Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Iliohypogastric Nerve

A

Supplies the lower abdomen and suprapubic area.
Damaged in abdominal surgery
i.e Appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Scaphoid Bone fracture

A

Fall on outstretched hand
tenderness in anatomic snuff box
increase risk of avascular Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Median Nerve Injury at carpal tunnel

A

Lunate disslocation
weakness of thenar muscles, weakness in thumb Abduction, Flexion, Opposition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what ligament is ligated in oophorectomy?

A

Suspensory Ligament to prevent excess bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Landmark used for LP?

A

Iliac Crest
Needle b/w L3/L4 or L4/L5
L4 vertebral body lies in between line drawn from highest points of iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hippocampus

A

Located in Mesial Temporal lobe
Center for learning and memory processing
Degeneration presents in elderly with memory loss, difficulty finding words, challenge with short term recall and names, new facts cannot be learned or recalled.
Hippocampal atropy is key finding in dementia, Alzhimers type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mammillary bodies

A

Assosiated with Werenicke-Korsakoff syndrome
Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency in Alcoholics,
Traid of:
Altered mental status (disorientation, confusion)
Opthalmoplegia (Nystagmus)
Ataxia (gait abnormality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Subtantia Niagra

A

Located in anterior mid brain
Primary area for dopamine synthesis
Dopminergic neurons from substantia niagra project to basal ganglia as part of nigrostial pathway and modulate motor functions.
Lesion in this area causes parkinsons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pre-Central Gyrus

A

Primary Motor Cortex
All Voluntary Movement
Corticospinal comes to pre-central gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Post-central gyrus

A

All somatosensory
Pain, temp, pressure, vibration, touch
Spinothalamic tract and dorsal coloumn comes to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rotator Cuff Muscles

A

Innervated primarily by C5–C6
–Supraspinatus– Suprascapular Nerve
Adducts arm initially ( before deltoid )
Most common rotator cuff injury.

–Infrasoinatus– Suprascapular Nerve
Externally rotates arm, Pitching injury.

–Teres Minor– Axillary Nerve
Adducts and externally rotates arm.

–Subscapularis– Upper & Lower Subscapular Nrv
Internally rotates and adducts arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prevention of excess bleeding postpartum

A

Ligation of bilateral internal iliac arteries
Internal ilacs supply the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ventromedial Nucleus of Hypothalamus

A

Satiety center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dandy walker malformation

A

Hypoplasia/ Absence of cerebral vermis
Cystic dilation of 4th ventricle
Posterior fossa enlargement
Present in infancy w developmental delay & progressive skull enlargement
Other features may include cerebellar dysfunction and non-communicating hydrocephalus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pituitary Gland

A

Sits in Sella Trucica

  • Ant. Pituitary: Derived from Rathke’s pouch (surface ectoderm).
  • Post. Pituitary: Derived from Neurohypophysis (Neuroectoderm).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Parathyroid & Thymus Embryology

A

Thymus and two inferior Parathyroids are derived from 3rd pharengeal pouch.

Two superior Parathyroids are derived from 4th pharengeal pouch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nervous system embryo

A

– Microglia are derived from Mesoderm.
– Rest of the nervous system is derived from neuroectoderm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hypothalamus functions

A

“ T A N H A T S “
T = Thirst & water balance (supra optic nucleus).
A = Adenohypophysis (ant.pituitary) control via releasing factor.
N = Neurohypophysis (post.pituitary) releases harmone synthesized by hypothalamic nuclei.
H = Hunger (lateral nucleus), Satiety (ventromedial nucleus).
A = Autonomic regulation, circadian rhythms (suprachiasmatic nucleus)
T = Temperature regulation.
S = Sexual urges & emotions (septal nucleus).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anterior communicating artery aneurysm

A

Bitemporal hemianopia
Contralateral lower extremity hemiparesis & sensory loss

20
Q

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

A

Ipsilateral CN-III palsy
Mydriasis , Ptosis , Down & out eye.
Contralateral homonymus hemianopia with macular sparing.

21
Q

Middle Cerebral artery aneurysm

A

Contralateral upper extremity and facial hemiparesis and sensory deficit.

22
Q

Cranial Nerves

A
23
Q

Coronary arteries

A
24
Q

Cardiac Ascultation

A
25
Q

ECG

A
  • P-wave = SA node conduction
    (atrial depolarization)
  • PR-segment = AV node through bundle of His
  • QRS-complex = condution through bundle branches (ventricular depolarization)
  • T-wave = conduction through purkunje fibers (ventricular repolarization)
  • QT-interval = ventricular depolarization — ventrucular repolarization.
  • U-wave = Seen in Hypokalemia or low HR.
26
Q

Brain Embryology

A
27
Q

Neural Crest Cells derivatives

A
  • Pseudounipolar cells of spinal cord & cranial ganglia.
  • Autonomic ganglia
  • Schwann cells
  • Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
  • Odontoblasts
  • Melanocytes
  • Meninges (pia & arachnoid)
  • Endocardial cushions
  • Aorticopulmonary septums
  • Pharyngeal arch cartilage and bone
28
Q

Adrenal medulla

A

The adrenal medulla is composed of chromaffin cells and produces (epinephrine) and (norepinephrine).

29
Q

Order of cerebrospinal fluid flow through the ventricular system?

A

Choroid plexus → lateral ventricles → foramina of Monro → 3rd ventricle → cerebral aqeuduct of Sylvius → 4th ventricle → foramina of luschka and magendie → arachnoid granulations

30
Q

Superior gluteal nerve injury,

A
  • The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus
    minimus, and tensor fasciae latae muscles.
  • These muscles function to stabilize the pelvis and abduct the thigh.
  • Weakness of the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles will
    cause the pelvis to sag toward the unaffected (contralateral) side
    when the patient stands on the affected leg (positive Trendelenburg
    sign).
  • When walking, the patient will lean toward the affected (ipsilateral)
    side to compensate for the hip drop (gluteusmedius lurch).
31
Q

Vestibular schwannoma,

A

Located at cerebellopontine angle (ie, between the cerebellum and lateral pons)

The facial nerve (CN VII) and trigeminal nerve (CN V) are in proximity to CN VIII at the cerebellopontine angle and may be compressed by vestibular schwannomas.

  • Impairment of the cochlear portion of CN VIII leads to ipsilateral
    sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus (ringing in the ear), and
    damage to the vestibular portion causes unsteadiness and
    disequilibrium.
  • Compression of CN V may cause loss of ipsilateral facial sensation
    with interruption of the afferent limb of the corneal reflex.
  • CN VII compression can result in ipsilateral facial muscle paralysis
    (eg, asymmetric smile).
32
Q

Which nerve is primarily responsible for the following motions of the foot?

A
  1. Dorsiflexion: Deep fibular
  2. Plantarflexion: Tibial
  3. Inversion: Tibial
  4. Eversion: Superficial fibular
33
Q

Injury to the long thoracic nerve results in?

A

winged scapula due to paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle.

34
Q

Risk factors for osteosarcoma:

A
  1. Heritable retinoblastoma (RB1 mutation)
  2. Radiation
  3. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
  4. Paget disease of the bone
35
Q

Injury to the thoracodorsal nerve results in

A

Paralysis of the (latissumus dorsi), leading to loss of (extension), (adduction), and (internal) rotation of the humerus.

36
Q

Inferior gluteal nerve

A

The inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscle.

37
Q

List the nerve most at risk for injury with the following humerus fractures:

A
  1. Proximal (surgical neck): axillary nerve
  2. Mid-shaft: radial nerve
  3. Distal (supracondylar): radial nerve if proximal fragment anterolaterally dispalced; median nerve if proximal fragment anteromedially displaced
38
Q

4 nerves that are at risk for injury during axillary lymph node dissection.

A
  1. Long thoracic
  2. Thoracodorsal
  3. Medial pectoral
  4. Intercostobrachial
39
Q

Patient has weakness in knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion. There is a decreased ankle reflex. This is due to injury to what nerve?

A

Proximal sciatic nerve

40
Q

Nerve is most commonly injured by anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Axillary Nerve

41
Q

Patient who fell has volar dislocation of the lunate. This increases risk for what acute complication?

A

Median nerve compression (acute carpal tunnel syndrome).

42
Q

Injury of the C5 and C6 nerve roots?

A

Injury of the C5 and C6 nerve roots causes Erb-Duchenne palsy, resulting in “waiter’s tip” posture.

43
Q

Femoral nerve injury

A

Femoral nerve injury will result in a decreased patellar reflex.

44
Q

Name the nerve(s) that course together with the following arteries in the upper extremity.

A
  1. Upper arm: brachial artery and median nerve and ulnar nerve
  2. Cubital fossa: brachial artery and median nerve
  3. Forearm: radial artery and superficial branch of radial nerve
  4. Forearm: ulnar artery and ulnar nerve
45
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease (OSD)

A

a common cause of knee pain in adolescents due to overuse of the quadriceps muscle group
(i.e. rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis)