animal final Flashcards

1
Q

what is physiology

A

functional dynamics in living things

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2
Q

what are the levels of biological organization

A

biochemical, cellular, organ, systemic, organismal

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3
Q

what did aristotle observe

A

natural processes within bodies

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4
Q

what two people studied physiology with a connection to medicine

A

galen and harvey

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5
Q

anatomical studies lead to speculation about____

A

function

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6
Q

when did galen live

A

2nd century rome

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7
Q

what did galen postulate

A

flow dynamics of blood in human body

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8
Q

who studied medicine in early experimental investigations (post medieval)

A

william harvey

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9
Q

when did william harvey live

A

17th century

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10
Q

what did william harvey prove

A

refuted galens direction of blood flow through study of cardiovascular system

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11
Q

what processes affect the internal environment of an organism

A

temperature, ph, ion levels

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12
Q

what can affect membrane/protein structures in an organism

A

changes in the internal environment

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13
Q

how can reaction dynamics be affected in the internal environment

A

by changes in the internal environment via kinetic energy

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14
Q

why is a stable internal environment vital for organisms

A

to maintain constant internal conditions

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15
Q

what regualtes internal conditions

A

homeostasis

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16
Q

why is the father of physiology

A

c. bernard

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17
Q

when did bernard live

A

19th century france

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18
Q

what did bernard do

A

work on renal and cardiovascular systems emphasizing internal environment

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19
Q

what are two ways body parameters can be compromised

A

external environmental changes, internal generated changes

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20
Q

what are some external environmental changes

A

temperature, solutes

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21
Q

what are some examples of internally generated changes

A

rest vs exercise, eating vs fasting

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22
Q

what are additional complications to compromised body parameters

A

disturbance length, conform or regulate

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23
Q

what is a conformer

A

parameter changes with the environment, no homeostasis

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24
Q

what is a regulator

A

regulate against environmental changes until some extreme limit is reached

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25
Q

what is circumstantial regulation

A

animal itself is both a conformer and a regulator depending on the observed parameter

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26
Q

what is an example of a circumstantial regulator

A

salmon conform to temperature but regulates chloride ion concentration

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27
Q

what limits the ability of an organism to resist a change

A

compromised body parameters

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28
Q

what is the genomic perspective on evolutionary physiology

A

look at variability within the population, that variability is material for evolution to operate on

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29
Q

traits of evolution are programmed by ___

A

genetics

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30
Q

what is evolutionary physiology based on population genetics

A

morphological variation versus genetic variation

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31
Q

what is morphological variation

A

easily recognizable, involves allelic differences

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32
Q

why does genetic variation exist

A

because of allele differences within and between populations

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33
Q

why studied physiological genomics

A

t. garland

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34
Q

what about physiological genomics did t. gardland study

A

disease susceptibility, establishment of adaptive traits

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35
Q

what is a negative feedback system

A

constant monitoring of a controlled parameter that minimizes deviation from pet point giving stability of a parameter

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36
Q

why studied cybernetics

A

w. cannon

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37
Q

what about cybernetics did w. cannon study

A

regulatory system operation, constant monitoring of controlled parameter

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38
Q

what is a sensor

A

keeps tabs on regulated paramter

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39
Q

what parameter does a sensor usually keep tabs on

A

often more than one nerve cell or other neural component

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40
Q

what is the control center

A

usually in the brain to interpret parameter information and compare to a set point

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41
Q

what is the effector/inverting amplifier

A

deliver output to modify parameter value, minimizing deviation from set point to yield stability

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42
Q

what is a fever

A

elevated temperature set point

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43
Q

what is a positive feedback system

A

response augments deviation from set point

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44
Q

what is an example of a positive feedback

A

ap generation and blood clotting

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45
Q

what does it mean that duration of activity and level of change is tightly controlled in positive feedback systems

A

there is a maximum level that causes rapid termination before it gets out of control

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46
Q

what is a positive feedback operation

A

effector evokes change in the same direction as the parameter

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47
Q

what is a servomechanism

A

operation may entail negative feedback, set point not fixed over a short period of time

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48
Q

what effect can a servomechanism have

A

rapid error sensing and output corrections become critical with instantaneous changes being made

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49
Q

when does servomechanism occur

A

in skeletal muscle during locomotion (rapidly changing levels in strength output, muscle length, point position)

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50
Q

what is metabolism

A

all chemical dynamics within an organism and the regulation of certain parameters

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51
Q

ATP production =____

A

cellular respiration

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52
Q

what are the 4 ways to measure whole animal metabolism

A

heat production/calorimetry
o2 consumption
co2 production
respiratory quotient

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53
Q

what is calorimetry

A

heat liberated when breaking down substances and making ATP

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54
Q

how do you measure calorimetry

A

calorimeter

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55
Q

what is a calorimeter

A

system isolated from external envinroment that is well insulted

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56
Q

what is o2 consumption in terms of animal metabolism

A

measuring the loss of o2 in environment and resulting pressure changes

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57
Q

how can o2 consumption be measured

A

indirectly through manometry or directly

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58
Q

how do you measure co2 production in animal metabolism

A

directly measure with equipment

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59
Q

what is the respiratory quotient

A

ratio of amounts of co2 produced divided by the amount of o2 used (co2prod/o2used)

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60
Q

what can the respiratory quotient show

A

the fuel source of the organism and also gives insight about diet and nutritional status

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61
Q

what is the rq for carbs

A

1

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62
Q

what is the rq for proteins/ amino acids

A

0.8-0.9

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63
Q

what is the rq for fatty acids

A

0.7

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64
Q

what is the fasting rq

A

1

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65
Q

what is the principle source of body heat

A

temperature regulation

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66
Q

what is endothermy

A

use elevated level of metablosm to produce most of needed body heat

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67
Q

what organisms are endotherms

A

mammals and birds

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68
Q

what are the ecological tradeoffs for endothermy

A

activity versus food intake

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69
Q

what did else and hulbert study

A

lizard vs mammal/bird

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70
Q

what were the major findings from else and hulberts lizard vs mammal/bird study

A

the body composition differences, cellular consideration differences,

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71
Q

what is the difference in body composition between endo and ectotherms

A

endo tissues form a larger percent of body mass (larger liver, larger heart, more muscle)

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72
Q

what are the cellular differences between endo and ectotherms

A

endotherms have more mitochondira in cells and a greater oxidative capacity

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73
Q

what are the ATP differences between endo and ectotherms

A

both have same ATP pools, but endotherms have a higher ATP turnover

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74
Q

what are the differences in plasma membranes in endo vs ectotherms

A

endotherm plasma membranes much leakier to sodium and hydrogen

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75
Q

what is the benefit of having leaky plasma membranes

A

it gives excess heat production because fighting against leaks by using ATP, the generation of the ATP produces heat needed by endotherms

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76
Q

working muscle increases the usage of ___

A

ATP

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77
Q

what is the ideal response to working muscle

A

constant low o2 consumption at rest, jumps sharply to higher o2 level at exercise, drops sharply to lower level of o2 consumption at rest

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78
Q

what is the actual response to working muscle

A

progressive rise in o2 consumption to a sustained level, but an o2 defecit with develop

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79
Q

what does o2 levels rise in proportion to

A

intensity of activity

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80
Q

what is EPOC

A

(excess postexercise oxygen consumption) oxygen debt repayment to correct biochemical disturbances caused by exercise

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81
Q

why is the best case of oxygen consumption not what is observed

A

because early stages of exercise require anaerobic metabolism before aerobic metabolism is able to kick in which causes a defecity of o2

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82
Q

what happens to o2 consumption during intense exercise

A

exceeds aerobic capacity so anaerobiosis becomes vital

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83
Q

what does anaerobic metabloism cause

A

fatigue, especially over time

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84
Q

what does maximal aerobic exercise do

A

elevates resting metabolic rate by 5-15 fold

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85
Q

why can mammals use aerobic metabolism longer than any other animal

A

because ATP production is better supported

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86
Q

what is supramaximal exercise

A

above maximum aerobic capacity (huge defecit (EPOC) to correct)

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87
Q

what is energy metabolism

A

sustainable production of ATP in order to maintain activity (ATP fuelds muscle machinery)

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88
Q

in glycolysis how many ATP are produced for one glucose molecule

A

2 atp/glucose

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89
Q

glycolysis is a high flux pathway, what does this mean

A

a lot of fuel can go through this process quickly

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90
Q

where is glycolysis occurring

A

cytoplasm

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91
Q

what builds up in cells during glycolysis

A

pyruvic acid

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92
Q

what happens to pyruvic acid in cells

A

some goes through pyruvate oxidation, the rest is converted to lactic acid

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93
Q

what happens when lactic acid is formed

A

NAD supply is depleted and glycolysis bottle necks encouraging lactic acid formation to help rebalance the NAD supply

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94
Q

what is the only fuel for direct use in the glycolysis pathway

A

glucose

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95
Q

what happens if you dont have glucose and you need to undergo glycolysis

A

gluconeogenesis to synthesize glucose from other sources

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96
Q

what are the downsides to using glycolysis

A

low efficiency, quick fatigue

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97
Q

why does fatigue occur in glycolysis

A

because of free inorganic phosphate

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98
Q

what is the intermediate level of aerobic metabolism driven by

A

glucose/glycogen

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99
Q

what are prolonged exercises better supported by

A

fatty acids

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100
Q

what is the major source for ATP production in the beginning of exercise

A

glucose from muscle glycogen

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101
Q

what is the source of ATP production in long term exercise

A

glucose from blood and fatty acids

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102
Q

____ have better aerobic metabolism

A

endotherms

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103
Q

what is the aerobic scope for insects

A

50-200x increase in aerobic metabolism from resting level

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104
Q

what does lactate dehydrogenase do

A

converts pyruvic acid to lactic acid

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105
Q

what is the clash effect

A

should i conform or should i regulate

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106
Q

whats an example of a standard morphological variation

A

eye colour differences in humans

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107
Q

whats an example of physiological variation within a population

A

some individuals of same species and same population can show differences in things like oxygen consumption

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108
Q

whats an example of genetic diversity of a species

A

a species can have different traits based on external factors. ex field mice size in canada versus mexico

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109
Q

what is manometry used for

A

indirectly measuring O2 consumption

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110
Q

describe a basic calorimeter

A

animal in shell, shell surrounded by ice, animals body melts ice and basin below shells collects water for measurement of melt per minute

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111
Q

why is endothermy not preferred

A

high activity needs high food intake (very fuel expensive)

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112
Q

what are some cellular differences in endotherms versus ectotherms

A

endotherms have more mitochondria due to higher need to generate ATP

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113
Q

what are some other smaller enzyme pathways for reactions

A

energy of activation, substrate to product, induced fit (pyruvic acid to lactic acid)

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114
Q

what does maude menten graph show

A

reaction velocity over substrate concentration

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115
Q

describe maude menten graph

A

exponental

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116
Q

what is Vmax (maude menten)

A

maximum rate of catalysis (saturation)

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117
Q

what is Km (maude menten)

A

substrate cencentration needed to reach half vmax (half max rate catalysis)

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118
Q

What is glycogenesis

A

Glucose from non-carbs

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119
Q

what are some physical features required for gas exchange in animals

A

large surface area, thin layer, well vascularized

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120
Q

what are the main types of gas exchange in animals

A

cutaneous, gills, lungs, tracheal system

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121
Q

what is a gill

A

evagination of body surface (can be external or internal)

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122
Q

whats the difference between external and internal gills

A

internal gills have a flap over them, external gills are exposed to the environment

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123
Q

what are lungs

A

sac-like invagination of body surface

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124
Q

what are tracheal systems

A

tubular invaginations from body surface

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125
Q

what is the advantage of respiratory systems

A

ready diffusion of O2 and CO2

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126
Q

whats a disadvantage of respiratory systems

A

rapid exchange with water/atmosphere can disturb body fluid composition

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127
Q

if body fluid composition is disturbed what can happen to an organism

A

can lead to edema

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128
Q

what is edema

A

fluid build up

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129
Q

how does O2 and CO2 move across a respiratory organ

A

diffusion or bulk flow

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130
Q

what is the difference between diffusion and bulk flow

A

diffusion is by concentration gradients, bulk flow is by a pressure gradient

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131
Q

what is key to ventilation of respiratory organs

A

bulk flow

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132
Q

why is it critical to move oxygen along a boundary layer

A

if you dont then a layer of hypoxia will occur and tissues can die. needs to be an exchange of o2 in and out of boundary layer

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133
Q

what kind of respiratory organs do most insects have

A

multiple tubular invaginations

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134
Q

what is a boundary layer

A

a layer of stagnant fluid (o2 and co2) along a gas exchange membrane (separates external and internal membranes)

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135
Q

what kinds of organisms use a tracheal system for respiration

A

insects and some arthropods

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136
Q

describe in short the anatomy of the tracheal system

A

tubular invaginations at body surface (spiracles) with diaphragms, with smaller tracheoles to deliver and remove gasses

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137
Q

how many spiracles are common on insects and arthropods

A

12

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138
Q

what is the diameter of tracheoles

A

0.5 micrometers

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139
Q

what is the function of a diaphragm with spiracles

A

diaphragm covers spiracle to control whats coming in and going out

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140
Q

what is the transport methods in a tracheal system

A

diffusion (works well for small organisms)

ventilation (works great for large organisms)

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141
Q

where are spiracles found on the body of insects and arthropods

A

found on thorax and abdomen

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142
Q

how does ventilation in large insects work

A

air sacs near spiracle, abdominal movements create pressure gradients and bulk flow (allow to draw air in and out at different rates)

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143
Q

why is simple diffusion not good enough for larger insects

A

not enough o2 in air to support movement with simple diffusion, too large of a surface area

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144
Q

how does a tracheal system work in water insects

A

many have a plastron

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145
Q

how does a plastron work

A

it acts as a gill for the organism. o2 from water can go into the air bubble due to concentration gradient in water and bubble

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146
Q

what organisms have a cutaneous gas exchange

A

amphibians, invertebrates (worms, cnidarians)

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147
Q

what is required of an organism for cutaneous gas exchange

A

large, thin, well vascularized surface area (surface area is generally the epidermis)

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148
Q

what are some major issues with cutaneous gas exchange

A

mechanical protection issues, can dry out, little control on exchange rate, boundary layer issues

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149
Q

what is the epidermal thickness in cutaneous gas exchange

A

one cell thick or a few cells thick epidermis

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150
Q

what gas exchange does a hellbender have

A

lungs and cutaneous gas exchange depending on what environment its in

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151
Q

how can an organism increase surface area if it uses cutaneous gas exchange

A

it can make fleshy folds to increase surface area

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152
Q

how does a hellbender remove a boundary layer thats been created from being in stagnent water

A

starts to rock itself to make a small current

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153
Q

what is the gas exchange method of amphibians

A

most amphibians have multiple gas exchange method

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154
Q

what is a bird respiratory system

A

numerous air sacs through body connected by passageways

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155
Q

what are the primary sets of air sacs in avian respiration

A

cranial and caudal air sacs

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156
Q

the lungs of a bird are honeycombed with what

A

tubules (parabronchi)

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157
Q

what induces volume change of fluid in avian respiration

A

muscular movements of ribs and sternum

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158
Q

what is the direction of airflow if avian reduces pressure

A

reduced pressure allows air inflow

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159
Q

what is the direction of airflow if avian increased pressure

A

increased pressure moves air out

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160
Q

how many cycles of air flow do avians have

A

two unidirectional air flow in parabronchi (2 volumes at once)

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161
Q

why is it significant to have two cycles of air flow in avian

A

reduced dilution with old air, keeps air fresh in lungs and more oxygen rich

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162
Q

why is it significant that avian bloodflow is crosscurrent with airflow

A

gives high level of oxygenation in low environmental oxygen

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163
Q

what part of the avian respiratory system is vascularized

A

air sacs not really vascularized, vascularization happens in the parabronchi between the anterior and posterior air sacs

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164
Q

why is it significant that avian capilaries are cross current

A

gives longer exposure to air so it gives a better gas exchange (vital when in low oxygen environment–like the sky)

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165
Q

what is the bony structure in birds that creates vocalization

A

syrinx

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166
Q

what is the syrinx synonemous with in humans

A

larynx

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167
Q

the syrinx has membrane like vocal chords, how can these produce different pitch

A

they can extend or retract the length of the chord to produce different sound

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168
Q

when one hears a bird song who are they typically hearing

A

typically small male birds trying to attract a mate

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169
Q

where is the syrinx located

A

at the base of the trachea

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170
Q

how can birds change the length of their “vocal chords”

A

head and neck movements

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171
Q

why does the size of a beak matter in bird vocalization

A

beak size is correlated to speed of movement and song dynamic

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172
Q

do small or large birds have more complex vocalizations

A

small birds have more complex

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173
Q

simply what is an amphibian lung

A

simple sac with moderate surface area elaboration

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174
Q

what kind of pressure inflation do reptile lungs have

A

positive pressure

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175
Q

are amphibian or reptile lungs more complex

A

reptile are more complex

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176
Q

what kind of pressure dynamic do most vertebrate lungs have

A

most vertebrate lungs have a negative pressure system

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177
Q

what is a negative pressure dynamic

A

use bucal cavity to push air into lungs creating a positive pressure (bucal cavity contracts pushing air positively into lungs)

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178
Q

what animal has one functional lung

A

snakes within reptiles (other lung is vestigial)

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179
Q

how do reptiles compensate for exchange since the integument doesnt have any meaningful O2 exchange

A

have more sacculations in their lungs to increase surface area without necessarily creating a bigger lung

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180
Q

what is a faveoli

A

a sac within the lungs of reptiles

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181
Q

where is the most sacculation (faveoli) in the lungs of snakes

A

primarily in first 1/3 of the snakes lung (1st 1/3 cranially)

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182
Q

what does the last 2/3 of the snake lung act as

A

acts as bellows which activates pressure cycles

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183
Q

what is a bellows

A

an area that allows contraction or expansion

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184
Q

how does a snake lung act as a bellows

A

old air in last 2/3 of lung is pushed towards outward creating an inner pull for new air to come in

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185
Q

all amphibians have sacculated lungs, why

A

to increase surface area and increase gas exchange

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186
Q

what is a thoracic cavity

A

present in mammalian lungs, pleural space, drained by lymphatic system)

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187
Q

simply what are mammalian lungs

A

paired lungs with lobes

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188
Q

how is air modified before coming into the lungs

A

air is conditioned to make it wetter, warmer, and cleaner

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189
Q

where is the diaphragm

A

below the lungs

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190
Q

how many lobes does a human heart have

A

5

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191
Q

why is there no gas exchange on the conduction zone

A

its too thick

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192
Q

why is gas exchange possible in the respiratory zone

A

because of millions of microscopic bubble like alveoli

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193
Q

what does the respiratory tree begin with

A

trachea that is superior to the thoracic cavity

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194
Q

the respiratory tree has successive branching, what are the main types of branching here

A

generations and alveoli

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195
Q

how many generations are there in mammalian lungs

A

23 (0-16 conducting zone, 17-23 respiratory zone)

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196
Q

what causes branchiolar constriction

A

smooth muscle walls of middle passagewats

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197
Q

what was branchiolar constriction

A

reduced airflow

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198
Q

what kind of constriction is present in asthma

A

hyperconstriction

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199
Q

how many alveoli are in the lungs

A

300 million

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200
Q

when would you use nearly all of the alveoli

A

when exercising

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201
Q

what surface area does 300 million alveoli create

A

85m^2 surface area

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202
Q

why do overweight individuals have a higher chance of having asthma

A

adipocytes release lung imflammatory protein (fatter you are, 3x more protein released and inflammation causes asthma)

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203
Q

what promotes relaxation and increased airflow of bronchioles when having asthma attack

A

sympathetic division with epinephrine

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204
Q

when would the bronchioles change in diameter

A

when they are inflammed they close up (asthma), when theyre relaxed theyre open

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205
Q

as the diameter of the bronchioles increases, the resistence of fluid movement ….

A

decreases

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206
Q

what affects the fluid movement of air in the bronchioles

A

tubule length and diameter

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207
Q

what is the size of a single alveolus

A

300microns

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208
Q

the main wall of the alveolus is made of what kind of cells

A

simple squamosal

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209
Q

what are the type 1 epithelial cells

A

main all of alveolus

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210
Q

what are the type 2 epithelial cells

A

between successive alveoli, secretory mitochondria

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211
Q

what are secretory mitochondria

A

lamellated bodies

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212
Q

what do secretory mitochindria produce

A

surfactant (dipalmitoyl lecithin)

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213
Q

what does a lack of surfactant (dipalmitoyl lecithin) cause

A

can cause respiratory distress syndrome in children

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214
Q

what do fibroblasts do

A

build connective tissue

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215
Q

what do macrophages do

A

remove pathogens (defensive function)

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216
Q

what kind of cells are type 2 epithelial cells

A

cuboidal

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217
Q

whats the function of surfactant

A

reduces cohesion of water molecules, reducing surface tension

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218
Q

what is the function of fibrocartilage in alveoli

A

ribrocartilage helps to keep alveoli open so gas exchange can continue

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219
Q

what are ventilation dynamics

A

pressure volume changes (tissue fluid pressure in pleural cavity)

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220
Q

why is tissue fluid pressure in pleural cavity higher than lung pressure

A

without the pressure difference lungs can collapse (pneumothorax)

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221
Q

what is the pressure difference between pleural cavity and lungs during inhalation

A

3-4mmHg

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222
Q

what is the pressure difference bwteen pleural cavity and lungs during exhalation

A

1-2mmHg difference from exhalation

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223
Q

what is pneumothorax

A

when pressure between pleural cavity and lung is compromised, lung collapses and pleural cavity fills with air

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224
Q

what forces lungs to move involuntarily

A

diaphragm will be activated to contract

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225
Q

what direction do intercostals move

A

outward and up

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226
Q

how much CO2 is in the body at all times

A

about 40mmHg

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227
Q

how much CO2 is in the environment usually

A

about 100mmHg

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228
Q

is inspiration or expiration always an active process

A

inspiration is ALWAYS an active process

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229
Q

what are the types of volume changes

A

inhalation and exhalation

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230
Q

how does inspiration happen

A

cavity boundaries expand and lung follows

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231
Q

how does exhalation happen

A

cavity boundaries recoil, lungs follow

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232
Q

how can exhalation be active or passive

A

passive because elastic recoil can force air from lungs, active because muscles (intercostals, rectus abdominus) can force air out of lungs

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233
Q

what is anatomical dead space

A

the residual volume of air in lungs that cannot be forced out

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234
Q

how much oxygen is found in alveoli

A

100mmHg

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235
Q

how much oxygen is found in environment

A

160mmHg

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236
Q

what is the exchange time to equilibrate blood to lung air

A

about 1/4 of a second

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237
Q

what is the resting transit time to equilibrate blood to lung air

A

about 3/4 of a second

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238
Q

what is the exercise transit time to equilibrate blood to lung air

A

about 1/3 of a second.

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239
Q

equilibrating blood to lung air is a feature of which type of epithelial cells

A

type 1 epithelial cells

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240
Q

elephants lack a pleural cavity, how do they keep their lungs from collapsing

A

lungs are tethered open

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241
Q

what is west’s argument for elephant lungs being tethered open

A

evolved for snorkeling behavior, water compression would otherwise collapse the lungs

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242
Q

what is elasticity

A

readily recoils to original shape

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243
Q

what is compliance

A

stretches easily

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244
Q

when is elasticity and compliance opposite of each other

A

at extreme ends of the spectra (if excessively elastic then lose compliance and vice versa)

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245
Q

what are obstructive lung diseases

A

COPD and asthma

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246
Q

what is COPD

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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247
Q

how is COPD caused

A

cigarettes, volatile chemicals get in the middle of the respiratory tree and causes imflammation that can lead to emphazema meaning air cant get to alveoli because air tubing was blown apart, non reparable

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248
Q

what do obstructive lung diseases do

A

increase airway resistance

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249
Q

what do restrictive lung diseases do

A

increase elasticity of lungs

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250
Q

whats an example of a restrictive lung disease

A

fibrotic lung disease

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251
Q

how does fibrotic lung disease work

A

air bourse particles not being filtered out so they go in conductive or respiratory zone, tubercles are made in defense where fibroblasts trap off that part of the lung eventually reducing lung capacity

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252
Q

what does VC=

A

VC=TVr+IRV+ERV

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253
Q

what is vc

A

vital capacity

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254
Q

what is tvr

A

tidal volume resting

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255
Q

what is irv

A

inspiratory reserve volume

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256
Q

what is erv

A

expiratory reserve volume

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257
Q

what is vital capacity

A

maximum amount of air that can move through lungs

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258
Q

what is the typical total lung capacity

A

around 4-6L

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259
Q

what is vital capacity volume

A

3-5L

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260
Q

what is residual volume typically

A

1L

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261
Q

what is residual volume

A

excess air in lungs that cant be pushed out

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262
Q

what is tidal volume

A

amount of air moved in a breathing cycle

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263
Q

what is a typical tidal volume at rest

A

about 500ml

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264
Q

what is a typical inspiratory reserve

A

3L

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265
Q

what is a typical expiratory reserve

A

1L

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266
Q

inspiratory and expiratory each have their own ___ potantial

A

pacemaker

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267
Q

what is the purpose of increasing depth and rate of breathing for tetrapod vertebrates

A

maintaining hemoglobin saturation of O2 and CO2

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268
Q

what does branchiolar dialation do

A

lowers resistance

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269
Q

where in the brain is breathing controlled

A

medulla oblongata

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270
Q

what does the VRG of the medulla have

A

inspiratory and expiratory neurons

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271
Q

what does the DRG of the medulla have

A

modifies VRG activity

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272
Q

where does the pacemaker potention of inspiration and expiration happen

A

in the medualla

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273
Q

what are chemoreceptors

A

nerve endings involved in tissue chemistry

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274
Q

how do mammals regulate their breathing

A

through chemoreceptors

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275
Q

what is the driving dynamic in terrestrial animals

A

mostly CO2 and in turn pH

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276
Q

what is the driving dynamic in fish

A

o2

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277
Q

why does ph change as co2 changes in a driving dynamic of terrestrial animals

A

as hydrogen ions increases ph drops, in turn as co2 increases ph drops

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278
Q

what does driving dynamic affect? (the driving dynamic of)

A

blood and cerebral spinal fluid chemistry

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279
Q

what happens when not enough o2 coming into organism (too much co2 within)

A

hypoventilation

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280
Q

what happens when too much o2 comes in (not enough co2 within)

A

hyperventilation

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281
Q

what is the function of a stretch receptor

A

sets limit on inhalation

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282
Q

when can o2 be the driving dynamic in terrestrial animals

A

if o2 in body low enough it can become the driving dynamic

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283
Q

what conditions can cause o2 to be driving dynamic in terrestrial

A

emphazema, elevation (mountain sickness)

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284
Q

what is a secondary driving dynamic

A

driving dynamic that takes over when primary isnt most important anymore (ex. emphazema o2)

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285
Q

what does the pons in the brain affect

A

breathing rythem

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286
Q

why are higher brain centers like the pons required

A

needed for controlling rythm of breathing when swimming for exaplme

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287
Q

what is responsible for involuntary breathing

A

medulla

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288
Q

what are invertebrate gills common in

A

large bodied or more active aquatic invertebrates

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289
Q

what are some examples of invertebrates that have gills

A

crustaceans and polycheates

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290
Q

which invertebrates use gills on land

A

isopods

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291
Q

what are parapodia

A

fleshy extensions with large surface area used in locomotion and gas exchange (polycheates)

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292
Q

what are some examples of polycheates that use parapodia

A

sand worm and clam worm

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293
Q

what kind of gills do decapod crustaceans have

A

internal cavity

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294
Q

what are internal cavity gills

A

carapas covers the gills so its an evagination but its covered (similar to that of fish)

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295
Q

what kind of breathing do fish have

A

ram ventilation or buccal-opperculum pumping

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296
Q

what is ram ventilation

A

swim with the mouth open, water passes over the gills and goes out the gill slit

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297
Q

where are the fish gills

A

internalized in chamber adjoining the pharynx

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298
Q

what kind of fish have separate chambers for each gill

A

primitive fishes like hagfish and lampreys and condricthes

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299
Q

osteichthyes have a ____ to cover gills and make them more internalized

A

opperculum

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300
Q

what organ helps with osmoregulation and ion regulation in fishes

A

gills

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301
Q

what is buccal-operculum pumping

A

expand buccal-operculum cavity with operculum closed and mouth open (water flows in due to reduced pressure) then contract buccal operculum cavity with operculum valve open and mouth closed (forces water over gills and outside the body)

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302
Q

what kind of gas exchange dynamic do fish have

A

counter current dynamic

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303
Q

what is counter current exchange

A

water flows across gill epithelium from pharynx toward gill slit, blood flows through vessels in opposite direction

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304
Q

why is counter current gas exchnage good for fishes

A

blood hits increasing o2 levels keeping the blood very high in 02

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305
Q

what is internal transport in animals

A

cardiovascular systems of animals

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306
Q

why cant you call internal transport cardiovascular

A

because not all animals have blood vessels

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307
Q

what is the driving dynamic for internal transport

A

multicellularity, effecient transport, bulk flow dynamics

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308
Q

what are the components of internal transport system

A

hearts, vasculature, and blood

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309
Q

what is a heart

A

muscular pump generating pressure cycles with 2 major configurations

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310
Q

what are the two major configurations of a heart

A

chambered or tubular

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311
Q

what does it mean for a heart to be neurogenic

A

nerve cells trigger activation of the muscle

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312
Q

what heart type is usually associated with neurogenic

A

tubular heart

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313
Q

what is myogenic heart

A

special muscle tissue with pace maker function

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314
Q

what heart type is associated with myogenic

A

chambered hearts

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315
Q

what organisms usually have tubular hearts

A

arthropods

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316
Q

which heart type is best for active lifestyle

A

chambered (except in insects)

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317
Q

which heart type has a higher pressure and a higher flow rate

A

chambered hearts

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318
Q

what organisms have chambered hearts

A

vertebrates and cephalopods

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319
Q

what kind of contractions does a tubular heart have

A

peristaltic

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320
Q

what does it mean for vasculature to be open

A

very few vessels (more so extensions of the heart instead of strict vessels)

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321
Q

what does it mean for vasculature to be closed

A

can have some open cavities but have many blood vessels

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322
Q

where can you find an open cavity in the vasculature of vertebrates (closed)

A

in sinus of liver

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323
Q

what is the function of an artery

A

direct blood away from the heart

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324
Q

what are capillaries

A

uncountable microscopic vessels

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325
Q

how thick are capilaries

A

1 cell layer thickness

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326
Q

what is the function of capillaries

A

gas exchange occurs here since walls are thin enough

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327
Q

what is the function of veins

A

direct blood back to the heart

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328
Q

what is blood

A

moving fluid of plasma and formed elements

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329
Q

what is the historic name for blood

A

hemolymph

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330
Q

how much of blood is usually plasma

A

usually around 90%

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331
Q

what do atria recieve

A

they are recieving chambers for venous blood

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332
Q

the blood flow through body is focused about what

A

focused about gas exchange to support the aerobic needs of the organism

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333
Q

blood flows along ____

A

pressure gradient

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334
Q

when blood pressure levels increase the organism is in___

A

systole

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335
Q

when blood pressure levels decrease the organism is in ___

A

diastole

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336
Q

why does circulation in mammals have two circuits

A

to optimize oxygen delivery/co2 removal

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337
Q

what is the basic anatomy of the heart

A

RA LA RV LV

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338
Q

where does the pulmonary circuit flow from

A

RV to LA

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339
Q

where does the pulmonary trunk go to

A

pulmonary trunk to lungs to pulmonary veins

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340
Q

where does the systemic circuit flow from

A

LV to RA

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341
Q

what artery is associated with the systemic circuit

A

aorta

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342
Q

where does the aorta flow to

A

aorta to body to vena cava

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343
Q

which circuit (systemic or pulmonary) is stronger

A

systemic is 5x stronger than pulmonary (has to send blood further through body)

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344
Q

what happens if theres too much pressure in pulmonary

A

edema

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345
Q

what is edema

A

drowning in your own tissue fluids

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346
Q

what are the main muscles in the heart

A

superficial sinospiral, deep sinospiral, superficial bulbospiral

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347
Q

what do the muscles of the heart allow for

A

increased pressure

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348
Q

what are the valves of the heart

A

atrioventricular (bicuspid(mitral) and tricuspid), senilunar

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349
Q

what helps to stabilize valves when open and closing in heart

A

the chordae tensonae

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350
Q

when heart is relaxed what state is it in

A

diastole

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351
Q

when heart is contracting what state is it in

A

systole

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352
Q

what is the basic 4 step heart cycle

A

atrial systole ventricular diastole
ventricular systole atrial diastole
atrial diastole ventricular diastole
repeat

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353
Q

how does the heart cycle change when excercising

A

shorten the length of A and V diastole in step 3

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354
Q

how many heart beats per minute is average for a mammal

A

70 beats per minute

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355
Q

how long is atrial systole

A

0.1s

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356
Q

how long is ventricular systole

A

0.2s

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357
Q

how long is diastole

A

0.5 seconds

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358
Q

how much thicker is the left ventricle from the right ventrical

A

left ventrical is 3x thicker than right

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359
Q

what is the main function of a valve in a heart

A

to keep blood flowing in the correct direction

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360
Q

what side is the tricuspid valve on

A

on the right

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361
Q

what side is the mitral(bicuspid) valve on

A

on the left

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362
Q

what happens when the heart gets too muscular

A

hypertrophy

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363
Q

action potential in hearts has what two major phases

A

depolarization and repolarization

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364
Q

what is depolarization

A

cells become less negatively changed

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365
Q

what is repolarization

A

cells return to the RMP

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366
Q

who realized electrical field disturbance of heart can be masured at skin surface

A

willem einthoven

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367
Q

what is an EKG

A

electrocardiogram

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368
Q

what are the 3 pirnciple waves of the ekg

A

p wave, qrs wave, t wave

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369
Q

what is the p wave

A

depolarization of atria

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370
Q

what is the qrs wave

A

depolarization of ventricles

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371
Q

what is the t wave

A

repolarization of ventricles

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372
Q

what is the pr interval

A

transit time for action potential to go from sa node and through av node

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373
Q

what is pr segment

A

av delay

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374
Q

what is qt inerval

A

complete timeline of ventricular action potential

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375
Q

what is st segment

A

depolarization plateau

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376
Q

what is the function of einthovens triangle

A

shows where net electrical axis is for the heart

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377
Q

what is the electrical axis of the heart

A

mean direction of current flow

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378
Q

how do you determine the electrical axis of the heart

A

by comparing signal properties from 3 limbs

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379
Q

what is the first heart sound

A

closing of the atrial ventricular valve

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380
Q

what is the closing of the atrial ventricular valve

A

start of ventricular systole

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381
Q

what is the second heart sound

A

closing of the semi lunar vales

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382
Q

what does the closing of the semi lunar valves signal

A

end of ventricular systole

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383
Q

what is an EKG (ECG)

A

electrocardiogram

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384
Q

when are the semilunar valves open

A

only open when pressure in ventricles is higher than pressure in atria

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385
Q

what is the ejection phase

A

when pressure is enough to push blood through valves

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386
Q

what is the formula for how much blood is ejected in a heart cycle

A

EDV-ESV=Stroke volume

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387
Q

what is EDV

A

end diastolic volume

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388
Q

what is ESV

A

end systolic volume

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389
Q

what is diastasis

A

a brief situation where blood leaves ventricles even though atrial pressure is slightly higher

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390
Q

what is isovolumetric relaxation

A

semilunar valves close as vestricles relax

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391
Q

what is ventricular filling due to

A

due to inertia

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392
Q

when is passive return used

A

as long as atrial pressure is higher than ventricular pressure the atriaventricular valve will be open

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393
Q

which circuit is high pressure and which is low pressure

A

systemic is high, pulmonary is low

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394
Q

how much blood remains in atria at all times

A

around 40-50ml

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395
Q

what is the blood remaining in the atria

A

end systolic volume

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396
Q

what is the p wave

A

synchronous contraction of the left and right atria

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397
Q

what are the three steps to ventricular systole

A

isovolumetric contraction, ejection phase, diastasis (inertia)

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398
Q

what is ventricular diastole

A

isovolumetric relaxation

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399
Q

when is the atrioventricular valve open

A

during atrial systole, during ventricular filling

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400
Q

when is the atrioventricular valve closed

A

isoventricular contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation

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401
Q

when is the aortic valve open

A

ventricular ejection

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402
Q

during atrial systole the ventricles are already filled, why is blood still put into the ventricles

A

its a sort of topping off of the tank, its not a meaningful impact of the heart during rest

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403
Q

what is the p wave

A

atrial systole

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404
Q

what is the qrs wave

A

isovolumetric contraction

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405
Q

what is the t wave

A

ventricular ejection

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406
Q

what is end diastolic volume

A

maximum volume in ventricles when atria in systole

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407
Q

what is the approximate EDV

A

120ml

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408
Q

what is cardiac output

A

amount of blood pumped per unit time (L/min)

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409
Q

what is the approximate cardiac output for one circuit

A

5-6L/circuit of circulation

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410
Q

why does the amount of oxygen in the blood matter for aerobic organisms

A

to prevent hypoxia

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411
Q

how many liters of blood is pumped per minute for most adult humans

A

25-27 liters

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412
Q

what is stroke volume

A

amount of blood ejected per heart beat

413
Q

how do you calculate cardiac output

A

HR x SV = CO

414
Q

what is tachycardia

A

heart beating excessively fast, ventricles not able to fill before ejecting blood

415
Q

whats the max amount of blood a human can pump in exercise

A

max is 35L for amazing athletes

416
Q

what fold of increase can heart rate have at resting versus excercising

A

heart rate can have 3 fold increase

417
Q

what fold of increase can stroke volume have at resting versus excercising

A

stroke volume can have 2 fold increase

418
Q

what does HCN channels stand for

A

hyperpolarization activated cyclic nucleotides

419
Q

what are HCN channels

A

different cyclic nucleotides when make k influx

420
Q

what is the SA node RMP

A

-65mV

421
Q

what is the myocardial cell RMP

A

-85mv

422
Q

what are the excitable tissues of the heart

A

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, purkinje fibers

423
Q

whats the reason to have myogenic specialized muscle tissue

A

to activate the heart and transfer action potential

424
Q

where is the SA node

A

right atrium

425
Q

what does SA stand for

A

sinoatrial

426
Q

what kind of cells are in the SA node

A

cells that have autorythmisity (pacemaker potential)

427
Q

what is a cellular pacemaker

A

cells spontaneously depolarizing

428
Q

what does RMP stand for

A

resting membrane potential

429
Q

what is RMP due to

A

K efflux

430
Q

what is pacemaker potential driven by

A

sodium influx

431
Q

what action potential do cells have in SA node

A

100 AP/min

432
Q

where is the AV node

A

at the boundary between atria and ventricles

433
Q

which node has a higher pacemaker potential

A

SA has higher

434
Q

what is AV delay

A

0.05m/s

435
Q

where do you get specialized conduction

A

bundle of His and purkinje fibers

436
Q

what are the bundle of his and purkinje fibers

A

elongate cells specialized for rapid AP conduction

437
Q

what is a rapid AP conduction value

A

5m/s

438
Q

what are cells of node trying to act like

A

trying to act like axons

439
Q

when are voltage gated calcium channels open

A

when SA node pacemaker potential has hit threshhold

440
Q

what are between cardiac muscle cells

A

gap junctions

441
Q

what do gap junctions allow for

A

ion transfer (electrical charge transfer)

442
Q

what do inactive voltage gated sodium channels allow for

A

relaxation

443
Q

what ensures relaxation

A

protractive repolarization

444
Q

what does bundle of his and purkinje fibers cause

A

rapid depolarization of ventricles

445
Q

what is the parasympathetic division

A

autonomic nervous system

446
Q

what nerve is part of the parasympathetic division

A

vagus nerve

447
Q

what number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve

A

10

448
Q

what does the vagus nerve do

A

reduces the heart rate

449
Q

what innervates the SA node and the myocardium

A

parasympathetic division

450
Q

what reduces heart rate so diastole lasts longer

A

parasympathetic division

451
Q

what causes HCN channels

A

cGMP

452
Q

what does RMP reduction do

A

hyperpolarizes SA node

453
Q

what does cGMP do

A

reduces cytoplasmic Ca

454
Q

when does vagus activity decrease

A

when exercising

455
Q

what nerve takes over when vagus is decreased

A

sympathetic

456
Q

what does the sympathetic nerve give

A

norepinephrine mostly as a neurotransmitter (and a little bit of epinephrine)

457
Q

when does calcium pool in the body

A

when heart beat increases

458
Q

why does calcium pool with increased HR

A

not enough time in diastole to remove it

459
Q

what does Na act as when calcium is pooling

A

acts as a cotransport agent

460
Q

is the vagus nerve sympathetic is parasympathetic

A

parasympathetic

461
Q

whats the major nerve in sympathetic

A

accelerator nerve

462
Q

what does the sympathetic division do

A

releases norepinephrine, activates adrenal medulla to release epinephrine, increases HR

463
Q

what is the fuction of an arteriole

A

regulate blood flow into tissue

464
Q

how is fluid forced through capillaries

A

by filtration

465
Q

why is filtration through capillaries important

A

its a way of moving material from blood to tissues

466
Q

what is the function precapillary sphinter

A

regulate blood flow into a tissue

467
Q

what does a precapillary sphinter consist of

A

a bulb at the end of a capillary that controls blood flow into capillaries

468
Q

what is the difference between veno and vasoconstriction

A

vaso in artery veno in veins

469
Q

what is the function of a vein

A

returns blood to the heart

470
Q

what about the internal anatomy of a vein is large

A

the lumen is large

471
Q

what does it mean that some veins have one way stop valves

A

have cup shaped valves to close and stop the flow of blood

472
Q

is artery or vein system high pressure

A

artery is high pressure, vein is low pressure

473
Q

what changes about the resistance in venoconstriction versus venodilation

A

the resistance levels do not change in veins

474
Q

what kind of input controls venodilation or venoconstriction

A

sympathetic input

475
Q

what controls venodilation or venoconstruction

A

CV center in the medulla

476
Q

what is impacted most by venodilation and venoconstriction

A

resevoir capacity

477
Q

what is venoconstriction

A

descrease resevoir, increase venous return

478
Q

what is venodilation

A

increase resevoir, decrease venous return

479
Q

which veno has the lower sympathetic activity

A

venodilation

480
Q

how do veins have a low resistance

A

due to large lumen

481
Q

what is a change in venous return correlated with in the heart

A

end diastolic volume

482
Q

what are vericose veins due to

A

degredation of valves in veins

483
Q

what increases venous return

A

venoconstriction

484
Q

when is venoconstriction increased

A

when exercising

485
Q

where is the majority of systemic blood located in the body

A

in the venous system

486
Q

when is the majority of the blood not in the veins

A

when exercising (need to remove more co2 and bring in o2)

487
Q

why can capillaries have a very small portion of blood

A

because they have a huge surface area to allow for gas exchange dynamics

488
Q

surface area is directly proportional to _______

A

flow rate

489
Q

what is the function of a peristaltic pump

A

continuous cycles

490
Q

what has largest overall influence in blood pressure

A

diastole

491
Q

what would the mean value for resting be if 120 and 80 and why

A

it would be 90 because diastole is more influential than systole

492
Q

why are mammalian RBC shaped weird

A

due to endotermic needs due to oxygen demands that are critical for endothermy

493
Q

how much of vertebrate blood is made of up formed elements

A

10-50%

494
Q

what are the 3 cellular fractions to vertebrate blood

A

red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

495
Q

what is the dominant formed element in vertebrates

A

red blood cells

496
Q

how many hemoglobin molecules are found in one RBC

A

270 million

497
Q

what vertebrate fish lacks hemoglobin

A

channichthyidae

498
Q

what carbon derivative is in red blood cells

A

carbonic anhydrase

499
Q

how many RBC are in adult human

A

20-30 trillian (4-5million per cubic mm)

500
Q

what happens to RBC when they mature

A

they eject their nucleus and become anucleate

501
Q

what is the proper name for the shape of RBC

A

biconcave

502
Q

what is the function of WBC

A

defense, phagocytosis (5 types)

503
Q

what is the function of platelets

A

hemostasis

504
Q

what are the two most common names for blood

A

blood or hemolymph

505
Q

what is blood/hemolymph

A

circulating fluid in cardiovascular system

506
Q

what is the common slang term for RBC

A

little bags of hemoglobin

507
Q

what is the purpose of carbonic anhydrase

A

gas transport in blood

508
Q

what does carbon anhydrase catalyze

A

the reaction of water and carbon dioxide to produce carbonic acid

509
Q

how do channichthyidae function without hemoglobin

A

use o2 in extracellular fluid in blood

510
Q

what is another name for a platelate

A

thrombocyte

511
Q

what does it mean that platelets work in hemostassi

A

they have mechanisms to stop blood loss

512
Q

what is the order of formed elements in abundancy

A

most is RBC, platelete, then WBC is least abundant

513
Q

what is the life span of an erythrocyte

A

100-120 days

514
Q

what is another name for an erythrocyte

A

RBC

515
Q

what engulfs dying RBC and where

A

macrophages in the spleen

516
Q

what is the function of the spleen

A

resevoir for RBC and the removal site needed for recycling of organic elements

517
Q

when an erythrocyte is destroyed what happens

A

heme and globin are separated, iron reused

518
Q

what happens to the heme upon degredation

A

heme degraded to bilirubin (yellow)

519
Q

where is bilirubin secreted from and to

A

secreted from liver into into bile for intestines

520
Q

what is the body of feces

A

stercobilin

521
Q

what happens to globin when RBC degraded

A

metabolized into amino acids

522
Q

how is globin broken down for amino acid use

A

broken down by hydrolysis

523
Q

what is anemia

A

blood has abnormally low o2 carrying capacity

524
Q

what does it mean that in anemia blood has a low o2 carrying capacity

A

blood levels cant support normal aerobic metablism

525
Q

what are the symptoms of anemia

A

fatigue, pleness, shortness of breath, chills

526
Q

anemia is a ___ not a ____

A

symptom, disease

527
Q

what produces new formed elements

A

bone marrow

528
Q

what are the three kinds of anemia due to insufficient RBC

A

hemolytic, aplastic, hemorrhagic

529
Q

what is hemolytic anemia

A

RBC repture in blood rpematurely

530
Q

what is aplastic anemia

A

destruction or inhibition of red bone marrow

531
Q

what is hemorrhagic anemia

A

acute or chronic loss of blood

532
Q

when does acute blood loss occur

A

something sudden like an accident

533
Q

when does chronic blood loss occur

A

gradual over time like an ulcer or a tumour

534
Q

what are the causes for hemolytic anemia

A

genetic or parasitic

535
Q

what is genetic hemolytic anemia

A

athallocemia

536
Q

what parasite causes hemolytic anemia

A

malaria (protozoic: proliferate in RBC and burst RBC to hatch and spread youth)

537
Q

what is an example of how aplastic anemia happens

A

excessive exposur to radiation

538
Q

what are the two kind of anemia due to low Hb production

A

iron deficiency, pernicious

539
Q

when can iron deficiency anemia occur

A

as a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia or due to inadequite intake of iron containing foods, impaired iron absorption

540
Q

what can cause iron absorpton to be impaired

A

chrons disease

541
Q

when can pernicious anemia happen

A

not enough b12, tapeworm

542
Q

how do you treat pernicious anemia

A

b12 injection or application of nascobal

543
Q

why is anemia an issue

A

iron holds the oxygen in the blood and prevents enough packing of hemoglobin into RBC

544
Q

what diseases result from abnormal hb structure

A

thalassemias and sickle-cell

545
Q

what is thalassemias

A

absent or faulty globin chain

546
Q

what is sickle-cell

A

crystalization dynamic causes shape change. crystalization due to defective gene code makes cells sickle shaped when in low o2

547
Q

where are hemocytoblasts produced

A

bone marrow

548
Q

what is the production of RBC called

A

erythropoieses

549
Q

what regulates production of RBC

A

glycoprotein hormone ERYTHROPOIETIN

550
Q

where is erythropoietin made

A

kidneys

551
Q

what is the name for the production of WBC

A

leukopoiesis

552
Q

when does leukemia happen

A

abnormality in production of WBC

553
Q

what is the term for the production of all formed elements

A

hematopoiesis

554
Q

what kind of feedback dynamic is erythropoiesis

A

negative feedback dynamic

555
Q

what is the primary component of blood

A

plasma

556
Q

how much of blood is made of plasma

A

50-90%

557
Q

what is plasma

A

water containing dissolved and suspended solutes

558
Q

what makes up 80% of the solute in plasma

A

na and k

559
Q

what is the most abundant organic compound in plasma

A

glucose

560
Q

why are albumins needed in plasma

A

transport and osmotic pressure. brings fluid out of tissues from capillaries to prevent edema

561
Q

what is the proper name for blood in insects and other invertebrates

A

hemolymph

562
Q

waht percent of hemolymph is plasma

A

90%

563
Q

what are the 4 formed elements in hemolymph

A

prohemocytes, plasmocytes, granulocytes, coagulocytes

564
Q

what are prohemocytes

A

stem cells that can turn into other formed elements where needed

565
Q

what are plasmocytes

A

phagocytes

566
Q

what are granulocytes

A

store proteins and release srategically where and when needed

567
Q

what are coagulocytes

A

act kind of like platelets. they rupture and trigger hemostasis

568
Q

how did we measure solute concentration

A

measured freezing point depression using an osmometer

569
Q

the more solute the ___ freezign point depression

A

greater

570
Q

what is the freezing point of salt water

A

-1.86

571
Q

what is an osmole

A

1000mmoles/L

572
Q

how does an osmometer measure freezing point depression

A

measured kinetic energy given off from supercooling of sample

573
Q

invertebrate plasma is mostly what

A

water (not much formed elements)

574
Q

what kind of invertebrates have a higher concentration of ions in their plasma

A

insects have higher ion concentrations

575
Q

what are the elements besides formed elements in insect blood

A

inrganic ions, organic ions, proteins

576
Q

what is an example of an ion invertebrates have a lot of

A

inverts have 10-15x more K than verts (40-50mM)

577
Q

insects have more ______ ____ in relation to vertebrates

A

inorganic ions

578
Q

herbivore insects have lower ____ ratios

A

Na/K

579
Q

what are the most abundant organic ions in insects

A

treehalose and proline

580
Q

what is trehalose

A

disaccharide of glucose (replaces glucose)

581
Q

what is proline used for in insects

A

lepidopterans use proline for their metabolism

582
Q

instead of antibodies in the blood, what do insects use

A

phagocytic cells

583
Q

what blood component that isnt a formed element is most analogous to human blood

A

the proteins in the plasma

584
Q

how much dissolved oxygen is in plasma

A

0.3mL/100mL

585
Q

how much oxygen is in the Hb of blood

A

20mL/100mL

586
Q

respiratory pigments are also called

A

respiratory proteins

587
Q

pigments do

A

evoke a colour change

588
Q

what kind of mer are respiratory pigments

A

oligomers

589
Q

respiratory pigments are often conjugated with what

A

a metal ion

590
Q

what are the 4 respiratory pigments

A

hemoglobin, hemocyanin, chlorocruorin, hemerythrin

591
Q

what is the function of a respiratory pigment

A

reversible binding of oxygen and carbon dioxide

592
Q

why is it vital to have respiratory pigments

A

aid in bufferring the pH of blood

593
Q

when does a change in respirator pigment colour happen

A

when oxygen is bound or not bound

594
Q

what is the most abundant resp. pigment in inverts

A

hemocyanin

595
Q

what phenomena are resp. pigments

A

enzyme substrate complex

596
Q

what is the most widespread resp. pigment

A

hemoglobin

597
Q

what is the only resp. pigment in verts

A

hemoglobin

598
Q

what mer is hemoglobin

A

oligomer in most

599
Q

when is hemoglobin not oligomer

A

agnathans have it as a monomer

600
Q

how big is monomeric hb

A

18kD

601
Q

how big is oligomeric hb

A

68kD

602
Q

what mer is hemoglobin in verts

A

tetramer

603
Q

what are the 4 components of vert hb

A

2 alpha chains, 2 beta chains

604
Q

how many amino acids are there per hb chain

A

145 amino acids

605
Q

what is the name for monomeric hemoglobin

A

myoglobin

606
Q

where can myoglobin be found in humans

A

in muscle tissue of humans

607
Q

what does iron do in the hb

A

holds on to o2 in high o2 conditions and releases o2 in low o2 conditions

608
Q

what is the heme group on hb

A

porphyrin ring

609
Q

what part of hb has the iron

A

heme has the ferrous iron

610
Q

where is hb found

A

in rbc

611
Q

what is the size of hb intracellular

A

20-30kD

612
Q

what is the size of hb extracellular

A

2000-3000kD

613
Q

where is extracellular hb

A

in plasma freely floating

614
Q

what is the binding dynamic in hb

A

cooperativity

615
Q

what colour is hemocyanin when bound with o2

A

blue

616
Q

what is the difference between hb and hc

A

pretty much only difference is the conjugated metal

617
Q

what metal does hc use

A

copper

618
Q

what is the second most widespread resp. pigment

A

hemocyanin

619
Q

what animals have hc

A

crustaceans and mollusks (cephalopods and gastropods)

620
Q

what mer is hemocyanin

A

oligomer

621
Q

how is copper bound in hc

A

direct binding of copper to histidine residues in subunit

622
Q

is hc intra or extracellular

A

hc is always extracellular

623
Q

what are histidine residues analogous to in hb

A

hc histidine residues = hb porphyrin ring

624
Q

what are the two less common resp. pigments

A

hemerythrin and chlorocruorin

625
Q

what animals have hemerythrin

A

brachiopods, priapulids, sipunculids, 1 polychaete

626
Q

what size are hemerythrin

A

16-125kD trimer or octamer

627
Q

where can hemerythrin be found in the blood

A

intra or extracellullarly

628
Q

what are the metals in hemerythrin

A

2 ferric ions per subunit that is attached to histidine residues

629
Q

what other resp. pigment is most like hemoglobin

A

chlorocruorin

630
Q

what animals have chlorocruorin

A

polychaetes

631
Q

where in blood can chlorocruorin be can

A

extracellular

632
Q

what size is chlorocruorin

A

3000kD

633
Q

how many subunits does chlorocruorin have

A

can have several dozen sub units

634
Q

how is chlorocruorin like hb

A

uses ferric iron and porphyrin ring (its just too big to be hb)

635
Q

what are the coined terms for hb reversible binding

A

oxyhemoglobin vs deoxyhemoglobin

636
Q

what does reversible binding do in hb

A

changes levels of oxygen throughout the body

637
Q

whats weird about the loading affinity for o2 in hb

A

loading first o2 is hard, then loading affinity increases so its easier to bind more o2

638
Q

why is the o2 affinity in hb observed

A

due to subunit conformational changes

639
Q

what kind of pattern does cooperativity follow

A

sigmoidal

640
Q

what can modulate the binding dynamics in hb

A

ph, temp, organophosphates

641
Q

how does ph change binding dynamics

A

h ion reduces affinity which favours unloading of o2 from hb

642
Q

how can temp change binding dyanamics

A

high temp reduces affinity which favours unloading of o2 from hb

643
Q

how do organophosphates change binding dynamics

A

elevated 2,3 DPG reduces affinity which favours unloading of o2 from hb

644
Q

what is the saturation at alveolar gas exchange concentration

A

98%

645
Q

what is the bohr effect

A

there is a right shift at lower pH in blood to allow for the unloading of o2 in blood (affinity of Hb for O2)

646
Q

what is the point of being aerobic as long as possible

A

the longer youre aerobic, the less fatigue you will get in a time span

647
Q

what organism has the root effect

A

fish with swim bladders

648
Q

what are the two kind of gas bladders

A

physostomic and physoclistic

649
Q

what is physostomic swim bladder

A

gulping

650
Q

what is physoclistic swim bladder

A

dissolved gasses in blood go into gas vessel (Hb sensitive)

651
Q

what are two allosteric modulators

A

ATP and GTP

652
Q

what are three ways to transport carbon dioxide

A

respiratory pigments, dissolved in solution, bicarbonic-carbonic acid system

653
Q

how much of total co2 in body is carried by hb

A

about 10%

654
Q

how much total co2 is moved by dissolved in solution

A

5-7%

655
Q

how much total co2 is moved by bicarbonic-carbonic system

A

85%

656
Q

how do respiratory pigments remove co2

A

reversible binding to amino acid residues

657
Q

how does dissolved in solution remove co2

A

dissolves into plasma and some into RBC cytoplasm by pressure

658
Q

how does bicarbinc-carbinc acid system remove co2

A

with the use of carbonic anhydrase

659
Q

where is carbonic anhydrase found

A

in RBC and apical surface of endothelium in plasma

660
Q

describe the bicarbonic-carbonic acid system

A

co2 in RBC and carbonic anhydrase combine with water to make carbonic acid that is dissoiated into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions, hydrogen ions bind to proteins (like hb), then chloride exchange puts bicarbonate into plasma

661
Q

what are the three types of blood ph regulation

A

immediate regulation, intermediate term, long term

662
Q

how does immediate regulation of blood ph work

A

using blood buffers

663
Q

what are examples of blood buffers

A

bicarbonate, albumin, hemoglobin

664
Q

how do blood buffers work

A

reversible binding so ph can be stabilized at a set point

665
Q

how does intermediate term blood ph regulation work

A

elimination of co2 via gas exchange systems

666
Q

how does long term blood ph regulation work

A

excretory systems to remove hydrogen ions

667
Q

what is the standing titer of co2

A

5mmHg

668
Q

what is the endocrine system

A

control and coordination of physiological responses via hormones

669
Q

what are the major control systems of animals

A

nervous system and endocrine system

670
Q

how does the nervous system control the body

A

membrane potential transmissins along neurons

671
Q

what is the major membrane potential of the nervous system

A

action potential

672
Q

what is released at a synapse

A

neurotransmitters

673
Q

how does the endocrine system control the body

A

with ductless glands that secrete hormones into the blood

674
Q

what is the chemical messenger of the endocrine system

A

hormones

675
Q

why is it important to learn basics of nervous system within the endocrine system

A

the two act on each other

676
Q

how does the endocrine system act on the nervous system

A

some hormones are neurotransmitters

677
Q

how long does it take a neurotransmitter to communicate

A

milliseconds

678
Q

how long does it take for a hormone to communicate

A

seconds

679
Q

what are the three types of hormones

A

steroi hormones, amine hormones, protein hormones

680
Q

what is a steroid hormone

A

cholesterol derivatives that are membrane permeable

681
Q

how are steroid hormones membrane permeable

A

they penetrate the phospholipid bilayer

682
Q

what are the two major classes of amine hormones

A

tyrosine derivatives and tryptophan derivatives

683
Q

what are the tyrosine derivatines of amine hormones

A

catecholamines and iodothyronines

684
Q

what is the primary difference between catecholamine and iodothyronines

A

catecholamines are membrane impermeable, iodothyronines are membrane permeable (iodo is verts only)

685
Q

where can iodothyroines be found

A

thyroid (contain lots of iodine)

686
Q

which of the tyrosine derivatives is often a neurotransmitter

A

catecholamine

687
Q

what is the tryptophan derivative of the amine hormones

A

melatonin

688
Q

what is the permeability of melatonin

A

membrane impermeable

689
Q

what are examples of iodothyromines

A

triodothyrode and trypsin

690
Q

what is the permeability of hormones based on

A

their polarity

691
Q

what do protein hormones do

A

work at the surface of membranes (membrane impermeable)

692
Q

antagonism is common in hormone interactions, what is antagonism

A

two things acting opposite of each other

693
Q

how much of a hormone is needed for utilization

A

nanograms to picrograms per liter

694
Q

what aids protein transport in blood/hemolymph

A

carrier proteins in blood

695
Q

peptie and protein hormones consist of assemblages of ____

A

amino acids

696
Q

how do endocrine glands transport hormines

A

permeated by many blood vessels

697
Q

how do exocrine glands transport hormones

A

have ducts to carry secretions

698
Q

what are the types of endocrine glands

A

discrete or diffuse

699
Q

what is the difference between discrete and diffuse endocrine glands

A

discrete have endocrine cells packed into single structure, diffuse have endocrine cells scattered among other tissues

700
Q

what are the types of endocrine cells

A

epithelial or neuroendocrine

701
Q

what are epithelial endocrine cells

A

influenced by nervous system (neurosecretory)

702
Q

what are neuroendocrine cells

A

regulated by nervous system and have neuron like cell morphology

703
Q

how big is the pituitary gland

A

size of a walnut

704
Q

what organisms have pituitary glands

A

verts only

705
Q

what are the embryonic tissue sources for the pituitary gland

A

ectoderm and endoderm

706
Q

where is the pituitary gland located

A

just below the hypothalamus

707
Q

what are the two parts to the pituitary gland

A

neurohypophysis (anterior), and adenohypothysis (posterior)

708
Q

what are the main parts to the neurohypophysis of the pituitary gland

A

median aminence, infundibular stalk, pars nervosa

709
Q

what are the main parts to the adenohypophysis of the pituitary gland

A

pars tuberalis, pars distalis, pars intermedia

710
Q

which pituitary (anterior or posterior) is endodermal derived

A

anterior (adenohypophysis)

711
Q

how does the neurohypophyss get hormones

A

via vascular supply to pars nervosa

712
Q

where do neurosecretory cells originate from

A

hypothalamus

713
Q

what is the function of the adenohypophysis

A

separate populations of hormone producing cells

714
Q

what controls the anterior pituitary gland

A

the hypothalamus

715
Q

what 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary release and produce

A

TSH, ACTH, growth hormone, LH and FSH, prolactin, MSH

716
Q

how many hormones does posterior release

A

2

717
Q

what is TSH

A

thyroid stimulating hormone

718
Q

what is ACTH

A

adrenocorticotropic hormine

719
Q

what is LH

A

levitinizing hormone

720
Q

what is FSH

A

folical stimulating hormone

721
Q

what is prolactin used for

A

milk production

722
Q

what is MSH

A

melanocyte stimulating hormone

723
Q

what are the two hormones released by the posterior pituitary

A

ADH and oxytocin

724
Q

what is the function of ADH

A

promotes water recovery

725
Q

what is the function of oxytocin

A

targets selected groups of smooth muscle (most important in females)

726
Q

what are the two hormones involved in milk production

A

prolactin makes milk, oxytocin ejects milk

727
Q

what does ACTH trigger the release of

A

glucocorticoids

728
Q

what is the function of LH and FSH

A

reproductive cell maturation and sex hormone production

729
Q

what does MSH stimulate

A

change in pigmentation in some verts (like mating colour changes)

730
Q

what is released to act antagonistically on hormones

A

inhibiting hormones (not all hormones have this)

731
Q

what is the thyroid gland heavily influenced by

A

the anterior pituitary gland

732
Q

where is the thyroid gland located

A

alongside the trachea

733
Q

what is the main mass of the thyroid

A

sperical follicles

734
Q

what cells are found between the follicle cells of the thyroid

A

parafollicular

735
Q

what are follicle derived hormones regulated by

A

TSH

736
Q

what hormones elevate aerobic metabolism in tissues

A

thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)

737
Q

what parafollicular cell derived hormone

A

calcitonin

738
Q

what is the function of calcitonin

A

reduces blood calcium

739
Q

what is the purpose of calcitonin reducing blood calcium

A

promotes storage of calcium in bones, and promotes excretion of calcium from kidneys

740
Q

what do amphibians need thyroxin for

A

metamorphosis

741
Q

what is hypothyroidism

A

hypometabolism

742
Q

what does hypothyroidism lead to

A

weight gain

743
Q

what is hyperthyroidism

A

hypermetabolism

744
Q

what does hyperthyroidism lead to

A

weight gain

745
Q

what do hypo and hyperthyroidism threaten

A

life quality (not years of life)

746
Q

what is colloid

A

protein rich fluid catabolized to make hormone

747
Q

what is a goider

A

thyroid gland tissues hypertrophy from too little iodine

748
Q

what are the parathyroid glands

A

4-8 tiny glands embedded in posterior aspect of thyroid

749
Q

what kinds of cells are found in the parathyroid lands

A

oxyphil cells and cheif cells

750
Q

what do cheif cells secrete in the parathyroid glands

A

PTH (parathyroid hormone)

751
Q

what is the function of PTH

A

calcium ion homeostasis

antagonistic to calcitonin

752
Q

what does PTH stimulate

A

breakdown of bone matrix and recovery of calcium

753
Q

what kind of feedback dynamic does PTH have

A

negative feedback dynamic

754
Q

what is the organ that is two glands in one organ

A

pancreas

755
Q

how is the pancreas two glands in one organ

A

has exocrine and endocrine function

756
Q

what is the function of the islets of langerhans in the pancreas

A

produce hormones

757
Q

what are the two cell types in the islets of langerhans

A

alpha cells and beta cells

758
Q

what do alpha cells do in the pancreas

A

produce glucagon

759
Q

what does glucagon do

A

increase blood glucose and combats hypoglycemia

760
Q

what do beta cells of the pancreas do

A

produce insulin

761
Q

what is the function of insulin

A

decreases blood glucose to combat hyperglycemia

762
Q

how are alpha and beta cells of the pancreas antagonistic of each other

A

uses alpha cells, when going into hyperglycemia the beta cells work harder to decrease blood glucose. when blood glucose too low, alpha cells become more active to combat hypoglycemia

763
Q

what is the main reserve for glucagon

A

liver

764
Q

what are the three hormones of the digestive system

A

gastrin, secretin, and cholecystokinin (CCK)

765
Q

where is gastrin produced

A

stomach, duodenum, and pancreas

766
Q

why is gastrin released

A

stimulated by proteins in food, increases gastric juice production and gastric motility (pepsin associated)

767
Q

what was the first hormone ever reported

A

secretin

768
Q

what produces secretin

A

duodenum of small intestine

769
Q

why is secretin released

A

high protein and acid content in food

770
Q

what produces choleocystokinin (CCK)

A

duodenum of small intestine

771
Q

why is CCK choleocystokinin released

A

presence of lipids, promotes pancreas and liver-gall bladder secretions

772
Q

how is lipid storage regulated

A

excess foods are stored as tryglycerides to be stored in adipose tissue

773
Q

what hormine stimulates appetite

A

ghrelin

774
Q

what produces ghrelin

A

stomach

775
Q

what hormone suppresses appetite

A

leptin

776
Q

what produces leptin

A

produced by adipose

777
Q

what hormone retards glucose storage and coverts it to lipid

A

resistin

778
Q

what produces resistin

A

adipose produces

779
Q

why is resistin able to convert glucose to lipids

A

because they inhibit insulin receptors

780
Q

what are the two land components to the adrenal gland

A

adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla

781
Q

where is the adrenal gland located

A

on top of the kidney

782
Q

what is the adrenal cortex

A

larger outer tissue of the adrenal gland

783
Q

what is the adrenal medulla

A

deeper tissue of the adrenal gland

784
Q

what does the adrenal cortex produce

A

steroid hormones

785
Q

what is the function of the steroid hormones produced in the adrenal cortex

A

mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, sex hormones

786
Q

what are mineralocorticoids

A

fluid retention in kidneys

787
Q

what are glucocorticoids

A

involved in treating inflammation and tissue repair

788
Q

what are the sex hormones made in the adrenal cortex

A

testosterone and estrogen

789
Q

which part of the adrenal gland is part of the autonomic nervous system

A

adrenal medulla

790
Q

what is produced in the adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine and some norepinephrine

791
Q

what is the function of epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

enhance cardiovascular function and increases glucose metabolism

792
Q

what are endocrine diseases caused by

A

over or underproduction of a hormone or a receptor disorder (often autoimmune)

793
Q

what are two thyroid disorders

A

hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism

794
Q

what disease is caused by hypothyroidism

A

hashimoto’s syndrome (TSH receptor) decreased t3 and t4

795
Q

what disease is caused by hyperthyroidism

A

grave’s disease (TSH receptor) increased t3 and t4

796
Q

what are two pancreatic disorders

A

pancreatic adenoma and diabetes mellitus

797
Q

what is pancreatic adenoma

A

tumor cells make gastrin

798
Q

what is diabetes mellitus

A

type 1- autoimmune attack on islets

type 2- reduces insulin receptor sensitivity

799
Q

what do hormones regulate in insects

A

life cycle progression, body fluid regulation, metabolism

800
Q

what kinds of hormones do insects have

A

protein hormones, steroid hormones, long chain CH hormones

801
Q

what hormone type is unique to invertebrates

A

long chain CH hormones

802
Q

what kinds of life cycles do insects hae=ve

A

holometabolous or hemimetabolous

803
Q

what are insect life cycles strongly influenced by

A

several hormones

804
Q

what are the major endocrine glands of insects

A

corpus allatum and prothoracic gland

805
Q

what endocrine gland of insects is analogous to the pituitary of verts

A

corpus allatum

806
Q

what hormones are produced in the corpus allatum

A

juvenile hormone and PTTH

807
Q

what hormone stimulates the prothoracic gland

A

PTTH

808
Q

what hormone does the prothoracic gland release

A

ecdysone

809
Q

what does ecdysone do

A

triggers molting

810
Q

when is hemimetamorphosis

A

juvenile resembles adult

811
Q

what is holometamorphosis

A

complete regoganization of body structure

812
Q

what are the key physiological processs of the nervous system

A

membrane potentials and chemical communication

813
Q

what is within the central nervous system

A

brain and spinal cord

814
Q

what is within the peripheral nervous system

A

nerves and ganglia

815
Q

what are the two major cells types of the nervous system

A

neurons and glial cells

816
Q

what is a synaptic knob

A

area for communication that has junction with neighbor cell

817
Q

what are the cell types for neurons (process number)

A

unipolar, bipolar, multipolar

818
Q

what kinds of neurotransmitters can neurons release

A

cholinergenic or adrenergenic (neuron can only elease one type)

819
Q

what is the information flow of neurons

A

afferent or efferent

820
Q

what neurons are afferent

A

sensory

821
Q

what neurons are efferent

A

motor

822
Q

what are glial cells

A

helper cells for neurons

823
Q

what is the ratio of glial cells to neurons

A

1000 glial to 1 neuron

824
Q

what are the myelinations in CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

825
Q

what are the myelinations in PNS

A

schwann cells

826
Q

what is something that would be key in nervous system disease

A

gene regulation of myelin density

827
Q

what are two key types of glial cells

A

microglia and astrocytes

828
Q

what do microglia do

A

phagocytic and defensive

829
Q

what do astrocytes do

A

regulate composition of extracellular fluid (housekeepers)

830
Q

what makes the blood brain barrier

A

astrocytes binding to capillaries

831
Q

what are the gaps between myelination

A

nodes of ranvier

832
Q

where are axons exposed to the external environment

A

at nodes of ranvier

833
Q

what is calcium vital to in the nervous system

A

exocytosis

834
Q

what prevents uncoiling of myelination in myelinated axons

A

homophilic attraction of extracellular domains

835
Q

myelinated neurons have saltatory propegations, what does this allow for

A

fast moving action potentials (jumping motion) to allow for larger body size

836
Q

where is K, Cl, and Na most concentrated in neurons

A

K most conc in neuron
Na most conc outside neuron
Cl most conc outside neuron

837
Q

what voltage do neurons typically carry

A

-70mV to -90mV

838
Q

what is the maximum AP that travels on neuron

A

+30mV to +50mV

839
Q

what is the voltage of neurons driven by

A

channel driven dynamic (ion channels)

840
Q

how can an animal reduce the resistance of action potential flow, making action potentials move faster in unmyelinated neurons

A

change the diameter of the axon (make bigger)

841
Q

why is AP only possible at nodes of ranvier

A

they need access to extracellular K and Na

842
Q

what is multiple sclerosis a disorder of

A

myelination is subject to autoimmune attack that impairs motor or sensory neurons

843
Q

presynaptic cells ____ AP

A

undergo

844
Q

postsynatic cells ____ AP

A

create new

845
Q

where is the direct flow of electrical current common

A

invert nervous system and vertebrate myocardium

846
Q

why would something need a direct flow of electrical current

A

when nearly synchronous activation of many cells needed

847
Q

what is direct flow of electrical current called

A

ephase electotonic synapse

848
Q

what is the more common synapse in verts

A

chemical based synapse

849
Q

what kind of synapse can be bidirectional

A

ephapse

850
Q

how does chemical synapse move

A

by exocytosis. synaptic cleft to presynaptic cell to post synaptic cell to synaptic vessicles

851
Q

what are key neurotransmitters

A

chemical messengers

852
Q

what are examples of key neurotransmitters

A

catecholamines, amino acids, lipid derivatives

853
Q

how many types of neurotransmitters are there

A

50

854
Q

how are neurotransmitters synthesized

A

by enzymes in cytoplasm of synaptic knob

855
Q

what are the key precursors to neuroransmitters

A

tyrosine, glutamate, acetylcholine

856
Q

how are neurotransmitters packaged

A

vesicle associated transporter (VAcT) or H ion pumped into vessicle and NT cotransported across

857
Q

receptors are linked to ____

A

ion channels

858
Q

what are the most polar and membrane impermeable

A

acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, seratonin, glutamate, GABA, and glycine

859
Q

whats an example of a long ch chain hormone

A

anadamide

860
Q

where are most neurotransmitters made

A

cytoplasm

861
Q

how can neurotransmitters be recycled

A

endocytosis

862
Q

how are neurotransmitters released

A

by action potentials in synaptic knob of presynaptic cells

863
Q

where are action potentials started

A

axon hillock

864
Q

what happens when exocytosis is activated in presynaptic cell

A

voltage gated channels open at plasma membrane and calcium influx at the peak of depolarization

865
Q

what are the 4 steps to exocytosis of neurotransmitters in presynaptic cell

A
  1. vessicle moves to active zone and attaches reversibly
  2. snare and t-snare cock vessicle irreversibly
  3. calcium enters with depolarization and binds to synaptotagmin
  4. membrane fusion and exocytosis
866
Q

what kinds of receptors do post synaptic cells have

A

ionotropic or metabotropic

867
Q

receptors of post synaptic cells are characterized by_____

A

agonists/antagonists

868
Q

acetylcholine receptors are common of post synaptic cells, what are two examples of acetylcholine receptors

A

nicotinic (antagonist is curare) and muscarinic (antagonist is atropine)

869
Q

what is an agonist

A

external chemical agent that interacts and turns on a receptor

870
Q

what is an antagonist

A

external chemical agent that interacts and turns off a receptor

871
Q

binding of neurotransmitter triggers _____ in post synaptic cells

A

channel opening

872
Q

the more neurotransmitter available in a post synaptic time, the______ binding time

A

longer

873
Q

what can happen to a post synaptic cell with long exposure to neurotransmitter

A

receptor may become desensitized

874
Q

what ion flow does post synaptic resting membrane potential favour

A

rmp favours sodium influx (has na influx/k efflux)

875
Q

since resting membrane potential favours na influx, what happens

A

excititory post synaptic potential (EPSP)

876
Q

what happens when epsp reaches threshhold

A

action potential is generated

877
Q

what lasts longer- synaptic events or action potential

A

action potential lasts 2-4 times longer than synaptic events

878
Q

how do synaptic events remove neurotransmitters

A

enzyme degredation or membrane cotransporters

879
Q

what is temporal summation

A

multiple closely spaced action potentials in presynaptic cell, neurotransmitters build up fast and threshhold fast

880
Q

what is spatial summation

A

closely spaced presynaptic neurons active together

881
Q

what is insp

A

inhibitory post synaptic potential

882
Q

neurotransmitters cause either ____ or ____

A

epsp or insp (excititory or inhibitory)

883
Q

neurotransmitter receptors are coupled to ___

A

K or Cl channels

884
Q

what does coupling to a k or cl channel do

A

hyperpolarizes the cell reducing action potential chances

885
Q

what does presynaptic inhibition do

A

reduces calcium entry, reducing neurotransmitter release

886
Q

what does heterosynaptic facilitation do

A

increases polarization of synaptic knob and more neurotransmitter release

887
Q

what is synaptic fatigue

A

use neurotransmitter faster than biosynthesized

888
Q

how can voltage swing be reduced

A

activating 3rd axon causes influx of sodium to presynaptic to depolarize

889
Q

what part of the brain is myelinated

A

white matter

890
Q

what part of the brain is unmyelinated

A

gray matter

891
Q

how are nutrients delivers to tissues in central nervous system

A

by cerebral spinal fluid

892
Q

what are the three ways to classify a nerve fiber

A

diameter, degree of myelination, and speed of conduction

893
Q

what are group a nerve fibers

A

large diameter, large myelination (100m/s)

894
Q

what are group b fibers

A

intermediate diameter with reduced myelination (40-50m/s)

895
Q

what are group c fibers

A

short distance unmyelinated

896
Q

what are neuronal pools

A

functional groups of neurons that integrate incoming info an forward processed info to where it needs to go (groups of neurons interacting with each other)

897
Q

what is the discharge zone in neuronal pools

A

neurons most closely associated with incoming fiber

898
Q

what is the facilitated zone in neuronal pools

A

neurons farther away from incoming fiber

899
Q

what is a divergent circuit

A

1 presynaptic fiber connected to many post synaptic fibers

900
Q

what neurons commonly have divergent circuits

A

morot neurons

901
Q

what is a converging circuit

A

many presynaptic fibers and few post synaptic fibers

902
Q

what is a reverberating circuit

A

once activated, stay on a long time

903
Q

where are reverberating circuits common

A

short term memory and anger

904
Q

what are the two functional divisions of the PNS

A

sensory (afferent) and efferent

905
Q

what is the sensory (afferent) division of PNS

A

action potential to brain

906
Q

what is the efferent division of PNS

A

brain command to action potential

907
Q

what are the motor divisions of pns

A

somatic and autonomic

908
Q

what is the somatic nervous system

A

conscious control of skeletal muscle

909
Q

what is the function of the autonomic nervous system

A

regulated smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

910
Q

what are the two subdivisions of the autonomic division

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

911
Q

where are antagonistic divisions connected to in brain

A

medulla

912
Q

what is the communicating messenger of the parasympathetic division

A

acetylcholine

913
Q

what is the parasympathetic division associated with

A

rest and digestion

914
Q

what division of autonomic are cranial nerves

A

parasympathetic

915
Q

what division are skeletal nerves

A

sympathetic

916
Q

what does the sympathetic division promote

A

promotes activity

917
Q

what are the 5 major regions of the brain

A

cerebrum, diencephalon, pons, medulla, cerabellum

918
Q

what is the cerebrum associated with

A

intellect- complex processing

919
Q

what are the two regions of the diencephalon

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

920
Q

what is the diencephalon associated with

A

decision making

921
Q

what is the cerabellum associated with

A

coordination of motion

922
Q

what is the pons associated with

A

control of breathing

923
Q

what is the medulla associated with

A

cardiovascular, digestion, respiratory

924
Q

what are the two potential types the resting membrane potential can produce

A

action potential and graded potential

925
Q

what is graded potential

A

potential dissipates as it travels the axon

926
Q

when would a mammal neron use graded potential

A

when they lack sodium channels

927
Q

what kind of dynamic does water balance and excretion have

A

housekeeping dynamic

928
Q

why is water balanced

A

remove excess ions, water, nitrogenous wastes

929
Q

what are the structural elements of water balance

A

epithelial sheets for for gas exchange and epithelial tubules for removal

930
Q

what are the special junctions in water balance

A

verts have tight junctions, inverts have septate junctions

931
Q

what are the key processes in water balance

A

pressurized filtration, active and passive transport

932
Q

how do animals combat excretory organs being energy expensive

A

many mitochondria in structures

933
Q

why is ammonia turned into urea or uric acid

A

if body doesnt have enough water to flush it through then ammonia is highly toxic

934
Q

what is an osmolyte

A

systemic chemical agent to balance osmotic regulation

935
Q

what happens when too much urea in system

A

can cause unfolding of proteins

936
Q

what stabilizes urea

A

TMAO

937
Q

what does pronephros kidney filter

A

coelomic fluid

938
Q

what does mesonephros filter

A

nephrons filter blood directly

939
Q

what is unique of metanephros kidney

A

concentrate urine to remove excess salts

940
Q

what do the cortex and medulla of kidney do

A

filter blood producing waste

941
Q

what does renal pelvis and ureter do

A

remove waste fluid

942
Q

what is the most common type of nephron

A

cortical

943
Q

what is the most important type of neuron

A

juxtamedullary

944
Q

how thick is a nephron

A

1 cell thick

945
Q

what important structures are found in the renal cortex

A

bowmans capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule

946
Q

what important structure is found in the renal medulla

A

loop of henle

947
Q

what is another name for bowmans capsule

A

glomerular capsule

948
Q

what is found in bowmans capsule

A

30 capillaries (glomerulus)

949
Q

what does the lumen of bowmans capsule allow for

A

allows fluid to move through nephron

950
Q

what tubule dives into the renal medulla

A

proximal convoluted tubule

951
Q

what are the two epithelium types of the loop of henle

A

descending is simple squamos, ascending is cuboidal or columnar

952
Q

what is the typical urine output of a human in a day

A

1.5 to 2L/day

953
Q

what is the direction of movement in bowmans capsule

A

afferent arteriole to glomerulus to efferent arteriole

954
Q

what do peritubular capillaries do

A

pick up recovered materials (ex salts)

955
Q

what does the vasa recta do

A

recovers mostly water

956
Q

what is the usual pressure in the golerulus

A

60mmHg

957
Q

how much can the glomerulus filter

A

100mL/min

958
Q

what are the cells of bowmans capsule

A

podocytes

959
Q

what does exercising do to the kidneys

A

decreased the amount of filtration because blood directed elsewhere

960
Q

what part of nervous system feeds glomerulus

A

sympathetic nervous system

961
Q

what enzyme is released by the juxtamedulary

A

renin

962
Q

what does the juxtamedullary help determine

A

blood volume

963
Q

increased filtrate flow equals ___ blood pressure

A

increased

964
Q

what does renin do

A

activates angiotensinogen

965
Q

what is angiotensinogen

A

its a vasoconstrictor

966
Q

what is the number 1 site of reabsorption in kidneys

A

PCT site (primary convoluted tubule)

967
Q

how much does PCT (primary convoluted tubule)reabsorb

A

65% volume and 100% many solutes

968
Q

what process does PCT use to reabsorb solutes

A

active transport

969
Q

what process does PCT use to reabsorb water

A

passive transport

970
Q

when does active secretion occur

A

when elimination needs exceed filtration

971
Q

what two systems participate in secretion

A

DCT and CD

972
Q

what are the key ions what are secreted

A

K H, NH3

973
Q

what hormone influences reabsorption of sodium

A

aldosterone

974
Q

what is atrial natiuretic hormone

A

used to treat high blood pressure (changes blood volume)

975
Q

what produces aldosterone

A

adrenal gland

976
Q

the thyroid gland produces calcitonin, what does calcitonin do

A

reduces blood calcium (hyper) (stop absorption by PCT)

977
Q

in the parathyroid gland is parathormone, what does it do

A

increase blood calcium (hypo) (helps reabsorption by PCT)

978
Q

what osmo concentration is cortex vs blood

A

isoosmotic

979
Q

what osmo concentration is medulla vs blood

A

hyperosmotic

980
Q

what can help with better water recovery in metanephric kidney

A

make loop of henle longer if want more water recovery

981
Q

what part of brain is water balance center

A

hypothalamus

982
Q

what are hormones controlled by

A

hypothalamus

983
Q

what is antidiuretic hormone

A

promotes water recovery (sequesters aquaporin)

984
Q

why would a fish want salt glands

A

supplemental ions (save Mg and Ca for when they need it)

985
Q

what is the purpose of cephalic salt glands in birds and reptiles

A

another way to remove salts (found in head)

986
Q

what is a filtration-reabsorption cell in some inverts

A

flame cells

987
Q

what do crustaceans have instead of kidneys

A

antennal gland

988
Q

what do insects have instead of kidneys

A

malpigian tubules

989
Q

what are the two cell types of malpigian tubules

A

principal cells and stellate cells

990
Q

how are aquaporins regulated in insects

A

hormones like leucokinin

991
Q

in short what is a malpigian tubule

A

osmotic gradient with water running through

992
Q

where are the malpigian tubules located

A

before the rectum

993
Q

what are the two main properties of muscles

A

excitable and contractile

994
Q

what aminals have skeletal muscle

A

annelids, arthropods, verts

995
Q

skeletal muscle is not ___

A

autorhythmic

996
Q

what is acetylcholine

A

universal communicator for motor neurons

997
Q

how many myofibers in cytoskeletal cell

A

6-10

998
Q

how much calcium is stores in muscles

A

1000x more than whats in cytoplasm

999
Q

what is a motor unit

A

1 motor unit and the muscle fiber it commands

1000
Q

what is the sarcolema

A

plasma membrane of muscle cell

1001
Q

what is released when a muscle contracts

A

calcium

1002
Q

what is myocin

A

protein motor

1003
Q

what do myofilaments compose

A

myofibrils

1004
Q

what is titin used for

A

anchoring protein

1005
Q

what is fond along thin filament at intervals

A

tropomyosin

1006
Q

who discovered mechanism of muscle tissue

A

hodgkin and huxley

1007
Q

what is cross bridge cycling

A

conformational changes in myosin head

1008
Q

how long does it take to contract one muscle

A

60ms

1009
Q

what does ATP do in muscle contraction

A

maintains membrane excitability

1010
Q

what causes muscle fatigue

A

inorganic phosphate in muscle tissue

1011
Q

what does depolarization trigger in muscle cells

A

voltage gated calcium channels open so calcium moves to sarcoplasm

1012
Q

calcium of muscle cells binds to what

A

troponin

1013
Q

calcium released from muscle cells is suboptimal, what does this mean

A

wont get maximum contraction

1014
Q

how can you make muscle cells contract with more vigor

A

add more calcium

1015
Q

what are white fast twitch glycolytic fibers

A

high power, high fatigue

1016
Q

what are red slow twitch oxidative fibers

A

less power but far less fatigue

1017
Q

which of the fibers is aerobic

A

red slow twitch oxidative fibers

1018
Q

where are fast twitch fibers used

A

locomotion muscles

1019
Q

where are slow twitch muscles used

A

posture or breathing muscles

1020
Q

what are asynchronous muscles

A

in flight muscles in insects

1021
Q

what do asynchromous musces do

A

cause neighboring muscles to stretch and contract for rapid muscle movement

1022
Q

what is starlings law

A

moderate stretch

1023
Q

what is an isotonic muscle

A

one end of muscle freely moves

1024
Q

what is an isometric muscle

A

contract internally with tendon attachment

1025
Q

what does the motor cortex in cerebrum do

A

decided how strong a contraction of muscle will be

1026
Q

when can you have maximum strength output

A

when all muscle cells are being used

1027
Q

what is summation/tetanus

A

superimposed contaction cycles

1028
Q

what is a twitch contraction

A

muscle gets a single stimulus and group of muscles react