animal final Flashcards
what is physiology
functional dynamics in living things
what are the levels of biological organization
biochemical, cellular, organ, systemic, organismal
what did aristotle observe
natural processes within bodies
what two people studied physiology with a connection to medicine
galen and harvey
anatomical studies lead to speculation about____
function
when did galen live
2nd century rome
what did galen postulate
flow dynamics of blood in human body
who studied medicine in early experimental investigations (post medieval)
william harvey
when did william harvey live
17th century
what did william harvey prove
refuted galens direction of blood flow through study of cardiovascular system
what processes affect the internal environment of an organism
temperature, ph, ion levels
what can affect membrane/protein structures in an organism
changes in the internal environment
how can reaction dynamics be affected in the internal environment
by changes in the internal environment via kinetic energy
why is a stable internal environment vital for organisms
to maintain constant internal conditions
what regualtes internal conditions
homeostasis
why is the father of physiology
c. bernard
when did bernard live
19th century france
what did bernard do
work on renal and cardiovascular systems emphasizing internal environment
what are two ways body parameters can be compromised
external environmental changes, internal generated changes
what are some external environmental changes
temperature, solutes
what are some examples of internally generated changes
rest vs exercise, eating vs fasting
what are additional complications to compromised body parameters
disturbance length, conform or regulate
what is a conformer
parameter changes with the environment, no homeostasis
what is a regulator
regulate against environmental changes until some extreme limit is reached
what is circumstantial regulation
animal itself is both a conformer and a regulator depending on the observed parameter
what is an example of a circumstantial regulator
salmon conform to temperature but regulates chloride ion concentration
what limits the ability of an organism to resist a change
compromised body parameters
what is the genomic perspective on evolutionary physiology
look at variability within the population, that variability is material for evolution to operate on
traits of evolution are programmed by ___
genetics
what is evolutionary physiology based on population genetics
morphological variation versus genetic variation
what is morphological variation
easily recognizable, involves allelic differences
why does genetic variation exist
because of allele differences within and between populations
why studied physiological genomics
t. garland
what about physiological genomics did t. gardland study
disease susceptibility, establishment of adaptive traits
what is a negative feedback system
constant monitoring of a controlled parameter that minimizes deviation from pet point giving stability of a parameter
why studied cybernetics
w. cannon
what about cybernetics did w. cannon study
regulatory system operation, constant monitoring of controlled parameter
what is a sensor
keeps tabs on regulated paramter
what parameter does a sensor usually keep tabs on
often more than one nerve cell or other neural component
what is the control center
usually in the brain to interpret parameter information and compare to a set point
what is the effector/inverting amplifier
deliver output to modify parameter value, minimizing deviation from set point to yield stability
what is a fever
elevated temperature set point
what is a positive feedback system
response augments deviation from set point
what is an example of a positive feedback
ap generation and blood clotting
what does it mean that duration of activity and level of change is tightly controlled in positive feedback systems
there is a maximum level that causes rapid termination before it gets out of control
what is a positive feedback operation
effector evokes change in the same direction as the parameter
what is a servomechanism
operation may entail negative feedback, set point not fixed over a short period of time
what effect can a servomechanism have
rapid error sensing and output corrections become critical with instantaneous changes being made
when does servomechanism occur
in skeletal muscle during locomotion (rapidly changing levels in strength output, muscle length, point position)
what is metabolism
all chemical dynamics within an organism and the regulation of certain parameters
ATP production =____
cellular respiration
what are the 4 ways to measure whole animal metabolism
heat production/calorimetry
o2 consumption
co2 production
respiratory quotient
what is calorimetry
heat liberated when breaking down substances and making ATP
how do you measure calorimetry
calorimeter
what is a calorimeter
system isolated from external envinroment that is well insulted
what is o2 consumption in terms of animal metabolism
measuring the loss of o2 in environment and resulting pressure changes
how can o2 consumption be measured
indirectly through manometry or directly
how do you measure co2 production in animal metabolism
directly measure with equipment
what is the respiratory quotient
ratio of amounts of co2 produced divided by the amount of o2 used (co2prod/o2used)
what can the respiratory quotient show
the fuel source of the organism and also gives insight about diet and nutritional status
what is the rq for carbs
1
what is the rq for proteins/ amino acids
0.8-0.9
what is the rq for fatty acids
0.7
what is the fasting rq
1
what is the principle source of body heat
temperature regulation
what is endothermy
use elevated level of metablosm to produce most of needed body heat
what organisms are endotherms
mammals and birds
what are the ecological tradeoffs for endothermy
activity versus food intake
what did else and hulbert study
lizard vs mammal/bird
what were the major findings from else and hulberts lizard vs mammal/bird study
the body composition differences, cellular consideration differences,
what is the difference in body composition between endo and ectotherms
endo tissues form a larger percent of body mass (larger liver, larger heart, more muscle)
what are the cellular differences between endo and ectotherms
endotherms have more mitochondira in cells and a greater oxidative capacity
what are the ATP differences between endo and ectotherms
both have same ATP pools, but endotherms have a higher ATP turnover
what are the differences in plasma membranes in endo vs ectotherms
endotherm plasma membranes much leakier to sodium and hydrogen
what is the benefit of having leaky plasma membranes
it gives excess heat production because fighting against leaks by using ATP, the generation of the ATP produces heat needed by endotherms
working muscle increases the usage of ___
ATP
what is the ideal response to working muscle
constant low o2 consumption at rest, jumps sharply to higher o2 level at exercise, drops sharply to lower level of o2 consumption at rest
what is the actual response to working muscle
progressive rise in o2 consumption to a sustained level, but an o2 defecit with develop
what does o2 levels rise in proportion to
intensity of activity
what is EPOC
(excess postexercise oxygen consumption) oxygen debt repayment to correct biochemical disturbances caused by exercise
why is the best case of oxygen consumption not what is observed
because early stages of exercise require anaerobic metabolism before aerobic metabolism is able to kick in which causes a defecity of o2
what happens to o2 consumption during intense exercise
exceeds aerobic capacity so anaerobiosis becomes vital
what does anaerobic metabloism cause
fatigue, especially over time
what does maximal aerobic exercise do
elevates resting metabolic rate by 5-15 fold
why can mammals use aerobic metabolism longer than any other animal
because ATP production is better supported
what is supramaximal exercise
above maximum aerobic capacity (huge defecit (EPOC) to correct)
what is energy metabolism
sustainable production of ATP in order to maintain activity (ATP fuelds muscle machinery)
in glycolysis how many ATP are produced for one glucose molecule
2 atp/glucose
glycolysis is a high flux pathway, what does this mean
a lot of fuel can go through this process quickly
where is glycolysis occurring
cytoplasm
what builds up in cells during glycolysis
pyruvic acid
what happens to pyruvic acid in cells
some goes through pyruvate oxidation, the rest is converted to lactic acid
what happens when lactic acid is formed
NAD supply is depleted and glycolysis bottle necks encouraging lactic acid formation to help rebalance the NAD supply
what is the only fuel for direct use in the glycolysis pathway
glucose
what happens if you dont have glucose and you need to undergo glycolysis
gluconeogenesis to synthesize glucose from other sources
what are the downsides to using glycolysis
low efficiency, quick fatigue
why does fatigue occur in glycolysis
because of free inorganic phosphate
what is the intermediate level of aerobic metabolism driven by
glucose/glycogen
what are prolonged exercises better supported by
fatty acids
what is the major source for ATP production in the beginning of exercise
glucose from muscle glycogen
what is the source of ATP production in long term exercise
glucose from blood and fatty acids
____ have better aerobic metabolism
endotherms
what is the aerobic scope for insects
50-200x increase in aerobic metabolism from resting level
what does lactate dehydrogenase do
converts pyruvic acid to lactic acid
what is the clash effect
should i conform or should i regulate
whats an example of a standard morphological variation
eye colour differences in humans
whats an example of physiological variation within a population
some individuals of same species and same population can show differences in things like oxygen consumption
whats an example of genetic diversity of a species
a species can have different traits based on external factors. ex field mice size in canada versus mexico
what is manometry used for
indirectly measuring O2 consumption
describe a basic calorimeter
animal in shell, shell surrounded by ice, animals body melts ice and basin below shells collects water for measurement of melt per minute
why is endothermy not preferred
high activity needs high food intake (very fuel expensive)
what are some cellular differences in endotherms versus ectotherms
endotherms have more mitochondria due to higher need to generate ATP
what are some other smaller enzyme pathways for reactions
energy of activation, substrate to product, induced fit (pyruvic acid to lactic acid)
what does maude menten graph show
reaction velocity over substrate concentration
describe maude menten graph
exponental
what is Vmax (maude menten)
maximum rate of catalysis (saturation)
what is Km (maude menten)
substrate cencentration needed to reach half vmax (half max rate catalysis)
What is glycogenesis
Glucose from non-carbs
what are some physical features required for gas exchange in animals
large surface area, thin layer, well vascularized
what are the main types of gas exchange in animals
cutaneous, gills, lungs, tracheal system
what is a gill
evagination of body surface (can be external or internal)
whats the difference between external and internal gills
internal gills have a flap over them, external gills are exposed to the environment
what are lungs
sac-like invagination of body surface
what are tracheal systems
tubular invaginations from body surface
what is the advantage of respiratory systems
ready diffusion of O2 and CO2
whats a disadvantage of respiratory systems
rapid exchange with water/atmosphere can disturb body fluid composition
if body fluid composition is disturbed what can happen to an organism
can lead to edema
what is edema
fluid build up
how does O2 and CO2 move across a respiratory organ
diffusion or bulk flow
what is the difference between diffusion and bulk flow
diffusion is by concentration gradients, bulk flow is by a pressure gradient
what is key to ventilation of respiratory organs
bulk flow
why is it critical to move oxygen along a boundary layer
if you dont then a layer of hypoxia will occur and tissues can die. needs to be an exchange of o2 in and out of boundary layer
what kind of respiratory organs do most insects have
multiple tubular invaginations
what is a boundary layer
a layer of stagnant fluid (o2 and co2) along a gas exchange membrane (separates external and internal membranes)
what kinds of organisms use a tracheal system for respiration
insects and some arthropods
describe in short the anatomy of the tracheal system
tubular invaginations at body surface (spiracles) with diaphragms, with smaller tracheoles to deliver and remove gasses
how many spiracles are common on insects and arthropods
12
what is the diameter of tracheoles
0.5 micrometers
what is the function of a diaphragm with spiracles
diaphragm covers spiracle to control whats coming in and going out
what is the transport methods in a tracheal system
diffusion (works well for small organisms)
ventilation (works great for large organisms)
where are spiracles found on the body of insects and arthropods
found on thorax and abdomen
how does ventilation in large insects work
air sacs near spiracle, abdominal movements create pressure gradients and bulk flow (allow to draw air in and out at different rates)
why is simple diffusion not good enough for larger insects
not enough o2 in air to support movement with simple diffusion, too large of a surface area
how does a tracheal system work in water insects
many have a plastron
how does a plastron work
it acts as a gill for the organism. o2 from water can go into the air bubble due to concentration gradient in water and bubble
what organisms have a cutaneous gas exchange
amphibians, invertebrates (worms, cnidarians)
what is required of an organism for cutaneous gas exchange
large, thin, well vascularized surface area (surface area is generally the epidermis)
what are some major issues with cutaneous gas exchange
mechanical protection issues, can dry out, little control on exchange rate, boundary layer issues
what is the epidermal thickness in cutaneous gas exchange
one cell thick or a few cells thick epidermis
what gas exchange does a hellbender have
lungs and cutaneous gas exchange depending on what environment its in
how can an organism increase surface area if it uses cutaneous gas exchange
it can make fleshy folds to increase surface area
how does a hellbender remove a boundary layer thats been created from being in stagnent water
starts to rock itself to make a small current
what is the gas exchange method of amphibians
most amphibians have multiple gas exchange method
what is a bird respiratory system
numerous air sacs through body connected by passageways
what are the primary sets of air sacs in avian respiration
cranial and caudal air sacs
the lungs of a bird are honeycombed with what
tubules (parabronchi)
what induces volume change of fluid in avian respiration
muscular movements of ribs and sternum
what is the direction of airflow if avian reduces pressure
reduced pressure allows air inflow
what is the direction of airflow if avian increased pressure
increased pressure moves air out
how many cycles of air flow do avians have
two unidirectional air flow in parabronchi (2 volumes at once)
why is it significant to have two cycles of air flow in avian
reduced dilution with old air, keeps air fresh in lungs and more oxygen rich
why is it significant that avian bloodflow is crosscurrent with airflow
gives high level of oxygenation in low environmental oxygen
what part of the avian respiratory system is vascularized
air sacs not really vascularized, vascularization happens in the parabronchi between the anterior and posterior air sacs
why is it significant that avian capilaries are cross current
gives longer exposure to air so it gives a better gas exchange (vital when in low oxygen environment–like the sky)
what is the bony structure in birds that creates vocalization
syrinx
what is the syrinx synonemous with in humans
larynx
the syrinx has membrane like vocal chords, how can these produce different pitch
they can extend or retract the length of the chord to produce different sound
when one hears a bird song who are they typically hearing
typically small male birds trying to attract a mate
where is the syrinx located
at the base of the trachea
how can birds change the length of their “vocal chords”
head and neck movements
why does the size of a beak matter in bird vocalization
beak size is correlated to speed of movement and song dynamic
do small or large birds have more complex vocalizations
small birds have more complex
simply what is an amphibian lung
simple sac with moderate surface area elaboration
what kind of pressure inflation do reptile lungs have
positive pressure
are amphibian or reptile lungs more complex
reptile are more complex
what kind of pressure dynamic do most vertebrate lungs have
most vertebrate lungs have a negative pressure system
what is a negative pressure dynamic
use bucal cavity to push air into lungs creating a positive pressure (bucal cavity contracts pushing air positively into lungs)
what animal has one functional lung
snakes within reptiles (other lung is vestigial)
how do reptiles compensate for exchange since the integument doesnt have any meaningful O2 exchange
have more sacculations in their lungs to increase surface area without necessarily creating a bigger lung
what is a faveoli
a sac within the lungs of reptiles
where is the most sacculation (faveoli) in the lungs of snakes
primarily in first 1/3 of the snakes lung (1st 1/3 cranially)
what does the last 2/3 of the snake lung act as
acts as bellows which activates pressure cycles
what is a bellows
an area that allows contraction or expansion
how does a snake lung act as a bellows
old air in last 2/3 of lung is pushed towards outward creating an inner pull for new air to come in
all amphibians have sacculated lungs, why
to increase surface area and increase gas exchange
what is a thoracic cavity
present in mammalian lungs, pleural space, drained by lymphatic system)
simply what are mammalian lungs
paired lungs with lobes
how is air modified before coming into the lungs
air is conditioned to make it wetter, warmer, and cleaner
where is the diaphragm
below the lungs
how many lobes does a human heart have
5
why is there no gas exchange on the conduction zone
its too thick
why is gas exchange possible in the respiratory zone
because of millions of microscopic bubble like alveoli
what does the respiratory tree begin with
trachea that is superior to the thoracic cavity
the respiratory tree has successive branching, what are the main types of branching here
generations and alveoli
how many generations are there in mammalian lungs
23 (0-16 conducting zone, 17-23 respiratory zone)
what causes branchiolar constriction
smooth muscle walls of middle passagewats
what was branchiolar constriction
reduced airflow
what kind of constriction is present in asthma
hyperconstriction
how many alveoli are in the lungs
300 million
when would you use nearly all of the alveoli
when exercising
what surface area does 300 million alveoli create
85m^2 surface area
why do overweight individuals have a higher chance of having asthma
adipocytes release lung imflammatory protein (fatter you are, 3x more protein released and inflammation causes asthma)
what promotes relaxation and increased airflow of bronchioles when having asthma attack
sympathetic division with epinephrine
when would the bronchioles change in diameter
when they are inflammed they close up (asthma), when theyre relaxed theyre open
as the diameter of the bronchioles increases, the resistence of fluid movement ….
decreases
what affects the fluid movement of air in the bronchioles
tubule length and diameter
what is the size of a single alveolus
300microns
the main wall of the alveolus is made of what kind of cells
simple squamosal
what are the type 1 epithelial cells
main all of alveolus
what are the type 2 epithelial cells
between successive alveoli, secretory mitochondria
what are secretory mitochondria
lamellated bodies
what do secretory mitochindria produce
surfactant (dipalmitoyl lecithin)
what does a lack of surfactant (dipalmitoyl lecithin) cause
can cause respiratory distress syndrome in children
what do fibroblasts do
build connective tissue
what do macrophages do
remove pathogens (defensive function)
what kind of cells are type 2 epithelial cells
cuboidal
whats the function of surfactant
reduces cohesion of water molecules, reducing surface tension
what is the function of fibrocartilage in alveoli
ribrocartilage helps to keep alveoli open so gas exchange can continue
what are ventilation dynamics
pressure volume changes (tissue fluid pressure in pleural cavity)
why is tissue fluid pressure in pleural cavity higher than lung pressure
without the pressure difference lungs can collapse (pneumothorax)
what is the pressure difference between pleural cavity and lungs during inhalation
3-4mmHg
what is the pressure difference bwteen pleural cavity and lungs during exhalation
1-2mmHg difference from exhalation
what is pneumothorax
when pressure between pleural cavity and lung is compromised, lung collapses and pleural cavity fills with air
what forces lungs to move involuntarily
diaphragm will be activated to contract
what direction do intercostals move
outward and up
how much CO2 is in the body at all times
about 40mmHg
how much CO2 is in the environment usually
about 100mmHg
is inspiration or expiration always an active process
inspiration is ALWAYS an active process
what are the types of volume changes
inhalation and exhalation
how does inspiration happen
cavity boundaries expand and lung follows
how does exhalation happen
cavity boundaries recoil, lungs follow
how can exhalation be active or passive
passive because elastic recoil can force air from lungs, active because muscles (intercostals, rectus abdominus) can force air out of lungs
what is anatomical dead space
the residual volume of air in lungs that cannot be forced out
how much oxygen is found in alveoli
100mmHg
how much oxygen is found in environment
160mmHg
what is the exchange time to equilibrate blood to lung air
about 1/4 of a second
what is the resting transit time to equilibrate blood to lung air
about 3/4 of a second
what is the exercise transit time to equilibrate blood to lung air
about 1/3 of a second.
equilibrating blood to lung air is a feature of which type of epithelial cells
type 1 epithelial cells
elephants lack a pleural cavity, how do they keep their lungs from collapsing
lungs are tethered open
what is west’s argument for elephant lungs being tethered open
evolved for snorkeling behavior, water compression would otherwise collapse the lungs
what is elasticity
readily recoils to original shape
what is compliance
stretches easily
when is elasticity and compliance opposite of each other
at extreme ends of the spectra (if excessively elastic then lose compliance and vice versa)
what are obstructive lung diseases
COPD and asthma
what is COPD
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
how is COPD caused
cigarettes, volatile chemicals get in the middle of the respiratory tree and causes imflammation that can lead to emphazema meaning air cant get to alveoli because air tubing was blown apart, non reparable
what do obstructive lung diseases do
increase airway resistance
what do restrictive lung diseases do
increase elasticity of lungs
whats an example of a restrictive lung disease
fibrotic lung disease
how does fibrotic lung disease work
air bourse particles not being filtered out so they go in conductive or respiratory zone, tubercles are made in defense where fibroblasts trap off that part of the lung eventually reducing lung capacity
what does VC=
VC=TVr+IRV+ERV
what is vc
vital capacity
what is tvr
tidal volume resting
what is irv
inspiratory reserve volume
what is erv
expiratory reserve volume
what is vital capacity
maximum amount of air that can move through lungs
what is the typical total lung capacity
around 4-6L
what is vital capacity volume
3-5L
what is residual volume typically
1L
what is residual volume
excess air in lungs that cant be pushed out
what is tidal volume
amount of air moved in a breathing cycle
what is a typical tidal volume at rest
about 500ml
what is a typical inspiratory reserve
3L
what is a typical expiratory reserve
1L
inspiratory and expiratory each have their own ___ potantial
pacemaker
what is the purpose of increasing depth and rate of breathing for tetrapod vertebrates
maintaining hemoglobin saturation of O2 and CO2
what does branchiolar dialation do
lowers resistance
where in the brain is breathing controlled
medulla oblongata
what does the VRG of the medulla have
inspiratory and expiratory neurons
what does the DRG of the medulla have
modifies VRG activity
where does the pacemaker potention of inspiration and expiration happen
in the medualla
what are chemoreceptors
nerve endings involved in tissue chemistry
how do mammals regulate their breathing
through chemoreceptors
what is the driving dynamic in terrestrial animals
mostly CO2 and in turn pH
what is the driving dynamic in fish
o2
why does ph change as co2 changes in a driving dynamic of terrestrial animals
as hydrogen ions increases ph drops, in turn as co2 increases ph drops
what does driving dynamic affect? (the driving dynamic of)
blood and cerebral spinal fluid chemistry
what happens when not enough o2 coming into organism (too much co2 within)
hypoventilation
what happens when too much o2 comes in (not enough co2 within)
hyperventilation
what is the function of a stretch receptor
sets limit on inhalation
when can o2 be the driving dynamic in terrestrial animals
if o2 in body low enough it can become the driving dynamic
what conditions can cause o2 to be driving dynamic in terrestrial
emphazema, elevation (mountain sickness)
what is a secondary driving dynamic
driving dynamic that takes over when primary isnt most important anymore (ex. emphazema o2)
what does the pons in the brain affect
breathing rythem
why are higher brain centers like the pons required
needed for controlling rythm of breathing when swimming for exaplme
what is responsible for involuntary breathing
medulla
what are invertebrate gills common in
large bodied or more active aquatic invertebrates
what are some examples of invertebrates that have gills
crustaceans and polycheates
which invertebrates use gills on land
isopods
what are parapodia
fleshy extensions with large surface area used in locomotion and gas exchange (polycheates)
what are some examples of polycheates that use parapodia
sand worm and clam worm
what kind of gills do decapod crustaceans have
internal cavity
what are internal cavity gills
carapas covers the gills so its an evagination but its covered (similar to that of fish)
what kind of breathing do fish have
ram ventilation or buccal-opperculum pumping
what is ram ventilation
swim with the mouth open, water passes over the gills and goes out the gill slit
where are the fish gills
internalized in chamber adjoining the pharynx
what kind of fish have separate chambers for each gill
primitive fishes like hagfish and lampreys and condricthes
osteichthyes have a ____ to cover gills and make them more internalized
opperculum
what organ helps with osmoregulation and ion regulation in fishes
gills
what is buccal-operculum pumping
expand buccal-operculum cavity with operculum closed and mouth open (water flows in due to reduced pressure) then contract buccal operculum cavity with operculum valve open and mouth closed (forces water over gills and outside the body)
what kind of gas exchange dynamic do fish have
counter current dynamic
what is counter current exchange
water flows across gill epithelium from pharynx toward gill slit, blood flows through vessels in opposite direction
why is counter current gas exchnage good for fishes
blood hits increasing o2 levels keeping the blood very high in 02
what is internal transport in animals
cardiovascular systems of animals
why cant you call internal transport cardiovascular
because not all animals have blood vessels
what is the driving dynamic for internal transport
multicellularity, effecient transport, bulk flow dynamics
what are the components of internal transport system
hearts, vasculature, and blood
what is a heart
muscular pump generating pressure cycles with 2 major configurations
what are the two major configurations of a heart
chambered or tubular
what does it mean for a heart to be neurogenic
nerve cells trigger activation of the muscle
what heart type is usually associated with neurogenic
tubular heart
what is myogenic heart
special muscle tissue with pace maker function
what heart type is associated with myogenic
chambered hearts
what organisms usually have tubular hearts
arthropods
which heart type is best for active lifestyle
chambered (except in insects)
which heart type has a higher pressure and a higher flow rate
chambered hearts
what organisms have chambered hearts
vertebrates and cephalopods
what kind of contractions does a tubular heart have
peristaltic
what does it mean for vasculature to be open
very few vessels (more so extensions of the heart instead of strict vessels)
what does it mean for vasculature to be closed
can have some open cavities but have many blood vessels
where can you find an open cavity in the vasculature of vertebrates (closed)
in sinus of liver
what is the function of an artery
direct blood away from the heart
what are capillaries
uncountable microscopic vessels
how thick are capilaries
1 cell layer thickness
what is the function of capillaries
gas exchange occurs here since walls are thin enough
what is the function of veins
direct blood back to the heart
what is blood
moving fluid of plasma and formed elements
what is the historic name for blood
hemolymph
how much of blood is usually plasma
usually around 90%
what do atria recieve
they are recieving chambers for venous blood
the blood flow through body is focused about what
focused about gas exchange to support the aerobic needs of the organism
blood flows along ____
pressure gradient
when blood pressure levels increase the organism is in___
systole
when blood pressure levels decrease the organism is in ___
diastole
why does circulation in mammals have two circuits
to optimize oxygen delivery/co2 removal
what is the basic anatomy of the heart
RA LA RV LV
where does the pulmonary circuit flow from
RV to LA
where does the pulmonary trunk go to
pulmonary trunk to lungs to pulmonary veins
where does the systemic circuit flow from
LV to RA
what artery is associated with the systemic circuit
aorta
where does the aorta flow to
aorta to body to vena cava
which circuit (systemic or pulmonary) is stronger
systemic is 5x stronger than pulmonary (has to send blood further through body)
what happens if theres too much pressure in pulmonary
edema
what is edema
drowning in your own tissue fluids
what are the main muscles in the heart
superficial sinospiral, deep sinospiral, superficial bulbospiral
what do the muscles of the heart allow for
increased pressure
what are the valves of the heart
atrioventricular (bicuspid(mitral) and tricuspid), senilunar
what helps to stabilize valves when open and closing in heart
the chordae tensonae
when heart is relaxed what state is it in
diastole
when heart is contracting what state is it in
systole
what is the basic 4 step heart cycle
atrial systole ventricular diastole
ventricular systole atrial diastole
atrial diastole ventricular diastole
repeat
how does the heart cycle change when excercising
shorten the length of A and V diastole in step 3
how many heart beats per minute is average for a mammal
70 beats per minute
how long is atrial systole
0.1s
how long is ventricular systole
0.2s
how long is diastole
0.5 seconds
how much thicker is the left ventricle from the right ventrical
left ventrical is 3x thicker than right
what is the main function of a valve in a heart
to keep blood flowing in the correct direction
what side is the tricuspid valve on
on the right
what side is the mitral(bicuspid) valve on
on the left
what happens when the heart gets too muscular
hypertrophy
action potential in hearts has what two major phases
depolarization and repolarization
what is depolarization
cells become less negatively changed
what is repolarization
cells return to the RMP
who realized electrical field disturbance of heart can be masured at skin surface
willem einthoven
what is an EKG
electrocardiogram
what are the 3 pirnciple waves of the ekg
p wave, qrs wave, t wave
what is the p wave
depolarization of atria
what is the qrs wave
depolarization of ventricles
what is the t wave
repolarization of ventricles
what is the pr interval
transit time for action potential to go from sa node and through av node
what is pr segment
av delay
what is qt inerval
complete timeline of ventricular action potential
what is st segment
depolarization plateau
what is the function of einthovens triangle
shows where net electrical axis is for the heart
what is the electrical axis of the heart
mean direction of current flow
how do you determine the electrical axis of the heart
by comparing signal properties from 3 limbs
what is the first heart sound
closing of the atrial ventricular valve
what is the closing of the atrial ventricular valve
start of ventricular systole
what is the second heart sound
closing of the semi lunar vales
what does the closing of the semi lunar valves signal
end of ventricular systole
what is an EKG (ECG)
electrocardiogram
when are the semilunar valves open
only open when pressure in ventricles is higher than pressure in atria
what is the ejection phase
when pressure is enough to push blood through valves
what is the formula for how much blood is ejected in a heart cycle
EDV-ESV=Stroke volume
what is EDV
end diastolic volume
what is ESV
end systolic volume
what is diastasis
a brief situation where blood leaves ventricles even though atrial pressure is slightly higher
what is isovolumetric relaxation
semilunar valves close as vestricles relax
what is ventricular filling due to
due to inertia
when is passive return used
as long as atrial pressure is higher than ventricular pressure the atriaventricular valve will be open
which circuit is high pressure and which is low pressure
systemic is high, pulmonary is low
how much blood remains in atria at all times
around 40-50ml
what is the blood remaining in the atria
end systolic volume
what is the p wave
synchronous contraction of the left and right atria
what are the three steps to ventricular systole
isovolumetric contraction, ejection phase, diastasis (inertia)
what is ventricular diastole
isovolumetric relaxation
when is the atrioventricular valve open
during atrial systole, during ventricular filling
when is the atrioventricular valve closed
isoventricular contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation
when is the aortic valve open
ventricular ejection
during atrial systole the ventricles are already filled, why is blood still put into the ventricles
its a sort of topping off of the tank, its not a meaningful impact of the heart during rest
what is the p wave
atrial systole
what is the qrs wave
isovolumetric contraction
what is the t wave
ventricular ejection
what is end diastolic volume
maximum volume in ventricles when atria in systole
what is the approximate EDV
120ml
what is cardiac output
amount of blood pumped per unit time (L/min)
what is the approximate cardiac output for one circuit
5-6L/circuit of circulation
why does the amount of oxygen in the blood matter for aerobic organisms
to prevent hypoxia
how many liters of blood is pumped per minute for most adult humans
25-27 liters
what is stroke volume
amount of blood ejected per heart beat
how do you calculate cardiac output
HR x SV = CO
what is tachycardia
heart beating excessively fast, ventricles not able to fill before ejecting blood
whats the max amount of blood a human can pump in exercise
max is 35L for amazing athletes
what fold of increase can heart rate have at resting versus excercising
heart rate can have 3 fold increase
what fold of increase can stroke volume have at resting versus excercising
stroke volume can have 2 fold increase
what does HCN channels stand for
hyperpolarization activated cyclic nucleotides
what are HCN channels
different cyclic nucleotides when make k influx
what is the SA node RMP
-65mV
what is the myocardial cell RMP
-85mv
what are the excitable tissues of the heart
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, purkinje fibers
whats the reason to have myogenic specialized muscle tissue
to activate the heart and transfer action potential
where is the SA node
right atrium
what does SA stand for
sinoatrial
what kind of cells are in the SA node
cells that have autorythmisity (pacemaker potential)
what is a cellular pacemaker
cells spontaneously depolarizing
what does RMP stand for
resting membrane potential
what is RMP due to
K efflux
what is pacemaker potential driven by
sodium influx
what action potential do cells have in SA node
100 AP/min
where is the AV node
at the boundary between atria and ventricles
which node has a higher pacemaker potential
SA has higher
what is AV delay
0.05m/s
where do you get specialized conduction
bundle of His and purkinje fibers
what are the bundle of his and purkinje fibers
elongate cells specialized for rapid AP conduction
what is a rapid AP conduction value
5m/s
what are cells of node trying to act like
trying to act like axons
when are voltage gated calcium channels open
when SA node pacemaker potential has hit threshhold
what are between cardiac muscle cells
gap junctions
what do gap junctions allow for
ion transfer (electrical charge transfer)
what do inactive voltage gated sodium channels allow for
relaxation
what ensures relaxation
protractive repolarization
what does bundle of his and purkinje fibers cause
rapid depolarization of ventricles
what is the parasympathetic division
autonomic nervous system
what nerve is part of the parasympathetic division
vagus nerve
what number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve
10
what does the vagus nerve do
reduces the heart rate
what innervates the SA node and the myocardium
parasympathetic division
what reduces heart rate so diastole lasts longer
parasympathetic division
what causes HCN channels
cGMP
what does RMP reduction do
hyperpolarizes SA node
what does cGMP do
reduces cytoplasmic Ca
when does vagus activity decrease
when exercising
what nerve takes over when vagus is decreased
sympathetic
what does the sympathetic nerve give
norepinephrine mostly as a neurotransmitter (and a little bit of epinephrine)
when does calcium pool in the body
when heart beat increases
why does calcium pool with increased HR
not enough time in diastole to remove it
what does Na act as when calcium is pooling
acts as a cotransport agent
is the vagus nerve sympathetic is parasympathetic
parasympathetic
whats the major nerve in sympathetic
accelerator nerve
what does the sympathetic division do
releases norepinephrine, activates adrenal medulla to release epinephrine, increases HR
what is the fuction of an arteriole
regulate blood flow into tissue
how is fluid forced through capillaries
by filtration
why is filtration through capillaries important
its a way of moving material from blood to tissues
what is the function precapillary sphinter
regulate blood flow into a tissue
what does a precapillary sphinter consist of
a bulb at the end of a capillary that controls blood flow into capillaries
what is the difference between veno and vasoconstriction
vaso in artery veno in veins
what is the function of a vein
returns blood to the heart
what about the internal anatomy of a vein is large
the lumen is large
what does it mean that some veins have one way stop valves
have cup shaped valves to close and stop the flow of blood
is artery or vein system high pressure
artery is high pressure, vein is low pressure
what changes about the resistance in venoconstriction versus venodilation
the resistance levels do not change in veins
what kind of input controls venodilation or venoconstriction
sympathetic input
what controls venodilation or venoconstruction
CV center in the medulla
what is impacted most by venodilation and venoconstriction
resevoir capacity
what is venoconstriction
descrease resevoir, increase venous return
what is venodilation
increase resevoir, decrease venous return
which veno has the lower sympathetic activity
venodilation
how do veins have a low resistance
due to large lumen
what is a change in venous return correlated with in the heart
end diastolic volume
what are vericose veins due to
degredation of valves in veins
what increases venous return
venoconstriction
when is venoconstriction increased
when exercising
where is the majority of systemic blood located in the body
in the venous system
when is the majority of the blood not in the veins
when exercising (need to remove more co2 and bring in o2)
why can capillaries have a very small portion of blood
because they have a huge surface area to allow for gas exchange dynamics
surface area is directly proportional to _______
flow rate
what is the function of a peristaltic pump
continuous cycles
what has largest overall influence in blood pressure
diastole
what would the mean value for resting be if 120 and 80 and why
it would be 90 because diastole is more influential than systole
why are mammalian RBC shaped weird
due to endotermic needs due to oxygen demands that are critical for endothermy
how much of vertebrate blood is made of up formed elements
10-50%
what are the 3 cellular fractions to vertebrate blood
red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets
what is the dominant formed element in vertebrates
red blood cells
how many hemoglobin molecules are found in one RBC
270 million
what vertebrate fish lacks hemoglobin
channichthyidae
what carbon derivative is in red blood cells
carbonic anhydrase
how many RBC are in adult human
20-30 trillian (4-5million per cubic mm)
what happens to RBC when they mature
they eject their nucleus and become anucleate
what is the proper name for the shape of RBC
biconcave
what is the function of WBC
defense, phagocytosis (5 types)
what is the function of platelets
hemostasis
what are the two most common names for blood
blood or hemolymph
what is blood/hemolymph
circulating fluid in cardiovascular system
what is the common slang term for RBC
little bags of hemoglobin
what is the purpose of carbonic anhydrase
gas transport in blood
what does carbon anhydrase catalyze
the reaction of water and carbon dioxide to produce carbonic acid
how do channichthyidae function without hemoglobin
use o2 in extracellular fluid in blood
what is another name for a platelate
thrombocyte
what does it mean that platelets work in hemostassi
they have mechanisms to stop blood loss
what is the order of formed elements in abundancy
most is RBC, platelete, then WBC is least abundant
what is the life span of an erythrocyte
100-120 days
what is another name for an erythrocyte
RBC
what engulfs dying RBC and where
macrophages in the spleen
what is the function of the spleen
resevoir for RBC and the removal site needed for recycling of organic elements
when an erythrocyte is destroyed what happens
heme and globin are separated, iron reused
what happens to the heme upon degredation
heme degraded to bilirubin (yellow)
where is bilirubin secreted from and to
secreted from liver into into bile for intestines
what is the body of feces
stercobilin
what happens to globin when RBC degraded
metabolized into amino acids
how is globin broken down for amino acid use
broken down by hydrolysis
what is anemia
blood has abnormally low o2 carrying capacity
what does it mean that in anemia blood has a low o2 carrying capacity
blood levels cant support normal aerobic metablism
what are the symptoms of anemia
fatigue, pleness, shortness of breath, chills
anemia is a ___ not a ____
symptom, disease
what produces new formed elements
bone marrow
what are the three kinds of anemia due to insufficient RBC
hemolytic, aplastic, hemorrhagic
what is hemolytic anemia
RBC repture in blood rpematurely
what is aplastic anemia
destruction or inhibition of red bone marrow
what is hemorrhagic anemia
acute or chronic loss of blood
when does acute blood loss occur
something sudden like an accident
when does chronic blood loss occur
gradual over time like an ulcer or a tumour
what are the causes for hemolytic anemia
genetic or parasitic
what is genetic hemolytic anemia
athallocemia
what parasite causes hemolytic anemia
malaria (protozoic: proliferate in RBC and burst RBC to hatch and spread youth)
what is an example of how aplastic anemia happens
excessive exposur to radiation
what are the two kind of anemia due to low Hb production
iron deficiency, pernicious
when can iron deficiency anemia occur
as a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia or due to inadequite intake of iron containing foods, impaired iron absorption
what can cause iron absorpton to be impaired
chrons disease
when can pernicious anemia happen
not enough b12, tapeworm
how do you treat pernicious anemia
b12 injection or application of nascobal
why is anemia an issue
iron holds the oxygen in the blood and prevents enough packing of hemoglobin into RBC
what diseases result from abnormal hb structure
thalassemias and sickle-cell
what is thalassemias
absent or faulty globin chain
what is sickle-cell
crystalization dynamic causes shape change. crystalization due to defective gene code makes cells sickle shaped when in low o2
where are hemocytoblasts produced
bone marrow
what is the production of RBC called
erythropoieses
what regulates production of RBC
glycoprotein hormone ERYTHROPOIETIN
where is erythropoietin made
kidneys
what is the name for the production of WBC
leukopoiesis
when does leukemia happen
abnormality in production of WBC
what is the term for the production of all formed elements
hematopoiesis
what kind of feedback dynamic is erythropoiesis
negative feedback dynamic
what is the primary component of blood
plasma
how much of blood is made of plasma
50-90%
what is plasma
water containing dissolved and suspended solutes
what makes up 80% of the solute in plasma
na and k
what is the most abundant organic compound in plasma
glucose
why are albumins needed in plasma
transport and osmotic pressure. brings fluid out of tissues from capillaries to prevent edema
what is the proper name for blood in insects and other invertebrates
hemolymph
waht percent of hemolymph is plasma
90%
what are the 4 formed elements in hemolymph
prohemocytes, plasmocytes, granulocytes, coagulocytes
what are prohemocytes
stem cells that can turn into other formed elements where needed
what are plasmocytes
phagocytes
what are granulocytes
store proteins and release srategically where and when needed
what are coagulocytes
act kind of like platelets. they rupture and trigger hemostasis
how did we measure solute concentration
measured freezing point depression using an osmometer
the more solute the ___ freezign point depression
greater
what is the freezing point of salt water
-1.86
what is an osmole
1000mmoles/L
how does an osmometer measure freezing point depression
measured kinetic energy given off from supercooling of sample
invertebrate plasma is mostly what
water (not much formed elements)
what kind of invertebrates have a higher concentration of ions in their plasma
insects have higher ion concentrations
what are the elements besides formed elements in insect blood
inrganic ions, organic ions, proteins
what is an example of an ion invertebrates have a lot of
inverts have 10-15x more K than verts (40-50mM)
insects have more ______ ____ in relation to vertebrates
inorganic ions
herbivore insects have lower ____ ratios
Na/K
what are the most abundant organic ions in insects
treehalose and proline
what is trehalose
disaccharide of glucose (replaces glucose)
what is proline used for in insects
lepidopterans use proline for their metabolism
instead of antibodies in the blood, what do insects use
phagocytic cells
what blood component that isnt a formed element is most analogous to human blood
the proteins in the plasma
how much dissolved oxygen is in plasma
0.3mL/100mL
how much oxygen is in the Hb of blood
20mL/100mL
respiratory pigments are also called
respiratory proteins
pigments do
evoke a colour change
what kind of mer are respiratory pigments
oligomers
respiratory pigments are often conjugated with what
a metal ion
what are the 4 respiratory pigments
hemoglobin, hemocyanin, chlorocruorin, hemerythrin
what is the function of a respiratory pigment
reversible binding of oxygen and carbon dioxide
why is it vital to have respiratory pigments
aid in bufferring the pH of blood
when does a change in respirator pigment colour happen
when oxygen is bound or not bound
what is the most abundant resp. pigment in inverts
hemocyanin
what phenomena are resp. pigments
enzyme substrate complex
what is the most widespread resp. pigment
hemoglobin
what is the only resp. pigment in verts
hemoglobin
what mer is hemoglobin
oligomer in most
when is hemoglobin not oligomer
agnathans have it as a monomer
how big is monomeric hb
18kD
how big is oligomeric hb
68kD
what mer is hemoglobin in verts
tetramer
what are the 4 components of vert hb
2 alpha chains, 2 beta chains
how many amino acids are there per hb chain
145 amino acids
what is the name for monomeric hemoglobin
myoglobin
where can myoglobin be found in humans
in muscle tissue of humans
what does iron do in the hb
holds on to o2 in high o2 conditions and releases o2 in low o2 conditions
what is the heme group on hb
porphyrin ring
what part of hb has the iron
heme has the ferrous iron
where is hb found
in rbc
what is the size of hb intracellular
20-30kD
what is the size of hb extracellular
2000-3000kD
where is extracellular hb
in plasma freely floating
what is the binding dynamic in hb
cooperativity
what colour is hemocyanin when bound with o2
blue
what is the difference between hb and hc
pretty much only difference is the conjugated metal
what metal does hc use
copper
what is the second most widespread resp. pigment
hemocyanin
what animals have hc
crustaceans and mollusks (cephalopods and gastropods)
what mer is hemocyanin
oligomer
how is copper bound in hc
direct binding of copper to histidine residues in subunit
is hc intra or extracellular
hc is always extracellular
what are histidine residues analogous to in hb
hc histidine residues = hb porphyrin ring
what are the two less common resp. pigments
hemerythrin and chlorocruorin
what animals have hemerythrin
brachiopods, priapulids, sipunculids, 1 polychaete
what size are hemerythrin
16-125kD trimer or octamer
where can hemerythrin be found in the blood
intra or extracellullarly
what are the metals in hemerythrin
2 ferric ions per subunit that is attached to histidine residues
what other resp. pigment is most like hemoglobin
chlorocruorin
what animals have chlorocruorin
polychaetes
where in blood can chlorocruorin be can
extracellular
what size is chlorocruorin
3000kD
how many subunits does chlorocruorin have
can have several dozen sub units
how is chlorocruorin like hb
uses ferric iron and porphyrin ring (its just too big to be hb)
what are the coined terms for hb reversible binding
oxyhemoglobin vs deoxyhemoglobin
what does reversible binding do in hb
changes levels of oxygen throughout the body
whats weird about the loading affinity for o2 in hb
loading first o2 is hard, then loading affinity increases so its easier to bind more o2
why is the o2 affinity in hb observed
due to subunit conformational changes
what kind of pattern does cooperativity follow
sigmoidal
what can modulate the binding dynamics in hb
ph, temp, organophosphates
how does ph change binding dynamics
h ion reduces affinity which favours unloading of o2 from hb
how can temp change binding dyanamics
high temp reduces affinity which favours unloading of o2 from hb
how do organophosphates change binding dynamics
elevated 2,3 DPG reduces affinity which favours unloading of o2 from hb
what is the saturation at alveolar gas exchange concentration
98%
what is the bohr effect
there is a right shift at lower pH in blood to allow for the unloading of o2 in blood (affinity of Hb for O2)
what is the point of being aerobic as long as possible
the longer youre aerobic, the less fatigue you will get in a time span
what organism has the root effect
fish with swim bladders
what are the two kind of gas bladders
physostomic and physoclistic
what is physostomic swim bladder
gulping
what is physoclistic swim bladder
dissolved gasses in blood go into gas vessel (Hb sensitive)
what are two allosteric modulators
ATP and GTP
what are three ways to transport carbon dioxide
respiratory pigments, dissolved in solution, bicarbonic-carbonic acid system
how much of total co2 in body is carried by hb
about 10%
how much total co2 is moved by dissolved in solution
5-7%
how much total co2 is moved by bicarbonic-carbonic system
85%
how do respiratory pigments remove co2
reversible binding to amino acid residues
how does dissolved in solution remove co2
dissolves into plasma and some into RBC cytoplasm by pressure
how does bicarbinc-carbinc acid system remove co2
with the use of carbonic anhydrase
where is carbonic anhydrase found
in RBC and apical surface of endothelium in plasma
describe the bicarbonic-carbonic acid system
co2 in RBC and carbonic anhydrase combine with water to make carbonic acid that is dissoiated into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions, hydrogen ions bind to proteins (like hb), then chloride exchange puts bicarbonate into plasma
what are the three types of blood ph regulation
immediate regulation, intermediate term, long term
how does immediate regulation of blood ph work
using blood buffers
what are examples of blood buffers
bicarbonate, albumin, hemoglobin
how do blood buffers work
reversible binding so ph can be stabilized at a set point
how does intermediate term blood ph regulation work
elimination of co2 via gas exchange systems
how does long term blood ph regulation work
excretory systems to remove hydrogen ions
what is the standing titer of co2
5mmHg
what is the endocrine system
control and coordination of physiological responses via hormones
what are the major control systems of animals
nervous system and endocrine system
how does the nervous system control the body
membrane potential transmissins along neurons
what is the major membrane potential of the nervous system
action potential
what is released at a synapse
neurotransmitters
how does the endocrine system control the body
with ductless glands that secrete hormones into the blood
what is the chemical messenger of the endocrine system
hormones
why is it important to learn basics of nervous system within the endocrine system
the two act on each other
how does the endocrine system act on the nervous system
some hormones are neurotransmitters
how long does it take a neurotransmitter to communicate
milliseconds
how long does it take for a hormone to communicate
seconds
what are the three types of hormones
steroi hormones, amine hormones, protein hormones
what is a steroid hormone
cholesterol derivatives that are membrane permeable
how are steroid hormones membrane permeable
they penetrate the phospholipid bilayer
what are the two major classes of amine hormones
tyrosine derivatives and tryptophan derivatives
what are the tyrosine derivatines of amine hormones
catecholamines and iodothyronines
what is the primary difference between catecholamine and iodothyronines
catecholamines are membrane impermeable, iodothyronines are membrane permeable (iodo is verts only)
where can iodothyroines be found
thyroid (contain lots of iodine)
which of the tyrosine derivatives is often a neurotransmitter
catecholamine
what is the tryptophan derivative of the amine hormones
melatonin
what is the permeability of melatonin
membrane impermeable
what are examples of iodothyromines
triodothyrode and trypsin
what is the permeability of hormones based on
their polarity
what do protein hormones do
work at the surface of membranes (membrane impermeable)
antagonism is common in hormone interactions, what is antagonism
two things acting opposite of each other
how much of a hormone is needed for utilization
nanograms to picrograms per liter
what aids protein transport in blood/hemolymph
carrier proteins in blood
peptie and protein hormones consist of assemblages of ____
amino acids
how do endocrine glands transport hormines
permeated by many blood vessels
how do exocrine glands transport hormones
have ducts to carry secretions
what are the types of endocrine glands
discrete or diffuse
what is the difference between discrete and diffuse endocrine glands
discrete have endocrine cells packed into single structure, diffuse have endocrine cells scattered among other tissues
what are the types of endocrine cells
epithelial or neuroendocrine
what are epithelial endocrine cells
influenced by nervous system (neurosecretory)
what are neuroendocrine cells
regulated by nervous system and have neuron like cell morphology
how big is the pituitary gland
size of a walnut
what organisms have pituitary glands
verts only
what are the embryonic tissue sources for the pituitary gland
ectoderm and endoderm
where is the pituitary gland located
just below the hypothalamus
what are the two parts to the pituitary gland
neurohypophysis (anterior), and adenohypothysis (posterior)
what are the main parts to the neurohypophysis of the pituitary gland
median aminence, infundibular stalk, pars nervosa
what are the main parts to the adenohypophysis of the pituitary gland
pars tuberalis, pars distalis, pars intermedia
which pituitary (anterior or posterior) is endodermal derived
anterior (adenohypophysis)
how does the neurohypophyss get hormones
via vascular supply to pars nervosa
where do neurosecretory cells originate from
hypothalamus
what is the function of the adenohypophysis
separate populations of hormone producing cells
what controls the anterior pituitary gland
the hypothalamus
what 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary release and produce
TSH, ACTH, growth hormone, LH and FSH, prolactin, MSH
how many hormones does posterior release
2
what is TSH
thyroid stimulating hormone
what is ACTH
adrenocorticotropic hormine
what is LH
levitinizing hormone
what is FSH
folical stimulating hormone
what is prolactin used for
milk production
what is MSH
melanocyte stimulating hormone
what are the two hormones released by the posterior pituitary
ADH and oxytocin
what is the function of ADH
promotes water recovery
what is the function of oxytocin
targets selected groups of smooth muscle (most important in females)
what are the two hormones involved in milk production
prolactin makes milk, oxytocin ejects milk
what does ACTH trigger the release of
glucocorticoids
what is the function of LH and FSH
reproductive cell maturation and sex hormone production
what does MSH stimulate
change in pigmentation in some verts (like mating colour changes)
what is released to act antagonistically on hormones
inhibiting hormones (not all hormones have this)
what is the thyroid gland heavily influenced by
the anterior pituitary gland
where is the thyroid gland located
alongside the trachea
what is the main mass of the thyroid
sperical follicles
what cells are found between the follicle cells of the thyroid
parafollicular
what are follicle derived hormones regulated by
TSH
what hormones elevate aerobic metabolism in tissues
thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)
what parafollicular cell derived hormone
calcitonin
what is the function of calcitonin
reduces blood calcium
what is the purpose of calcitonin reducing blood calcium
promotes storage of calcium in bones, and promotes excretion of calcium from kidneys
what do amphibians need thyroxin for
metamorphosis
what is hypothyroidism
hypometabolism
what does hypothyroidism lead to
weight gain
what is hyperthyroidism
hypermetabolism
what does hyperthyroidism lead to
weight gain
what do hypo and hyperthyroidism threaten
life quality (not years of life)
what is colloid
protein rich fluid catabolized to make hormone
what is a goider
thyroid gland tissues hypertrophy from too little iodine
what are the parathyroid glands
4-8 tiny glands embedded in posterior aspect of thyroid
what kinds of cells are found in the parathyroid lands
oxyphil cells and cheif cells
what do cheif cells secrete in the parathyroid glands
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
what is the function of PTH
calcium ion homeostasis
antagonistic to calcitonin
what does PTH stimulate
breakdown of bone matrix and recovery of calcium
what kind of feedback dynamic does PTH have
negative feedback dynamic
what is the organ that is two glands in one organ
pancreas
how is the pancreas two glands in one organ
has exocrine and endocrine function
what is the function of the islets of langerhans in the pancreas
produce hormones
what are the two cell types in the islets of langerhans
alpha cells and beta cells
what do alpha cells do in the pancreas
produce glucagon
what does glucagon do
increase blood glucose and combats hypoglycemia
what do beta cells of the pancreas do
produce insulin
what is the function of insulin
decreases blood glucose to combat hyperglycemia
how are alpha and beta cells of the pancreas antagonistic of each other
uses alpha cells, when going into hyperglycemia the beta cells work harder to decrease blood glucose. when blood glucose too low, alpha cells become more active to combat hypoglycemia
what is the main reserve for glucagon
liver
what are the three hormones of the digestive system
gastrin, secretin, and cholecystokinin (CCK)
where is gastrin produced
stomach, duodenum, and pancreas
why is gastrin released
stimulated by proteins in food, increases gastric juice production and gastric motility (pepsin associated)
what was the first hormone ever reported
secretin
what produces secretin
duodenum of small intestine
why is secretin released
high protein and acid content in food
what produces choleocystokinin (CCK)
duodenum of small intestine
why is CCK choleocystokinin released
presence of lipids, promotes pancreas and liver-gall bladder secretions
how is lipid storage regulated
excess foods are stored as tryglycerides to be stored in adipose tissue
what hormine stimulates appetite
ghrelin
what produces ghrelin
stomach
what hormone suppresses appetite
leptin
what produces leptin
produced by adipose
what hormone retards glucose storage and coverts it to lipid
resistin
what produces resistin
adipose produces
why is resistin able to convert glucose to lipids
because they inhibit insulin receptors
what are the two land components to the adrenal gland
adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla
where is the adrenal gland located
on top of the kidney
what is the adrenal cortex
larger outer tissue of the adrenal gland
what is the adrenal medulla
deeper tissue of the adrenal gland
what does the adrenal cortex produce
steroid hormones
what is the function of the steroid hormones produced in the adrenal cortex
mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, sex hormones
what are mineralocorticoids
fluid retention in kidneys
what are glucocorticoids
involved in treating inflammation and tissue repair
what are the sex hormones made in the adrenal cortex
testosterone and estrogen
which part of the adrenal gland is part of the autonomic nervous system
adrenal medulla
what is produced in the adrenal medulla
epinephrine and some norepinephrine
what is the function of epinephrine and norepinephrine
enhance cardiovascular function and increases glucose metabolism
what are endocrine diseases caused by
over or underproduction of a hormone or a receptor disorder (often autoimmune)
what are two thyroid disorders
hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism
what disease is caused by hypothyroidism
hashimoto’s syndrome (TSH receptor) decreased t3 and t4
what disease is caused by hyperthyroidism
grave’s disease (TSH receptor) increased t3 and t4
what are two pancreatic disorders
pancreatic adenoma and diabetes mellitus
what is pancreatic adenoma
tumor cells make gastrin
what is diabetes mellitus
type 1- autoimmune attack on islets
type 2- reduces insulin receptor sensitivity
what do hormones regulate in insects
life cycle progression, body fluid regulation, metabolism
what kinds of hormones do insects have
protein hormones, steroid hormones, long chain CH hormones
what hormone type is unique to invertebrates
long chain CH hormones
what kinds of life cycles do insects hae=ve
holometabolous or hemimetabolous
what are insect life cycles strongly influenced by
several hormones
what are the major endocrine glands of insects
corpus allatum and prothoracic gland
what endocrine gland of insects is analogous to the pituitary of verts
corpus allatum
what hormones are produced in the corpus allatum
juvenile hormone and PTTH
what hormone stimulates the prothoracic gland
PTTH
what hormone does the prothoracic gland release
ecdysone
what does ecdysone do
triggers molting
when is hemimetamorphosis
juvenile resembles adult
what is holometamorphosis
complete regoganization of body structure
what are the key physiological processs of the nervous system
membrane potentials and chemical communication
what is within the central nervous system
brain and spinal cord
what is within the peripheral nervous system
nerves and ganglia
what are the two major cells types of the nervous system
neurons and glial cells
what is a synaptic knob
area for communication that has junction with neighbor cell
what are the cell types for neurons (process number)
unipolar, bipolar, multipolar
what kinds of neurotransmitters can neurons release
cholinergenic or adrenergenic (neuron can only elease one type)
what is the information flow of neurons
afferent or efferent
what neurons are afferent
sensory
what neurons are efferent
motor
what are glial cells
helper cells for neurons
what is the ratio of glial cells to neurons
1000 glial to 1 neuron
what are the myelinations in CNS
oligodendrocytes
what are the myelinations in PNS
schwann cells
what is something that would be key in nervous system disease
gene regulation of myelin density
what are two key types of glial cells
microglia and astrocytes
what do microglia do
phagocytic and defensive
what do astrocytes do
regulate composition of extracellular fluid (housekeepers)
what makes the blood brain barrier
astrocytes binding to capillaries
what are the gaps between myelination
nodes of ranvier
where are axons exposed to the external environment
at nodes of ranvier
what is calcium vital to in the nervous system
exocytosis
what prevents uncoiling of myelination in myelinated axons
homophilic attraction of extracellular domains
myelinated neurons have saltatory propegations, what does this allow for
fast moving action potentials (jumping motion) to allow for larger body size
where is K, Cl, and Na most concentrated in neurons
K most conc in neuron
Na most conc outside neuron
Cl most conc outside neuron
what voltage do neurons typically carry
-70mV to -90mV
what is the maximum AP that travels on neuron
+30mV to +50mV
what is the voltage of neurons driven by
channel driven dynamic (ion channels)
how can an animal reduce the resistance of action potential flow, making action potentials move faster in unmyelinated neurons
change the diameter of the axon (make bigger)
why is AP only possible at nodes of ranvier
they need access to extracellular K and Na
what is multiple sclerosis a disorder of
myelination is subject to autoimmune attack that impairs motor or sensory neurons
presynaptic cells ____ AP
undergo
postsynatic cells ____ AP
create new
where is the direct flow of electrical current common
invert nervous system and vertebrate myocardium
why would something need a direct flow of electrical current
when nearly synchronous activation of many cells needed
what is direct flow of electrical current called
ephase electotonic synapse
what is the more common synapse in verts
chemical based synapse
what kind of synapse can be bidirectional
ephapse
how does chemical synapse move
by exocytosis. synaptic cleft to presynaptic cell to post synaptic cell to synaptic vessicles
what are key neurotransmitters
chemical messengers
what are examples of key neurotransmitters
catecholamines, amino acids, lipid derivatives
how many types of neurotransmitters are there
50
how are neurotransmitters synthesized
by enzymes in cytoplasm of synaptic knob
what are the key precursors to neuroransmitters
tyrosine, glutamate, acetylcholine
how are neurotransmitters packaged
vesicle associated transporter (VAcT) or H ion pumped into vessicle and NT cotransported across
receptors are linked to ____
ion channels
what are the most polar and membrane impermeable
acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, seratonin, glutamate, GABA, and glycine
whats an example of a long ch chain hormone
anadamide
where are most neurotransmitters made
cytoplasm
how can neurotransmitters be recycled
endocytosis
how are neurotransmitters released
by action potentials in synaptic knob of presynaptic cells
where are action potentials started
axon hillock
what happens when exocytosis is activated in presynaptic cell
voltage gated channels open at plasma membrane and calcium influx at the peak of depolarization
what are the 4 steps to exocytosis of neurotransmitters in presynaptic cell
- vessicle moves to active zone and attaches reversibly
- snare and t-snare cock vessicle irreversibly
- calcium enters with depolarization and binds to synaptotagmin
- membrane fusion and exocytosis
what kinds of receptors do post synaptic cells have
ionotropic or metabotropic
receptors of post synaptic cells are characterized by_____
agonists/antagonists
acetylcholine receptors are common of post synaptic cells, what are two examples of acetylcholine receptors
nicotinic (antagonist is curare) and muscarinic (antagonist is atropine)
what is an agonist
external chemical agent that interacts and turns on a receptor
what is an antagonist
external chemical agent that interacts and turns off a receptor
binding of neurotransmitter triggers _____ in post synaptic cells
channel opening
the more neurotransmitter available in a post synaptic time, the______ binding time
longer
what can happen to a post synaptic cell with long exposure to neurotransmitter
receptor may become desensitized
what ion flow does post synaptic resting membrane potential favour
rmp favours sodium influx (has na influx/k efflux)
since resting membrane potential favours na influx, what happens
excititory post synaptic potential (EPSP)
what happens when epsp reaches threshhold
action potential is generated
what lasts longer- synaptic events or action potential
action potential lasts 2-4 times longer than synaptic events
how do synaptic events remove neurotransmitters
enzyme degredation or membrane cotransporters
what is temporal summation
multiple closely spaced action potentials in presynaptic cell, neurotransmitters build up fast and threshhold fast
what is spatial summation
closely spaced presynaptic neurons active together
what is insp
inhibitory post synaptic potential
neurotransmitters cause either ____ or ____
epsp or insp (excititory or inhibitory)
neurotransmitter receptors are coupled to ___
K or Cl channels
what does coupling to a k or cl channel do
hyperpolarizes the cell reducing action potential chances
what does presynaptic inhibition do
reduces calcium entry, reducing neurotransmitter release
what does heterosynaptic facilitation do
increases polarization of synaptic knob and more neurotransmitter release
what is synaptic fatigue
use neurotransmitter faster than biosynthesized
how can voltage swing be reduced
activating 3rd axon causes influx of sodium to presynaptic to depolarize
what part of the brain is myelinated
white matter
what part of the brain is unmyelinated
gray matter
how are nutrients delivers to tissues in central nervous system
by cerebral spinal fluid
what are the three ways to classify a nerve fiber
diameter, degree of myelination, and speed of conduction
what are group a nerve fibers
large diameter, large myelination (100m/s)
what are group b fibers
intermediate diameter with reduced myelination (40-50m/s)
what are group c fibers
short distance unmyelinated
what are neuronal pools
functional groups of neurons that integrate incoming info an forward processed info to where it needs to go (groups of neurons interacting with each other)
what is the discharge zone in neuronal pools
neurons most closely associated with incoming fiber
what is the facilitated zone in neuronal pools
neurons farther away from incoming fiber
what is a divergent circuit
1 presynaptic fiber connected to many post synaptic fibers
what neurons commonly have divergent circuits
morot neurons
what is a converging circuit
many presynaptic fibers and few post synaptic fibers
what is a reverberating circuit
once activated, stay on a long time
where are reverberating circuits common
short term memory and anger
what are the two functional divisions of the PNS
sensory (afferent) and efferent
what is the sensory (afferent) division of PNS
action potential to brain
what is the efferent division of PNS
brain command to action potential
what are the motor divisions of pns
somatic and autonomic
what is the somatic nervous system
conscious control of skeletal muscle
what is the function of the autonomic nervous system
regulated smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
what are the two subdivisions of the autonomic division
sympathetic and parasympathetic
where are antagonistic divisions connected to in brain
medulla
what is the communicating messenger of the parasympathetic division
acetylcholine
what is the parasympathetic division associated with
rest and digestion
what division of autonomic are cranial nerves
parasympathetic
what division are skeletal nerves
sympathetic
what does the sympathetic division promote
promotes activity
what are the 5 major regions of the brain
cerebrum, diencephalon, pons, medulla, cerabellum
what is the cerebrum associated with
intellect- complex processing
what are the two regions of the diencephalon
thalamus and hypothalamus
what is the diencephalon associated with
decision making
what is the cerabellum associated with
coordination of motion
what is the pons associated with
control of breathing
what is the medulla associated with
cardiovascular, digestion, respiratory
what are the two potential types the resting membrane potential can produce
action potential and graded potential
what is graded potential
potential dissipates as it travels the axon
when would a mammal neron use graded potential
when they lack sodium channels
what kind of dynamic does water balance and excretion have
housekeeping dynamic
why is water balanced
remove excess ions, water, nitrogenous wastes
what are the structural elements of water balance
epithelial sheets for for gas exchange and epithelial tubules for removal
what are the special junctions in water balance
verts have tight junctions, inverts have septate junctions
what are the key processes in water balance
pressurized filtration, active and passive transport
how do animals combat excretory organs being energy expensive
many mitochondria in structures
why is ammonia turned into urea or uric acid
if body doesnt have enough water to flush it through then ammonia is highly toxic
what is an osmolyte
systemic chemical agent to balance osmotic regulation
what happens when too much urea in system
can cause unfolding of proteins
what stabilizes urea
TMAO
what does pronephros kidney filter
coelomic fluid
what does mesonephros filter
nephrons filter blood directly
what is unique of metanephros kidney
concentrate urine to remove excess salts
what do the cortex and medulla of kidney do
filter blood producing waste
what does renal pelvis and ureter do
remove waste fluid
what is the most common type of nephron
cortical
what is the most important type of neuron
juxtamedullary
how thick is a nephron
1 cell thick
what important structures are found in the renal cortex
bowmans capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule
what important structure is found in the renal medulla
loop of henle
what is another name for bowmans capsule
glomerular capsule
what is found in bowmans capsule
30 capillaries (glomerulus)
what does the lumen of bowmans capsule allow for
allows fluid to move through nephron
what tubule dives into the renal medulla
proximal convoluted tubule
what are the two epithelium types of the loop of henle
descending is simple squamos, ascending is cuboidal or columnar
what is the typical urine output of a human in a day
1.5 to 2L/day
what is the direction of movement in bowmans capsule
afferent arteriole to glomerulus to efferent arteriole
what do peritubular capillaries do
pick up recovered materials (ex salts)
what does the vasa recta do
recovers mostly water
what is the usual pressure in the golerulus
60mmHg
how much can the glomerulus filter
100mL/min
what are the cells of bowmans capsule
podocytes
what does exercising do to the kidneys
decreased the amount of filtration because blood directed elsewhere
what part of nervous system feeds glomerulus
sympathetic nervous system
what enzyme is released by the juxtamedulary
renin
what does the juxtamedullary help determine
blood volume
increased filtrate flow equals ___ blood pressure
increased
what does renin do
activates angiotensinogen
what is angiotensinogen
its a vasoconstrictor
what is the number 1 site of reabsorption in kidneys
PCT site (primary convoluted tubule)
how much does PCT (primary convoluted tubule)reabsorb
65% volume and 100% many solutes
what process does PCT use to reabsorb solutes
active transport
what process does PCT use to reabsorb water
passive transport
when does active secretion occur
when elimination needs exceed filtration
what two systems participate in secretion
DCT and CD
what are the key ions what are secreted
K H, NH3
what hormone influences reabsorption of sodium
aldosterone
what is atrial natiuretic hormone
used to treat high blood pressure (changes blood volume)
what produces aldosterone
adrenal gland
the thyroid gland produces calcitonin, what does calcitonin do
reduces blood calcium (hyper) (stop absorption by PCT)
in the parathyroid gland is parathormone, what does it do
increase blood calcium (hypo) (helps reabsorption by PCT)
what osmo concentration is cortex vs blood
isoosmotic
what osmo concentration is medulla vs blood
hyperosmotic
what can help with better water recovery in metanephric kidney
make loop of henle longer if want more water recovery
what part of brain is water balance center
hypothalamus
what are hormones controlled by
hypothalamus
what is antidiuretic hormone
promotes water recovery (sequesters aquaporin)
why would a fish want salt glands
supplemental ions (save Mg and Ca for when they need it)
what is the purpose of cephalic salt glands in birds and reptiles
another way to remove salts (found in head)
what is a filtration-reabsorption cell in some inverts
flame cells
what do crustaceans have instead of kidneys
antennal gland
what do insects have instead of kidneys
malpigian tubules
what are the two cell types of malpigian tubules
principal cells and stellate cells
how are aquaporins regulated in insects
hormones like leucokinin
in short what is a malpigian tubule
osmotic gradient with water running through
where are the malpigian tubules located
before the rectum
what are the two main properties of muscles
excitable and contractile
what aminals have skeletal muscle
annelids, arthropods, verts
skeletal muscle is not ___
autorhythmic
what is acetylcholine
universal communicator for motor neurons
how many myofibers in cytoskeletal cell
6-10
how much calcium is stores in muscles
1000x more than whats in cytoplasm
what is a motor unit
1 motor unit and the muscle fiber it commands
what is the sarcolema
plasma membrane of muscle cell
what is released when a muscle contracts
calcium
what is myocin
protein motor
what do myofilaments compose
myofibrils
what is titin used for
anchoring protein
what is fond along thin filament at intervals
tropomyosin
who discovered mechanism of muscle tissue
hodgkin and huxley
what is cross bridge cycling
conformational changes in myosin head
how long does it take to contract one muscle
60ms
what does ATP do in muscle contraction
maintains membrane excitability
what causes muscle fatigue
inorganic phosphate in muscle tissue
what does depolarization trigger in muscle cells
voltage gated calcium channels open so calcium moves to sarcoplasm
calcium of muscle cells binds to what
troponin
calcium released from muscle cells is suboptimal, what does this mean
wont get maximum contraction
how can you make muscle cells contract with more vigor
add more calcium
what are white fast twitch glycolytic fibers
high power, high fatigue
what are red slow twitch oxidative fibers
less power but far less fatigue
which of the fibers is aerobic
red slow twitch oxidative fibers
where are fast twitch fibers used
locomotion muscles
where are slow twitch muscles used
posture or breathing muscles
what are asynchronous muscles
in flight muscles in insects
what do asynchromous musces do
cause neighboring muscles to stretch and contract for rapid muscle movement
what is starlings law
moderate stretch
what is an isotonic muscle
one end of muscle freely moves
what is an isometric muscle
contract internally with tendon attachment
what does the motor cortex in cerebrum do
decided how strong a contraction of muscle will be
when can you have maximum strength output
when all muscle cells are being used
what is summation/tetanus
superimposed contaction cycles
what is a twitch contraction
muscle gets a single stimulus and group of muscles react