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Anatomy > Anatomy Comp Review > Flashcards

Anatomy Comp Review Flashcards

1
Q

Cranial nerves characterized by the special visceral motor modality supply which of the following
A. Smooth muscles of the gut tract
B. Skeletal muscles
C. Muscles derived from pharyngeal arches
D. Autonomic motor muscles

A

C. Muscles derived from pharyngeal arches

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2
Q 
Which of the following cranial nerves supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
A. IX
B. X
C. XI
D. XII
A

C. XI

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3
Q 
In diarthrosis, which component is more vascularized than others
A. outer fibrous capsule
B. articular cartilage
C. ligaments
D. synovial membrane
A

D. Synovial membrane

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4
Q

Extensive bilateral lesions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions
A. Consciousness but quadriplegic
B. Coma
C. Hypotonia
D. Unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

A

B. Coma

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5
Q 
Which of the following lobes would not be found in the right lung
A. Upper/superior
B. Middle
C. Lower/inferior
D. Lingula
A

D. Lingula

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6
Q 
The malleoli of the tibia and fibula form the mortise component of the ankle joint. Which of the following forms the tenon
A. Calcaneus
B. Cuboid
C. Talus
D. Medial cuneiform
A

C. Talus

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7
Q 
The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina
A. Ovale
B. Rotundum
C. Spinosum
D. Lacerum
A

C. Spinosum

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8
Q 
Melanin containing, dopaminergic neurons and iron containing cells that secrete serotonin and GABA are major components of which of the following
A. Substantia niagra
B. Thalamus
C. RAS
D. Superior colliculi
A

A. Substantia niagra

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9
Q

While standing in the anatomical position, the palms of the hands are supinated
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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10
Q 
The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric vein and which of the following
A. Inferior mesenteric vein
B. Splenic vein
C. Left gastroepiploic vein
D. Right gastroepiploic vein
E. Gastroduodenal vein
A

B. Splenic vein

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11
Q 
A muscle contraction that results in the lengthening of a muscle would best be described as which of the following 
A. concentric
B. Eccentric
C. isometric
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
A

B. Eccentric

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12
Q 
The three capsular ligaments of the hip limit which of the following motions
A. Lateral thigh rotation
B. Hip hyperextension
C. Hip flexion
D. Medial thigh rotation
A

B. Hip hyperextension

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13
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there in total

A

7

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14
Q 
The navicular bone is a component of which of the following subdivisions of the foot
A. Hindfoot
B. Midfoot
C. Forefoot
D. Mortise and tenon joint
A

B. Midfoot

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15
Q 
Which of the following muscle groups is part of the intrinsic musculature of the back
A. trapezius
B. erector spinae group
C. latissimus
D. serratus posterior group
A

B. Erector spinae group

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16
Q 
The posterior compartment of the brachium contains the triceps complex. Which of the following nerves supplies the muscles of the posterior compartment of the brachium
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary nerve
A

C. Radial nerve

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17
Q 
The Trendelenburg test is used to evaluate which of the following muscles
A. Pectineus
B. Gluteus medius
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Quadriceps femoris
A

B. Gluteus medius

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18
Q 
Which of the following is the fontanelle located at the junction of the sagittal and lambdoidal sutures
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Anterolateral
D. Posterolateral
A

D. Posterolateral

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19
Q 
The major constituent of the pelvic diaphragm is the levator ani complex. Which of the following is NOT part of the levator ani complex
A. Puborectalis
B. Pubococcygeus
C. Coccygeus
D. Iliococcygeus
A

D. Iliococcygeus

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20
Q 
Which of the following features marks the boundary between the false/greater pelvis and the true/lesser pelvis
A. Pelvic brim
B. Pelvic diaphragm
C. Perineum
D. Iliac crests
A

A. Pelvic brim

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21
Q 
The small intestine is approximately 21 feet in length. Which of the following is the longest of the three subdivisions of the small intestine
A. Jejunum
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Rectum
A

C. Ileum

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22
Q 
Which of the following human organs would not be seen in a mid-sagittal section of the human body
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Intestine
D. Transverse colon
E. Brain
A

B. Lungs

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23
Q 
Which of the following is the largest lobe of the liver
A. Right
B. Left
C. Quadrate
D. Caudate
E. Median
A

A. Right

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24
Q 
Which of the following arteries supplies the medial compartment of the thigh
A. Femoral
B. Obturator
C. Deep femoral
D. Saphenous
A

Obturator

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25
Q 
All of the following features except one are characteristic of the male pelvis in comparison with the female pelvis. Which one is characteristic of the female pelvis
A. Deeper greater pelvis
B. Round obturator foramen
C. Wide pubic arch
D. Large acetabulum
A

C. Wide pubic arch

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26
Q 
The heart is found in which of the following locations
A. Anterior superior mediastinum
B. Middle superior mediastinum
C. Anterior inferior mediastinum
D. Middle inferior mediastinum
E. Posterior inferior mediastinum
A

D. Middle inferior mediastinum

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27
Q

Name the boundaries of the anatomical snuff box

A

Extensor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Abductor pollicis brevis

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28
Q 
The muscles of the suboccipital triangle are innervated by which of the following nerves
A. Occipital nerve
B. Cervical nerve 1
C. Cervical nerve 2
D. Cervical nerve 3
A

B. Cervical nerve 1

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29
Q 
Which muscles separate the exit of the superior and inferior gluteal arteries from the pelvic cavity
A. quadratus femoris
B. obturator internus
C. superior gemellus
D. inferior gemellus
E. piriformis
A

E. Piriformis

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30
Q 
Which of the following muscles consists of two bellies, originating from the body of the hyoid and the superior border of the scapula
A. Omohyoid
B. Digastric
C. Geniohyoid
D. Cervicohyoid
A

A. Omohyoid

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31
Q 
The tendon of which of the following muscles passes between two sesamoid bones located at the base of the first metatarsus
A. Adductor hallucis
B. Peroneus longus
C. Flexor hallucis longus
D. Abductor hallucis
A

C. Flexor hallicus longus

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32
Q 
Which of the following cells are capable of breaking down bone matrix
A. Chondroclasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Chondroblasts
D. Chondrocytes
E. Fibroblasts
A

B. Osteoclasts

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33
Q 
The subtalar joint allows for inversion and eversion. Which of the following movements is associated with eversion
A. Adduction
B. supination
C. dorsiflexion
D. plantarflexion
A

D. Plantarflexion

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34
Q 
Postganglionic fibers from which of the following region of the sympathetic trunk supply all the smooth muscles and glands of the head
A. Superior sympathetic ganglion
B. Middle sympathetic ganglion
C. Inferior sympathetic ganglion
D. Stellate ganglion
A

A. Superior sympathetic ganglion

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35
Q 
Which of the following ligaments is the primary support for the medial longitudinal arch of the foot
A. Long plantar
B. Plantar calcaneonavicular
C. Plantar calcaneocuboid
D. Deltoid
A

B. Plantar calcaneonavicular

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36
Q

Look over the brachial plexus

A

okay

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37
Q 
Which of the following areas of the brainstem is thought to be involved in pain suppression
A. Red nucleus
B. Restiform bodies
C. Periaquaductal gray
D. Vagal lobes
A

C. Periaquaductal gray

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38
Q 
Which of the following muscles is most important in rotating the greater tubercle from under the acromion during full arm elevation
A. Teres major
B. Infraspinatus
C. Supraspinatus
D. Subscapularis
E. Pectoralis major
A

B. Infraspinatus

39
Q 
Which of the following is found in the femoral triangle but not in the femoral sheath
A. Femoral artery
B. Femoral vein
C. Femoral nerve
D. Lymphatics
A

C. Femoral nerve

40
Q 
Which of the extrinsic muscles of the eye is NOT supplied by the oculomotor nerve
A. Lateral rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Medial rectus
D. Inferior rectus
A

A. Lateral rectus

41
Q 
Which of the following would NOT be classified as a long bone
A. Femur
B. Humerus
C. Ulna
D. Calcaneus
E. Radius
A

D. Calcaneus

42
Q 
Which of the following dural sinuses DOES NOT connect directly with the confluence of sinuses
A. Straight sinus
B. Transverse sinus
C. Superior sagittal sinus
D. Inferior sagittal sinus
A

D. Inferior sagittal sinus

43
Q 
The lesser and greater sciatic notches are separated by which of the following landmarks
A. PSIS
B. PIIS
C. Ischial tuberosity
D. Ischial spine
A

D. Ischial spine

44
Q 
Which of the following nerves wraps around the neck of the radius
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous
E. Axillary
A

C. Radial

45
Q 
Cranial-caudal and left-right axes define which of the following kinds of planes
A. Coronal
B. Sagittal
C. Parasagittal
D. Transverse
A

A. Coronal

46
Q

The magnocellular zone of the RAS is characterized by a specific type of neuron with long radiating dendrites spread out in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the brain stem. It has been suggested that the function of this area of the brain stem may be associated with which of the following
A. Carrying information from the pineal body to the RAS
B. Connecting the superior and inferior colliculi
C. Picking up information from a variety of sources
D. Linking olfactory and taste sensations to the autonomic nervous system

A

C. Picking up information from a variety of sources

47
Q 
The male and female external genitalia are derived from homologous embryonic primordia. The genital swellings of the embryo form which of the following adult structures
A. Scrotum
B. Labia minora
C. Clitoris
D. Shaft of the penis
A

A. Scrotum

48
Q 
Cells that initially lay down cartilage matrix are best identified as which of the following
A. Chondroclasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Chondroblasts
D. Chondrocytes
E. Fibroblasts
A

C. Chondroblasts

49
Q 
The thalamus is a paired complex of many nuclei, some of which are associated with relaying sensory information from the cerebral cortex, and some serve to integrate the others. Which of the following relay information to the primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex (What about the visual cortex)
A. Medial geniculate
B. Lateral geniculate
C. Ventral posterior
D. Anterior
A

A. Medial geniculate

B. Lateral geniculate for visual cortex

50
Q 
The vagus nerves pass through the diaphragm at which vertebral level
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12
A

C. T10

51
Q 
Which of the following structures attach the menisci to the rims of the tibial plateaus
A. Coronary
B. Cruciates
C. Collaterals
D. Fibular collateral ligament
A

A. Coronary

52
Q 
Remnants of the umbilical arteries are associated with which o the following landmarks on the posterior aspect of the anterior abdominal wall
A. Falciform ligament
B. Medial umbilical folds
C. median umbilical folds
D. Lateral umbilical folds
E. Ligamentum teres
A

B/C. Median umbilical folds

53
Q 
Which of the following structures does not exit the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
A. Superior gluteal artery
B. Inferior gluteal artery
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Obturator nerve
E. Inferior gluteal nerve
A

D. Obturator nerve

54
Q 
The abdominal aorta gives off three pairs of visceral branches. Which of the following would NOT be included in this group
A. Renal
B. Gonadal
C. Middle suprarenal
D. Phrenic
A

D. Phrenic

55
Q 
The inguinal ligament attaches to which of the following pairs of structures
A. ASIS and AIIS
B. AIIS and ischial spine
C. ASIS and pubic tubercle
D. ASIS and inferior pubic ramis
A

C. ASIS and pubic tubercle

56
Q 
Which of the following is the longest and widest part of the uterine tube
A. Isthmus
B. Ampulla
C. Intramural
D. Fimbriae
A

B. Ampulla

57
Q 
Which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity
A. Infraglottic cavity
B. Rima glottidis
C. Rima vestibuli
D. Space between the vestibular folds
A

B. Rima glottidis

58
Q 
The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina
A. Foramen ovale
B. Foramen spinosum
C. Foramen rotundum
D. Foramen lacerum
A

A. Foramen ovale

59
Q

What passes through the diaphragm at T12 and T8

A

Aorta at T12

Inferior vena cava at T8

60
Q 
What is the approximate angle of inclination in the average young adult
A. 175
B. 150
C. 125
D. 74
E. 15
A

C. 125

61
Q 
The patella is an example of which of the following types of bones?
A. Short
B. Long
C. Irregular
D. Sesamoid
A

D. Sesamoid

62
Q 
Olfactory fibers making up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following
A. Sphenoethmoidal recess
B. Cribriform plate
C. Optic canals
D. Lateral pterygoid foraminae
A

B. Cribriform plate

63
Q

Anatomy 2 now

A

okay

64
Q 
The spinal cord proper ends at which of the following levels
A. L5/S1
B. S5
C. L2
D. L4
A

C. L2

65
Q 
Floccular lobes in the cerebellum of reptiles may correspond to restiform bodies in cartilaginous fishes. This function is most likely related to which of the following
A. Taste
B. Sight
C. Memory
D. Equilibrium
A

D. Equilibrium

66
Q 
Special visceral motor modality supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle via which of the following cranial nerves
A. Cranial nerve IX
B. Cranial nerve X
C. Cranial nerve XI
D. Cranial nerve XII
A

A. Cranial nerve IX

67
Q 
Which of the following represents the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle
A. Adductor magnus
B. Adductor longus
C. Sartorius
D. Pectineus
A

C. Sartorius

68
Q 
The calcaneus transmits weight from the talus to metatarsals 4 and 5 via which of the following bones
A. Cuboid
B. Middle cuneiform
C. Navicular
D. Lateral cuneiform
E. Medial cuneiform
A

A. Cuboid

69
Q 
The anterior compartment of the brachium contains the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis and brachialis muscles. Which of the following nerves supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the brachium
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary nerve
A

D. Musculocutaneous nerve

70
Q 
Which of the following layers of the uterus undergo the most pronounced changes during the menstrual cycle
A. Endometrium
B. Myometrium
C. Perimetrium
D. Mensometrium
A

A. Endometrium

71
Q 
Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals
A. Pallium
B. Mid-ventricular ridge
C. Neocortex
D. Paleocortex
A

C. Neocortex

72
Q 
Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionality, changes in eating behavior and visual agnosia are characteristics of the Kluver-Bucy syndrome. This results when which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed
A. Substantia niagra
B. Red nucleus
C. Amygdala
D. Thalamus
A

C. Amygdala

73
Q 
Which of the following is not found in the popliteal fossa
A. Popliteal nerve
B. Tibial nerve
C. Popliteal artery
D. Popliteal vein
A

A. Popliteal nerve

74
Q 
Cranial nerve nculei V, VI, and VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain
A. Medulla
B. Pons
C. Midbrain
D. Diencephalon
A

B. Pons

75
Q 
The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves (what if the question was posterior belly?)
A. Facial
B. Trigeminal
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Hypoglossal
A

B. Trigeminal

A. Facial If the question asked about posterior belly

76
Q 
Which of the following structures would NOT be found in the superior mediastinum
A. Esophagus
B. Azygos vein
C. Vagus nerves
D. Thymus
E. Trachea
A

B. Azygos vein

77
Q 
The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the cardiac center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Mesencephalon
D. Thalamus
A

A. Pons

78
Q 
Which of the following represents the spinal cord origin for the phrenic nerve
A. C1-4
B. C2-5
C. C3-5
D. C3-7
A

C. C3-5

79
Q 
During arm abduction, the serratus anterior clamps the scapula against the thoracic wall, thereby providing a stable base for the movement of the glenohumeral joint. While engaged in this activity, the serratus anterior muscle would best be described by which of the following terms
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Fixator
D. Synergist
A

C. Fixator

80
Q 
Cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information from the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following cranial ganglia
A. Trigeminal (semilunar)
B. Geniculate
C. Superior salivatory nucleus
D. Inferior salivatory nucleus
A

B. Geniculate

81
Q 
The axis of rotation for flexion and extension is
A. Longitudinal or cranial-caudal
B. Left-right or transverse
C. Anterior-posterior
D. none of the above
A

B. Left right or transverse

82
Q

How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves are present in humans

A

8

83
Q 
The sacral promontory is formed by which of the following structures
A. The centrum of L1
B. The spinous process of L1
C. The centrum of S1
D. The spinous process of S2
A

C. The centrum of S1

84
Q 
Which of the following structures/spaces is associated with the spinal cord but not the brain
A. Arachnoid membrane
B. Pia mater
C. Subdural space
D. Epidural space
A

D. Epidural space

85
Q

A median-sagittal plane is described by which of the following two intersecting axes?
A. Cranial caudal and the left-right axes
B. Cranial caudal and the anterior posterior axes
C. Left-right and the anterior-posterior axes
D. None of the above

A

B. Cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes

86
Q 
Winging of the scapula may be the result of injury to which of the following nerves
A. thoracodorsal
B. axillary
C. long thoracic
D. thoracoacromial
E. suprascapular
A

C. Long thoracic

87
Q 
Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib
A. Anterior
B. Middle
C. Posterior
D. All attach to first rib
A

C. Posterior

88
Q 
Which of the following structures is/are found in both the superior and inferior mediastinum
A. Thymus
B. Vagus nerves
C. Heart
D. Trachea
E. Phrenic nerves
A

A. Thymus

89
Q 
Proper chewing requires that the mandible be moved from side to side and be retracted and protracted. Which of the following muscles of mastication functions to retract the mandible
A. Temporalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Temporalis
A

A/D. Temporalis

90
Q 
Nerve supply to the latissimus dorsi is through which of the following nerves
A. lateral pectoral nerve
B. medial pectoral nerve
C. long thoracic nerve
D. spinal accessory nerve
E. thoracodorsal nerve
A

E. thoracodorsal nerve

91
Q 
Almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Ansa cervicalis
C. C2
D. C2-C3
A

B. Ansa cervicalis

92
Q 
Which of the following forms a muscular sling at the anorectal junction
A. Puborectalis
B. Pubococcygeus
C. Coccygeus
D. Iliococcygeus
A

A. Puborectalis

93
Q 
Which of the following muscles is necessary to unlock the knee from its extended position
A. Plantaris
B. Popliteus
C. Soleus
D. Lateral head of the gastrocnemius
A

B. Popliteus

94
Q 
Which of the following cranial nerves supplies extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue
A. Cranial nerve IX
B. Cranial nerve X
C. Cranial nerve XI
D. Cranial nerve XII
A

D. Cranial nerve XII

Anatomy (34 decks)

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