ALL DEFINITIONS AQA SPEC Flashcards

Everything but balls angular and projectile motion, all PGE retake topics

1
Q

Anticipatory rise

A

An increase in heart rate prior to exercise, due to the release of adrenalin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A-VO2 diff

A

The difference in oxygen content of the blood between arterial blood and venous blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Systolic blood pressure

A

Blood pressure while the heart is contracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Blood pressure

A

Blood pressure is a measure of the force that your blood exerts against blood vessel walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Diastolic blood pressure

A

Blood pressure when the heart is relaxing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

High blood pressure

A

Can occur due to obesity, too much salt, stress or smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bohr shift

A

When the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve moves to the right during exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does Bohr shift occur?

A

as a result of increased co2 in blood, increased blood acidity, decreased blood PH, increased temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cardiac conduction system

A

A group of specialised cardiac muscle cells in the walls of the heart sending signals causing it to contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does cardiovascular drift occur?

A

Due to sweating which reduces blood volume and increases viscosity. Decreasing venous return, in line with starlings law, decreases stroke volume.
Heat
Humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bradycardia (Athletes heart)

A

A reduction in resting heart rate below 60 bpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bundle of HIS

A

Conducts the impulse down the septum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sino-atrial node (SAN)

A

The hearts pacemaker, sends an impulse through the atria making it contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Atrio-ventricular node (AVN)

A

Delays the impulse to allow ventricular filling.
0.1 s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Purkinje fibres

A

Spread the impulse through the ventricles causing them to contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cardiac Output

A

Amount of blood which leaves the left ventricle per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cardiac Hypertrophy

A

Increase in thickness of the muscular heart wall, especially around the left ventricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Heart rate

A

Number of times the heart contracts per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stroke volume

A

The amount of blood which leaves the left ventricle per contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cardiovascular Drift

A

A reduction in stroke volume when exercising in warm conditions for longer than 10 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Heart Disease

A

Occurs when coronary blood vessels become blocked by fatty deposits, called atheroma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Haemoglobin

A

Found in red blood cells.
Combines with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin transporting it around the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Myoglobin

A

Found in muscle cells, stores and transports oxygen.
Higher affinity for oxygen then haemoglobin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Baroreceptors

A

Located in blood vessels, these detect changes in blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Proprioceptors

A

Detect increases in muscle movement during exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chemoreceptors

A

Monitors and detects increases in blood acidity during exercise due to increased Co2 in the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

Precapillary sphincters contract, decreaseing the diameter of the blood vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vasodilation

A

Precapillary sphincters relax, widening diameter of the blood vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vascular Shunt

A

Directs blood around the body by the two mechanisms of Vasodilation and Vasoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Starling’s law of the heart

A

Increased venous return will result in a higher stroke volume.
Due to cardiac muscle being stretched, resulting in a stronger force of contraction and greater ejection fraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Controlled by medulla oblongata, is the body’s ‘fight or flight’ system speeding up heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Controlled by Medulla Oblongata, is concerned with ‘rest and digest’, decreasing heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Venous return mechanisms

A

Body’s mechanisms to return blood to the right side of the heart via the vena cava.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Respiratory pump (Venous return mechanisms)

A

Changes of pressure in the thorax compress veins to push blood back towards the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Valves (Venous return mechanisms)

A

Found in veins that prevent backflow of blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Skeletal muscle pump (Venous return mechanisms)

A

Working muscles contract and compress veins to push blood back towards the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

suction pump of the heart (Venous return mechanisms)

A

As the heart relaxes it creates a vacuum which pulls blood back towards the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Smooth muscle (Venous return mechanisms)

A

Found in veins, smooth muscle contracts to push blood back towards the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

The volume of air which could be forcibly expired in addition to tidal volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diffusion

A

The movement of gases from an area of high partial pressure to an area of low partial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Minute ventilation

A

Volume of air inspired or expired per minute.
Breathing rate x Tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

The volume of air which could be forcibly inspired in addition to tidal volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tidal Volume

A

Volume of air breathed in or out per breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Residual Volume

A

The volume of air which must remain in the lungs after maximal expiration.
This is to prevent the lungs from collapsing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Partial pressure

A

The pressure exerted by an individual gas in a mixture of gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

All or none law

A

Impulses arriving at the neuron must reach a threshold level. If they do all of the muscles in the motor unit will contract.
If they don’t none will contract
A motor unit cannot partially contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tetanic contraction

A

A smooth sustained muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fast Oxidative Glycolytic (Type 2a)

A

Produce a high force and speed of contraction, primarily through anaerobic respiration.
Limited aerobic capacity allows some fatigue resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fast glycolytic (Type 2x)

A

Produce the highest force and speed of contraction, via anaerobic respiration.
Highly susceptible to fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Golgi tendon organs

A

Proprioceptors which are active when there are high levels of tension in a muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Motor units

A

A motor neuron and its muscle fibres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Motor neuron

A

The nerve cell which transmit electrical impulses to muscle fibres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Muscle spindles

A

Proprioceptors which detect how far or fast a muscle is stretching, prevent overstretching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PNF

A

Advanced stretching technique, most effective method of increasing range of motion at a joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Spatial Summation

A

The addition of impulses received at the same time, but at a different location to the neuron.
When added together, the impulses are large enough an action potential will be released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Slow twitch (type 1)

A

Low force and speed of contraction, via aerobic respiration.
Highly fatigue resistant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Adduction

A

The movement of a limb towards the midline of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Wave summation

A

Repeated nerve impulse which does not allow the muscle fibres time to fully relax.
This results in a tetanic reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Abduction

A

The movement of a limb away from the midline of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Antagonist

A

The muscle working in opposition to the agonist to help produce a smooth movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Isometric contraction

A

The muscle contracts but no movement occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Transverse axis

A

Through the hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Axis

A

Imaginary line through the body around which it rotates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Agonist

A

The muscle responsible for the movement which is occurring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Articulating bones

A

Where two or more bones meet to allow movement at a joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Longitudinal axis

A

Through the top of the head down and out the bottom of the feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dorsi flexion

A

Decreasing the angle at the ankle joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sagittal axis

A

Through the belly button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Shoulder

A

Ball and socket joint made up of the scapula and humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Elbow

A

Hinge joint, made up of the humerus, radius and ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Flexion

A

Decreasing the angle at a joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Extension

A

Increasing the angle at a joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hip

A

Ball and socket joint, made up of the pelvis and femur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Horizontal adduction

A

Movement of a limb towards the midline of the body while held parallel to the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Horizontal abduction

A

Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body while held parallel to the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hyperextension

A

Increasing the angle at a joint beyond 180 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lactate threshold

A

The point at which lactic acid accumulates quickly in the blood.

44
Q

IsoTONIC concentric

A

The muscle contracts and shortens producing movement.

44
Q

IsoTONIC eccentric

A

The muscle lengthens under tension controlling the speed of the movement caused by gravity.

45
Q

Plane

A

Imaginary lines depicting the direction of movement

45
Q

Knee

A

Hinge joint, made up of femur and tibia.

45
Q

Saggital plane

A

Forewords or backwords (flexion and extension)

45
Q

Frontal plane

A

Left or right (adduction and abduction)

45
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Increasing the angle at the ankle

46
Q

Transverse plane

A

Rotation around the longitudinal axis

46
Q

HIIT training

A

Alternating periods of high intense anaerobic exercise with less intense, aerobic, recovery periods.

47
Q

Externally-paced skill

A

Have their start and speed at which they are performed dictated by external factors.

47
Q

Indirect Calorimetry

A

Provides an estimation of energy expenditure from the amount of carbon dioxide produced and oxygen consumed during rest and steady-state exercise.

47
Q

Lactate sampling

A

A tiny blood sample taken to be analysed by a device.
Measures how much lactate is present in the blood.

48
Q

OBLA (onset of blood lactate accumulation)

A

The point at which lactic acid exceeds 4mmols per litre in the blood.

48
Q

Oxygen deficit

A

The difference between the oxygen required during exercise and the oxygen supplied and utilised.
Occurs at the onset of exercise.

49
Q

Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)

A

The ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen consumed.

50
Q

SAQ training

A

Anaerobic method of training aiming to improve multi-directional movement.

50
Q

Vo2 Max

A

Using a mask on a treadmill in a lab

51
Q

Discrete skill

A

Clear beginning and end.

52
Q

Simple skill

A

Require few decisions to be made when performing, minimal concentration.

52
Q

Continuous skill

A

No clear beginning or end.

52
Q

Serial skill

A

Several skills linked together.

53
Q

Gross skill

A

Large muscle groups

54
Q

Low organisation skill

A

Easy to break down into sub routines.

54
Q

Fine skill

A

Smaller muscle groups

55
Q

Self-paced skill

A

Allow the performer to decide when they start and how fast they perform.

55
Q

Open skill

A

Unstable, ever changing environments.

55
Q

High organisation skill

A

Difficult to break down into sub routines.

55
Q

Closed skill

A

Stable, unchanging environments.

55
Q

Variable practise

A

Repeatedly changing practise types, drills, or situation.

56
Q

Complex skill

A

High levels of decisions, require high concentration.

56
Q

Negative transfer

A

The learning of one skill hinders the learning of another.

56
Q

Zero transfer

A

The learning of one skill has no effect on the learning of another.

56
Q

Positive transfer

A

The learning of one skill aids the learning of another.

56
Q

Distributed practise

A

Practising with rest intervals

56
Q

Bilateral transfer

A

The learning of a skill using a limb on one side of the body can be transferred across the limb on the other side of the body.

56
Q

Whole practise

A

Practising a skill in its entirety.
e.g. subroutine ABC all together.

56
Q

Whole-part-whole practise

A

Demonstrating a skill in its entirety to identify a weakness. Practising the weakness in isolation.
Putting it all back together.

56
Q

Massed practise

A

Practising without rest intervals

56
Q

Progressive part practise

A

Learning the first part of the skill before adding parts one at a time.
‘chaining’.

56
Q

Mental practise

A

Rehearsing a skill in your head with no physical movement.

57
Q

Negative reinforcement (OC SKINNER)

A

The removal of undesirable stimulus after the correct response.

57
Q

Positive reinforcement (OC SKINNER)

A

Introduction of a desirable stimulus following the correct response.

57
Q

Intrinsic feedback

A

Feedback from within the performer.

57
Q

Extrinsic feedback

A

Feedback from external sources.

58
Q

Punishment (OC SKINNER)

A

Introduction of an undesirable stimuli after the incorrect response.

59
Q

Knowledge of results

A

Feedback about the outcome of the skill.

59
Q

Knowledge of performance

A

Feedback about the execution of the skill.

60
Q

Manual guidance

A

A coach can physically support an athlete during a movement.

61
Q

Mechanical guidance

A

The use of artificial aids to support an athlete during a movement.

62
Q

Industrial Revolution

A

The change in Britain from a feudal, rural society, into a capitalist, urban based society controlled by a powerful middle class.

62
Q

Positive feedback

A

Feedback about what went well.

62
Q

Negative feedback

A

Feedback about what went wrong. The correction of errors.

63
Q

Mob football

A

An early form of football played by the lower class.
Played occasionally, using natural resources with limited rules, resulted in being unruly.

63
Q

Visual guidance

A

Providing information which can be observed to bring about an improvement in performance.

63
Q

Verbal Guidance

A

Using spoken words to bring about an improvement in performance.

63
Q

Kinesthesis

A

Your inner awareness of the positioning of your body

64
Q

Feudal system

A

The basis of the two tier class system where the lower class would hold land owned by the upper class in exchange for service and labour.

65
Q

Popular recreation

A

The sport and past times of pre-industrial Britain.

66
Q

Real tennis

A

Also known as ‘royal tennis’, played by upper class on purpose built facilities with specialist equipment.
Had strict rules and a high moral code.

66
Q

Gentleman Amateur

A

Amateurs held high status, best performers demonstrating high morality and sportsmanship.
Held top positions in NGB’s.

67
Q

Working class professionals

A

Working class had to be paid wage to afford to take time off work to play sport so broken time payments emerged creating first professionals.

67
Q

Industrial patronage

A

Factors owners set up some sport teams to decrease absenteeism by encouraging loyalty in the workforce.

67
Q

Wenlock Olympic games

A

Started in 1850, lower class olympics.

67
Q

Media

A

Diversified technologies which act as the main means of mass communication.

67
Q

Rational recreation

A

Development of sport with greater organisation, order and control.
Sports became codified with rules.

67
Q

Commercialisation

A

To manage an organisation in a way designed to make profit.

67
Q

Muscular Christianity

A

The church used sport as a form of social control, promoting christian values.

67
Q

Urbanisation

A

The migration of large numbers of people to towns and cities.

67
Q

Features of an Amateur

A

Takes part in an activity as a hobby.
Has a main job outside the activity.
Takes part in activity for fun.

67
Q

Golden Triangle

A

Link between sports events, sponsorship by businesses and the media.

68
Q

Sponsorship

A

Provides funds to support an individual or event for commercial return.

69
Q

Professional

A

Someone who receives direct payment for their participation in sporting activities.

70
Q

Prejudice

A

A preconceived opinion of an individual that is not based on reason.

71
Q

Social action theory

A

Considers how sport can impact society and social interactions.

72
Q

Primary socialisation

A

Occurs during early childhood via interactions with immediate family.

73
Q

Secondary socialisation

A

Wider group when slightly older, friends, teachers.

74
Q

Social issues

A

Problems which can affect many people within a society.

75
Q

Social control

A

The way people are regulated in social systems.

76
Q

Social change

A

Altering the social order of society.

77
Q

Social stratification

A

Society is divided into different levels based on social characteristics, such as wealth or status.

78
Q

Society

A

An organised group of people associated for a specific purpose or who hold a shared common interest.

79
Q

Sport England

A

Established by Royal charter in 1996, aims to give everyone in England a chance to benefit from physical activity.

80
Q

Stereotyping

A

Simple generalisations made about all members of a group.

81
Q

Three stages of Hollanders model

A

Psychological core
Typical response
Role related behaviour

82
Q

Psychological core (Hollander)

A

Stable characteristics or traits.

83
Q

Typical response (Hollander)

A

Usual or expected behaviour in a given situation, dictated by the psychological core.

84
Q

Role related behaviour (Hollander)

A

How behaviour can be further modified when the situational demands change

85
Q

Lewin’s formula

A

Behaviour is a function of personality and the environment.

86
Q

Trait approach

A

Innate characteristics dictate your personality producing consistent behaviours. (nature)

86
Q

Social learning

A

Personality is learned from significant others via the process of socialisation (nurture)

87
Q

Cognitive dissonance

A

Providing new information to create a feeling of psychological discomfort by challenging an existing attitude.

88
Q

Attitude

A

A value aimed at an attitude object.

89
Q

Arousal

A

A physical and mental state of alertness varying from deep sleep to intense excitement.

90
Q

Triadic model

A

Cognitive, affective, behavioural.

90
Q

Persuasive communication

A

Attempting to talk a person into changing their attitude.

91
Q

Catastrophe theory

A

As arousal increases so does performance, up to a certain point at which a dramatic decrease in performance occurs.

92
Q

Drive theory

A

As arousal increases so does performance.

92
Q

Aggression

A

An emotional response to an individual perceived as a frustrating rival.

93
Q

Cognitive anxiety

A

Psychological reactions, like stress

93
Q

Inverted U theory

A

As arousal increases so does performance up to the optimal point, after so, performance decreases gradually.
Optimal point changes with sport.

93
Q

Competitive trait anxiety

A

An enduring personality trait, giving a tendency to view all competitive situations as threatening.

93
Q

Optimal performance zone (arousal) (peak flow)

A

High focus on task
Movement feels effortless
Clear goals
High levels of self-efficacy
Sub-conscious feelings of control, like being on autopilot.

93
Q

Competitive state anxiety

A

Anxiety felt in a particular competitive situation

93
Q

Somatic anxiety

A

Physiological reactions to stress, like sweating, butterflys, shaking.

93
Q

Aggressive cue hypothesis

A

Frustration will only lead to aggression when learned triggers are present.

94
Q

Assertive behaviour

A

Forceful behaviour which occurs within the rules of the sport.

95
Q

Frustration-aggression hypothesis

A

When a performer is blocked from their goal they become frustrated. Frustration leads to aggression.
Aggressive act will have a cathartic effect on the performer.

96
Q

Instinct theory (of aggression)

A

Aggression is an innate trait.

97
Q

Social learning theory (of aggression)

A

Aggression is a learned response, developed from copying others.

98
Q

Achievement goal theory

A

Motivation is based on type of goal set.
Performance or outcome goals.

99
Q

Incentive value

A

The pride experienced by the individual after success has been achieved.
The harder the task, the greater the incentive value.

100
Q

Characteristics of NACH

A

Seeking out challenging situations
Taking risks
Displaying high levels of task persistence
Valuing feedback
Developing a self-serving bias.

101
Q

Characteristics of NAF

A

Low task persistence
Dislike of feedback or evaluation
Selecting the easy option when choice is available

102
Q

Probability of success

A

The extent to which the performer is likely to complete the task correctly.

103
Q
A