

what is the function of einthovens triangle

A

shows where net electrical axis is for the heart

377
Q

what is the electrical axis of the heart

A

mean direction of current flow

378
Q

how do you determine the electrical axis of the heart

A

by comparing signal properties from 3 limbs

379
Q

what is the first heart sound

A

closing of the atrial ventricular valve

380
Q

what is the closing of the atrial ventricular valve

A

start of ventricular systole

381
Q

what is the second heart sound

A

closing of the semi lunar vales

382
Q

what does the closing of the semi lunar valves signal

A

end of ventricular systole

383
Q

what is an EKG (ECG)

A

electrocardiogram

384
Q

when are the semilunar valves open

A

only open when pressure in ventricles is higher than pressure in atria

385
Q

what is the ejection phase

A

when pressure is enough to push blood through valves

386
Q

what is the formula for how much blood is ejected in a heart cycle

A

EDV-ESV=Stroke volume

387
Q

what is EDV

A

end diastolic volume

388
Q

what is ESV

A

end systolic volume

389
Q

what is diastasis

A

a brief situation where blood leaves ventricles even though atrial pressure is slightly higher

390
Q

what is isovolumetric relaxation

A

semilunar valves close as vestricles relax

391
Q

what is ventricular filling due to

A

due to inertia

392
Q

when is passive return used

A

as long as atrial pressure is higher than ventricular pressure the atriaventricular valve will be open

393
Q

which circuit is high pressure and which is low pressure

A

systemic is high, pulmonary is low

394
Q

how much blood remains in atria at all times

A

around 40-50ml

395
Q

what is the blood remaining in the atria

A

end systolic volume

396
Q

what is the p wave

A

synchronous contraction of the left and right atria

397
Q

what are the three steps to ventricular systole

A

isovolumetric contraction, ejection phase, diastasis (inertia)

398
Q

what is ventricular diastole

A

isovolumetric relaxation

399
Q

when is the atrioventricular valve open

A

during atrial systole, during ventricular filling

400
Q

when is the atrioventricular valve closed

A

isoventricular contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation

401
Q

when is the aortic valve open

A

ventricular ejection

402
Q

during atrial systole the ventricles are already filled, why is blood still put into the ventricles

A

its a sort of topping off of the tank, its not a meaningful impact of the heart during rest

403
Q

what is the p wave

A

atrial systole

404
Q

what is the qrs wave

A

isovolumetric contraction

405
Q

what is the t wave

A

ventricular ejection

406
Q

what is end diastolic volume

A

maximum volume in ventricles when atria in systole

407
Q

what is the approximate EDV

A

120ml

408
Q

what is cardiac output

A

amount of blood pumped per unit time (L/min)

409
Q

what is the approximate cardiac output for one circuit

A

5-6L/circuit of circulation

410
Q

why does the amount of oxygen in the blood matter for aerobic organisms

A

to prevent hypoxia

411
Q

how many liters of blood is pumped per minute for most adult humans

A

25-27 liters

412
Q

what is stroke volume

A

amount of blood ejected per heart beat

413
Q

how do you calculate cardiac output

A

HR x SV = CO

414
Q

what is tachycardia

A

heart beating excessively fast, ventricles not able to fill before ejecting blood

415
Q

whats the max amount of blood a human can pump in exercise

A

max is 35L for amazing athletes

416
Q

what fold of increase can heart rate have at resting versus excercising

A

heart rate can have 3 fold increase

417
Q

what fold of increase can stroke volume have at resting versus excercising

A

stroke volume can have 2 fold increase

418
Q

what does HCN channels stand for

A

hyperpolarization activated cyclic nucleotides

419
Q

what are HCN channels

A

different cyclic nucleotides when make k influx

420
Q

what is the SA node RMP

A

-65mV

421
Q

what is the myocardial cell RMP

A

-85mv

422
Q

what are the excitable tissues of the heart

A

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, purkinje fibers

423
Q

whats the reason to have myogenic specialized muscle tissue

A

to activate the heart and transfer action potential

424
Q

where is the SA node

A

right atrium

425
Q

what does SA stand for

A

sinoatrial

426
Q

what kind of cells are in the SA node

A

cells that have autorythmisity (pacemaker potential)

427
Q

what is a cellular pacemaker

A

cells spontaneously depolarizing

428
Q

what does RMP stand for

A

resting membrane potential

429
Q

what is RMP due to

A

K efflux

430
Q

what is pacemaker potential driven by

A

sodium influx

431
Q

what action potential do cells have in SA node

A

100 AP/min

432
Q

where is the AV node

A

at the boundary between atria and ventricles

433
Q

which node has a higher pacemaker potential

A

SA has higher

434
Q

what is AV delay

A

0.05m/s

435
Q

where do you get specialized conduction

A

bundle of His and purkinje fibers

436
Q

what are the bundle of his and purkinje fibers

A

elongate cells specialized for rapid AP conduction

437
Q

what is a rapid AP conduction value

A

5m/s

438
Q

what are cells of node trying to act like

A

trying to act like axons

439
Q

when are voltage gated calcium channels open

A

when SA node pacemaker potential has hit threshhold

440
Q

what are between cardiac muscle cells

A

gap junctions

441
Q

what do gap junctions allow for

A

ion transfer (electrical charge transfer)

442
Q

what do inactive voltage gated sodium channels allow for

A

relaxation

443
Q

what ensures relaxation

A

protractive repolarization

444
Q

what does bundle of his and purkinje fibers cause

A

rapid depolarization of ventricles

445
Q

what is the parasympathetic division

A

autonomic nervous system

446
Q

what nerve is part of the parasympathetic division

A

vagus nerve

447
Q

what number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve

A

10

448
Q

what does the vagus nerve do

A

reduces the heart rate

449
Q

what innervates the SA node and the myocardium

A

parasympathetic division

450
Q

what reduces heart rate so diastole lasts longer

A

parasympathetic division

451
Q

what causes HCN channels

A

cGMP

452
Q

what does RMP reduction do

A

hyperpolarizes SA node

453
Q

what does cGMP do

A

reduces cytoplasmic Ca

454
Q

when does vagus activity decrease

A

when exercising

455
Q

what nerve takes over when vagus is decreased

A

sympathetic

456
Q

what does the sympathetic nerve give

A

norepinephrine mostly as a neurotransmitter (and a little bit of epinephrine)

457
Q

when does calcium pool in the body

A

when heart beat increases

458
Q

why does calcium pool with increased HR

A

not enough time in diastole to remove it

459
Q

what does Na act as when calcium is pooling

A

acts as a cotransport agent

460
Q

is the vagus nerve sympathetic is parasympathetic

A

parasympathetic

461
Q

whats the major nerve in sympathetic

A

accelerator nerve

462
Q

what does the sympathetic division do

A

releases norepinephrine, activates adrenal medulla to release epinephrine, increases HR

Animal Physiology (9 decks)

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