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PC-12 Training > Airframe and Systems > Flashcards

Airframe and Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What types of flaps are fitted on the PC-12?

A

Single piece Fowler flap on each wing

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2
Q

What type of linkage do the controls use?

A

Carbon steel cables and push / pull rods

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3
Q

What type of power is used to operate the aileron, rudder and elevator trim?

A

Electrical

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4
Q

What’s the aileron/rudder interconnect system?

A

It is a system that will coordinate the movements of the aileron and the rudder when either of these controls are subjected to an input from the pilot.

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5
Q

What type of ailerons are fitted on the PC12?

A

Horned ailerons with a balance tab and a rubber seal between the wing and the control surface.

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6
Q

How is pitch trim provided?

A

By changing the position of the horizontal stabilizier

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7
Q

Where can you verify the position of the trims?

A

On the MFD (Systems > Trim).

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8
Q

How does the pitch trim operate?

A

Through an actuator connected to 2 electrical motors. One manual activated by the pilot input and one for the AP which can also serve as a backup trim for the pilot in case of the manual motor failure.

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9
Q

How do you disconnect the trims in case of uncommanded trim operations?

A

By pressing the TRIM INTR switch located in front of the engine control quadrant on the central console.

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10
Q

What are the different flap settings?

A

0°, 15°, 30°, 40°

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11
Q

What type of power source is used to extend or retract the flaps?

A

Electrical

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12
Q

How are the flaps actuated?

A

Through a Power Drive Unit (PDU) that drives screw shafts at the inboard and middle stations that are connected to the flaps arms by flexible shafts.

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13
Q

What happens in case of flaps failure or asymmetry?

A

The Flaps Control and Warning Unit (FCWU) will disconnect the PDU and the CAS will display a caution message on the MFD.

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14
Q

What reference does the FCWU use to assess the correct flap position?

A

It uses the sensor in the flap lever position as a reference. It the cross-checks the data from this sensor with the data received from the other sensors located on the center and inner flap actuating arms.

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15
Q

What happens if the flap breaker pops out?

A

It can be reset after waiting at least 5 minutes and this reset is limited to two tries maximum.
This is the ONLY breaker that can be reset during flight.

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16
Q

What does an amber cross mean on the trim indication of the MFD?

A

Invalid trim status

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17
Q

What would happen if the trim is not configured for T-O when on the ground?

A

The trim aircraft symbol would appear white instead of green and the CAS would show a Take off configuration advisory.

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18
Q

What does an amber cross over the flap position display mean?

A

Invalid flap position or status.

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19
Q

When will the Flight Alerting System trigger a NO TAKEOFF warning?

A

When on the ground and you’re not in the take-off configuration or the condition lever is not at flight idle and the engine torque is increased beyond 20 psi with an airspeed < 50 KIAS.
There will be a “NO TAKEOFF” warning displayed on the PFD and an aural “No takeoff” voice will callout.

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20
Q

How is the landing gear operated?

A

With an electrically driven hydraulic pump.

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21
Q

What happens if you suffer an hydraulic failure while the landing gear is retracted?

A

A nitrogen filled accumulator maintains the landing gear retracted. If required, the landing gear can be extendend through a combination of free-falling and the emergency landing gear hand pump.

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22
Q

How does the nosewheel steering work?

A

By mechanical nosewheel steering and differential braking.

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23
Q

How is the landing gear held in the retracted position?

A

By hydraulic pressure only (no mechanical up-lock whatsoever).

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24
Q

Where’s the hydraulic bay located?

A

At the root of the left wing.

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25
Q

Where can you visualy inspect the hydraulic fluid level?

A

During the preflight when the cargo door is open on the side of the wing root.

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26
Q

How is the hydraulic pump powered?

A

Electrically by the secondary power line.

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27
Q

How is the hydraulic control circuit powered?

A

Electrically by the essential bus.

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28
Q

In case of failure the power pack, how long is the nitrogen filled accumulator supposed to maintain pressure in the system?

A

200 min at least.

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29
Q

Is there a ground proximity detection system in the PC-12?

A

Yes, the Modular Avionics Unit.

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30
Q

What does an amber cross mean on the gear indicator lights?

A

No data / Unknown status

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31
Q

What does a “Hydraulic Caution” CAS indicator mean?

A

In flight:
It means that the power pack pump has been operating for atleast 2 minutes
OR
That the main system pressure has fallen below the operational limits (1.800 psi)

On the ground:
It means that the power pack pump has been triggered at least 6 times in 1 hour during flight, which might indicate either an abnormal pressure leak rate or a low hydraulic fluid level.

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32
Q

When will the Flight Alerting System (FAS) sound and display a “Gear” warning?

A

It will be triggered during flight if the landing gear is not down and locked and at least one of the following conditions are encountered:
1. Speed < 130 KIAS and PCL at idle
2. Flaps are set to 30° or 40°
3. Radar altitude < 200 ft and power setting < 10 psi

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33
Q

In case of hydraulic failure, how do you extend the landing gear?

A
  1. Reduce speed to 110 KIAS and move the gear lever down to try extending the gear through gravity.

If landing gear is not fully extended:

  1. Use the manual gear extension lever to pump until the gear is fully extended down and locked. It takes 60 to 80 strokes to fully extend the landing gear down.

You can also yaw the aircraft to use the aerodynamic load to assist in the extension.

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34
Q

Where does the Modular Avionics Unit (MAU) get the data to feed the air/ground system?

A
  1. Main landing gear proximity switches
  2. Radar altimeter
  3. Calibrated Air Speed
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35
Q

Which systems is the air/ground signal fed to?

A

The LH air/ground signal feeds:
- Hydraulics
- Propeller de-ice
- Flaps
- ECS
- LH stick pusher computer
- Flight time counter

The RH air/ground signal feeds:
- RH stick pusher computer
- Weather radar
- Logo lights (when fitted)

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36
Q

What happens in case of air/ground signal failure of the MAU?

A

If one signal fails and the others are correct, the faulty signal will be detected and disregarded.
If several signals are conflicting, the CAS will display an “Air/Ground Fail” caution.

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37
Q

What happens if both pilots press the brake pedals at the same time?

A

The one applying the greatest force will control the brakes.

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38
Q

What would happen to the brakes in case of a failure of the aircraft main hydraulic system?

A

Nothing. The brakes use an independent hydraulic circuit and reservoir.

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39
Q

Where is the brake fluid reservoir located?

A

On the RH side of the cabin sidewall. It incorporates a fluid level indicator.

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40
Q

How do you set / release the parking brake?

A

To set the parking brake:
1. Pull the T-handle fully out and rotate it
2. Evenly apply the pedal brakes
3. Release the pedal brakes to finish setting the parking brakes

To release the parking brake:
1. Rotate and push the T-handle fully in

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41
Q

How many fusible plugs are there on the main landing gears and what are they for?

A

There are 3 fuses on each landing gear that will melt and deflate the tires when the brakes are too hot to avoid bursting the tires.

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42
Q

Where are the life vests in the cockpit?

A

Under the pilots seats.

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43
Q

What are the dimensions of the passenger door?

A

1.35 m x 0.6 m

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44
Q

How do you close the cargo door.

A

It closes almost completely by using an electrical motor, the switch of which is located aft of the cargo door on the outside of the plane.
The motor is connected to the HOT BATTERY BUS and is diconnected by a microswitch operated by the drive mechanism when the door is almost closed.
Once it has reached this position, you then have to finish closing the door manually.

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45
Q

What happens if the Pax or Cargo door is not properly closed?

A

The CAS will show a Pax / Cargo door warning.

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46
Q

What type of de-icing system is used on the windshield?

A

It uses electrical resistances embbeded in the wind shield that can raise the temperature up to 60°C.
Once the windshield has reached this temperature, a temperature sensor will automatically deactivate the de-icing system to avoid over-heating.

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47
Q

How many windows are there in the cabin?

A

5 on the right and 4 on the left.

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48
Q

Where are the emergency exits in the cabin?

A

The pax door.
The cargo door.
The overwing exit.

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49
Q

How does the PT6 compressor avoid stalls?

A

By way of a bleed air valve installed on the compressor.

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50
Q

What’s the ITT and where is it measured?

A

It is the engine Inter Turbine Temperature and is measured between the conmpressor tubine and the two power turbines.

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51
Q

Where’s the oil tank located on the PT6?

A

Near the accesory gearbox.

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52
Q

How do you prevent icing on the air inlet cowling?

A

By using the hot exhaust gas to pass through a duct in the cowling.

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53
Q

What is the plenum?

A

It is an air filter surrounding the conpressor air inlet.

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54
Q

Can you use the inertial separator during take-off?

A

Yes.

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55
Q

How is the inertial separator activated?

A

Electrically via an actuator.

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56
Q

When should you use the inertial separator?

A

In icing conditions or in a Foreign Objects Debris (FOD) environment.

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57
Q

How does the Inertial Separator work for FOD?

A

It will opne an outlet at the back of the duct, thus increasing the inlet speed flow, accelerating heavy particles that will not be sent to the plenum and instead expelled via the outlet.

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58
Q

How does the inertial separator work in icing conditions?

A

In icing conditions, the mesh screen that is partly covering the plenum will freeze, thus restricting the flow of solid particles to reach the plenum, further filtering the air.

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59
Q

What’s the main disadvantage of using the inertial separator?

A

It will overall reduce the airflow sent to the engine, thus reducing the amount of power available.

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60
Q

What should you do in case of a failure of the inertial separator?

A

Exit icing conditions immediately.

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61
Q

What are the three levers used to control engine power?

A

From left to right: The MOR, the PCL, the condition lever.

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62
Q

What does the idle detent do on the PCL?

A

It separates the ground range (aft) from the flight range (foreward).
While forward of the idle detent at low speed, the PCL will directly control the propeller pitch. If the PCL is moved further forward and the aircraft speeds up, the CSU will take control of the propeller pitch.
The beta range (reverse) is part of the ground range.

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63
Q

What’s Ng?

A

It is the percentage of maximum power of the gas generator (compressor).

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64
Q

What does the MOR do?

A

It takes over when the pneumatic fuel control system (using bellows) fails.
It mechanically compresses the bellows (Py pressure) located in the Fuel Control Unit (FCU).

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65
Q

What happens in case of a Py leak?

A

A Py leak will result in a loss of PCL authority.
The engine will then spool down to minimum fuel flow (90 lbs/h) and Ng will drop to 35% Ng on the ground or 70% Ng at 30.000 ft.
The MOR might not be able to deliver max engine power though and when the MOR system is in use, the torque limiter will be inoperalbe.

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66
Q

What are some of the risks of using the MOR?

A

Using the MOR might result in excessive torque which may damage the engine or in excessive fuel flow which may cause an engine flame out.

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67
Q

When can you use the starter to help recover Ng?

A

When Ng drops below 50%. The starter won’t engage above 50% Ng.

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68
Q

What is the Fuel Control Unit (FCU)?

A

It is the system that controls the fuel flow sent to the combustion chamber.
It is connected to the MOR, PCL and condition lever.
It also comprises a return line to manage the amount of fuel sent to the engine.

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69
Q

What is the purpose of the dump valve?

A

It uses the air held in a purge air accumulator to purge the manifolds of remaining fuel at engine shut down.
The purpose of this purging mechanism is to avoid a hot start on the next engine start-up.

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70
Q

How do you visually inspect the oil level in the oil tank?

A

By watching the visual gauge on the left side of the engine casing.
The oil level must be in the green range.

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71
Q

What are the magnetic chip detectors and where are they located?

A

They are magnetic drains that are installed in the oil circuit to detect and filter magnetised contaminant in the oil.
There are two of them in the oil circuit located in the reduction gearbox and in the accessory gearbox.

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72
Q

Where are the oil pressure and temperature sensors located?

A

On the outbound duct between the oil tank and the different parts of the engine to which the oil will be distributed.

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73
Q

What’s the torquemeter and where is it located?

A

It is located on the front engine casing.
As torque increases, the oil pressure in the reduction gearbox increases as well.
This pressure will be tranmitted to a series of bellows that will open a bleed valve that will bleed off Py air which will result in a decreased FCU fuel flow causing engine speed and engine torque to decrease.

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74
Q

What’s the limit of the torque limiter and is it effective during take-off?

A

The torque limit is set to 44.3 psi (AMSL).
The torque limiter will technically be effective during take-off but it remains the responsibility of the pilot to check that the engine parameters are within limits.

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75
Q

What is the torque flat rating?

A

It is the maximum torque to be applied to the engine given the conditions of the day and the limitations of the airfield.
It should be computed before every take-off by using the performance charts.

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76
Q

Once you engage the starter, under which conditions will it automatically disengage?

A

After the Ng reaches 50% or 80 sec ON (60 sec for an air start).

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77
Q

How is the electrical power distributed during start-up?

A
  1. If ground power is used, it will be providing power for both the essential systems and the starter.
  2. Otherwise, BAT 2 will provide power to the starter and BAT 1 will be alimenting the essential airplane systems.
  3. At 10% Ng or 10 sec after activation, BAT 1 will also connect to the starter to boost its capability.
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78
Q

How to improve starter efficiency with a cold engine (oil temperature < 5°C)?

A
  1. At 13% Ng, instead of moving the condition lever to ground idle, move it to flight idle to provide extra fuel flow and Py.
  2. At 50% Ng, move the condition lever back to ground idle.
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79
Q

What are the risks of starting the engine in high OAT or to apply heavy electric loads shortly after start-up?

A

The engine RPM (Ng) might be a bit low, which will cause the propeller to enter cautionary or warning mode.

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80
Q

How do you correct for a propeller warning mode after start-up?

A
  1. Move the condition lever to flight idle.
  2. Reduce electrical load on the system.
  3. Close the bleed air valve.
  4. Move the PCL aft of the idle detent to reduce proeller pitch.
  5. If Np > 950 RPM shut down the engine and request maintenance check.

Normal procedures should be resumed prior to taxi.

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81
Q

Can you use flight idle on the ground?

A

Technically, yes but it is not recommended as it might require continuous brakes application during taxi which might result in hot brakes > blown up fuse plug > flat tire.

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82
Q

How many igniters (spark plugs) are there and where are they located?

A
  1. There are 2 spark plugs
  2. They are located on the engine cowling (combustion chamber section) at 4 and 9 o’clock.
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83
Q

What does the ON position of the IGNITION switch do?

A
  1. It continuously ignites the spark plugs until switched off.
  2. It must be turned ON in heavy precipitations.
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84
Q

What does the AUTO poistion of the IGNITION switch do?

A

It will automatically ignite the spark plugs when ITT < 500°C with Ng > 10% and will automatically stop after 10 sec when ITT > 500°C or when Ng < 10%.

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85
Q

What type of fire detction system is used in the engine?

A
  1. The fire detection system is composed of a tube in wich a hydrogen-charged core is surrounded by helium gas.
  2. When the temperature increases past a certain point, the core will emit hydrogen, increasing the pressure in the tube that will shift a metalic diaphragm pressing on a small metallic pin to trigger the alarm.
  3. The normal pressure of the helium in the tube is used to hold an integrity switch between two metallic plates. In case of a leak in the tube, the pressure will be lost, thus releasing the integrity switch and triggering a fault caution on the PFD.
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86
Q

What is the material used for the propellers?

A

4-blades: Aluminium
5-blades: Composite

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87
Q

What’s the propeller diameter?

A

2.67 m

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88
Q

What type of de-icing system is installed on the propeller blades?

A

Electric de-ice boots.

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89
Q

How does the pitch change mechanism work?

A
  1. It uses the engine oil.
  2. The oil is pressurized by a pump located in the CSU.
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90
Q

What’s Np?

A

The propeller speed (RPM).

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91
Q

To which bus is the propeller feathering mechanism connected?

A

The Essential Bus.

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92
Q

Where is the pitch control mechanism located?

A

In the propeller hub.

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93
Q

What’s the relationship between oil pressure and blade pitch?

A

Low pressure = feather
Medium pressure = fine pitch
High pressure = beta range

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94
Q

What’s the minimum RPM for ground operations?

A

950 RPM

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95
Q

Where are the OAT sensors located?

A

There is one under the left wing called the “controller” and one under the right wing called the “comparator”.

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96
Q

What’s the minimu pitch (finest pitch) for flight operations?

A

6°

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97
Q

How is fuel symmetry maintained?

A

Automatically by the Fuel Control and Monitoring Unit (FCMU).

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98
Q

Where are the fule drains located?

A
  1. One under each wing for the tanks.
  2. 2 in the fuel service bay (fuel filter and air separator) located left of the nose wheelwell.
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99
Q

What is each tank’s max usable fuel quantity?

A

201 USG

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100
Q

What type of fuel quantity probes are installed in the tanks?

A

Capacitance probes connected to the FCMU.

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101
Q

What does the FUEL EMERG SHUT-OFF handle activate?

A

It mechanically shuts off the firewall valve.

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102
Q

What are the booster pumps used for and where are they located?

A

They are located in each wing’s collector tank and are used for:
1. Providing fuel pressure during engine start.
2. Fuel balancing
3. Maintaining fuel pressure in case of pressure loss in the circuit.

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103
Q

What are the 2 modes available for booster pumps and what do they do?

A
  1. In the ON mode, the pump operates continuously.
  2. In the AUTO mode (normal operations), the pump will activate in case of a fuel imbalance or if fuel pressure drops below 2 PSI.
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104
Q

Can the booster pump supply pressure to the system all by itself?

A

Yes.

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105
Q

When will the booster pumps start transfering fuel?

A

When the fuel imbalance is 68 lbs or more.

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106
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance that the booster pump can handle?

A

267 lbs

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107
Q

What should you do in case of failure of the booster pumps?

A

Manually select “ON” on the FUEL PUMP switch until the fuel imbalance is resolved.

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108
Q

Where does the FCMU draw power from?

A

Essential bus + Main bus

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109
Q

What does a green “PUMP” below the analog scale in the fuel window of the PFD mean?

A

It means that the booster pump is on.

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110
Q

What is the fuel reset button end when is it used?

A
  1. It is used after refueling to reset the total amount of fuel on board.
  2. It can also be used during longer flights to enter a more accurate (and less conservative) measurement of the remaining fuel on board.
    2.1. While used in flight the wings must be leveled, pitch +/- 3° and no turbulences to provide an accurate reading.
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111
Q

What’s the maximum fuel imbalance allowed on take-off?

A

0 lbs

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112
Q

When will the Fuel Low indication appear on the CAS?

A

When there is less 20 USG left in the tank.

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113
Q

When will the CAS display a Fuel Imbalance caution?

A

When the fuel imbalance reaches 178 lbs or more.

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114
Q

Which bus are the booster pumps connected to?

A

The Essential Bus.

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115
Q

What’s the PGDS?

A

It is a 28V DC Power Generation & Distribution System

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116
Q

What are the constitutive elements of the PGDS?

A
  1. Generator 1, 28V, 300A
  2. Generator 2, 28V, 300A
  3. 2 batteries of 24V each
  4. An Emergency Power Supply (EPS) 24V lead-acid battery
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117
Q

What is the PGDS configuration?

A
  1. Generator 1 supplies power to the systems connected to channel 1.
  2. Generator 2 supplies power to the systems connected to channel 2.
  3. In case of generator failure, the remaining working generator can be connected to both channels through a bus tie.
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118
Q

What will the PGDS do in case of one of the generator’s failure?

A
  1. The remaining generator will automatically connect to both channels by closing the tie breaker.
  2. It will automatically shed non-essential electric loads to avoid overloading the remaining generator.
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119
Q

What does Gen 1 supply energy to?

A
  1. The essential bus
  2. The avionic 1 bus
  3. The standby bus (via the avionc 1 bus or Hot bat bus ico the avionic 1 bus failure)
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120
Q

What does Gen 2 supply power to?

A
  1. The main bus
  2. The avionic 2 bus
  3. The non-essential bus
  4. The cabin bus
  5. The engine starter
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121
Q

Where are batteries 1 & 2 located?

A

In the rear fuselage.

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122
Q

What happens when you use the EXT PWR switch?

A

If an external power source is connected, it will close the tie bus to provide power to both channels.

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123
Q

For how much time can the Emergency Power Supply (EPS) battery provide power?

A

30 min

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124
Q

What happens when in case of a complete power failure of both generators and both batteries?

A

The EPS bus will be supplied by the EPS battery and the EPS battery will supply channels 1 & 2.

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125
Q

What are the Power Junction Boxes (PJB)?

A

They contain contactors, relays and other circuit protections.

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126
Q

Where are the PJBs located?

A
  1. Cockpit lower left wall for Gen 1
  2. Cockpit lower right wall for Gen 2
  3. In the rear fuselage for the Batteries and External Power (BEPJB)
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127
Q

Which type of systems does the Hot battery bus supply?

A

The systems that must remain available when the aircraft is powered down.
This is why the hot battery bus is connected directly to battery 1.

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128
Q

Which systems are supplied by channel 1? (6)

A
  1. Essantial bus
  2. Avionic 1 bus
  3. Flaps
  4. LH windshield de-ice
  5. Prop de-ice
  6. Cabin heating
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129
Q

Which buses have the highest level of integrity?

A

The Essential and the Avionic 1 buses.
They can be supplied from both generators and both batteries and will be powered in normal, abnormal and emergency situations.

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130
Q

Which systems are supplied by channel 2? (8)

A
  1. Main bus
  2. Avionic 2 bus
  3. Non-essential bus
  4. Cabin bus
  5. Hydraulics
  6. RH windshield de-ice
  7. VCCS
  8. Floor heating
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131
Q

Which buses have the second highest level of integrity?

A

The Main and Avionic 2 buses.
They can be supplied from both generators and will be powered under normal and abnormal conditions.
Under emergency condotions, the contactor switch of the main bus will open and its load will be shed.

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132
Q

When do you use the standby power bus?

A
  1. Before engine start for pre-flight and ATC comms.
  2. During an emergency situation if additional load shedding is required, switch off AV 1 bus and switch on standby power bus.
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133
Q

What constitutes a normal, abnormal and emergency situation in the electrical system?

A

Normal = Both generators operating
Abnormal = 1 generator OFF
Emergency = Both generators OFF

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134
Q

Which bus bar breakers are located on the LH breaker panel?

A

Front = Essential bus
Rear = AV 1, EPS, Standby and Gen 1 buses

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135
Q

Which bus bar breakers are located on the RH breaker panel?

A

Front = Main and Non-essential buses
Rear = AV 2, Cabin and Gen 2 buses

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136
Q

What is VCCS?

A

Vapor Cycle Cooling System (Air conditioning)

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137
Q

Where are the breakers for high current consuming systems located (windshield heating, hydraulics, flaps, etc…)

A

On the respective left and right hand PJBs, except for the VCCS and logo light breakers which are located on the BEPJB.

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138
Q

Can you open and close the bus tie breaker manually (located on the overhead panel)?

A

Yes

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139
Q

What happens if the MASTER POWER EMEGENCY swith is turned OFF?

A

It disconnects all generators, batteries and external powers.
Only le Hot Battery and Emergency Power buses will remain powered.

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140
Q

What is the RESET position on the GEN 1 and GEN 2 switches used for?

A

It is used to allow the generator back on line after a voltage regulator trip.

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141
Q

What happens when you put the EPS switch in the ARM position?

A

It powers up the EPS bus.

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142
Q

What does a positive BAT current indication displayed on the MFD mean?

A

The battery is charging.

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143
Q

Which voltage/amps conditions will trigger a battery caution message on the CAS?

A
  1. Battery voltage outside of the 22 V / 30.3 V envelope.
  2. Battery current > 60 Amps.
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144
Q

When will the CAS display a Generator caution message?

A

When the voltage is outside of the 22 V / 30.3 V envelope.

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145
Q

What’s the correct power up sequence? (4)

A
  1. STBY BUS > ON
  2. EPS > Test (5 sec) then ON
  3. BAT 1 & 2 > ON
  4. EXT PWR > As required

To expedite, STBY BUS and EPS > ON before pre-flight and BAT 1 & BAT 2 ON before sitting down.

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146
Q

What’s the correct power down sequence?

A
  1. EXT PWR > OFF
  2. STBY BUS > OFF
  3. EPS > OFF
  4. BAT 1 & 2 > OFF
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147
Q

What does a blue ON indicator after switching the STBY BUS ON mean?

A

Power is available from Hot battery bus.
It will turn off automaticaly once Avionic 1 comes online after engine start.

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148
Q

What precaution should you take prior to applying external power?

A

BAT 1 & 2 > ON

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149
Q

In case of dual generator failure, which loads in channel 2 will remain powered?

A

Hydraulics only.

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150
Q

What’s the duration of the timer of the passeger door light?

A

45 sec

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151
Q

Where are the landing lights located?

A

One on each main LDG gear.

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152
Q

Where is the taxi light located?

A

On the nose LDG gear.

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153
Q

Where are the beacon lights located?

A
  1. One under the fuselage near the center.
  2. One on top of the horizontal stabilizer.
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154
Q

When should the beacon be turned on?

A
  1. On the ground when engine is running (like the strobes)
  2. In the air when you require extra anti-collision protection (like strobes)
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155
Q

What are RECOG lights and where are they mounted?

A

If fitted, they are located in the leading edge of each wing and are used to provide extra visibility.

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156
Q

What is the Evironmental Control System (ECS)?

A

It is the system that controls the air conditioning, pressurization and cabin temperature.
It comprises:
1. Air Cycle System (ACS) (= Pack)
2. Auxiliary heaters
3. Vapor Cycle Cooling System (VCCS) (if fitted)
4. Vent fans (if VCCS not fitted)

The ECS is the global A/C system.
The ACS is the main A/C system.
The auxiliary heaters are heating boosters.
The VCCS are cooling boosters.

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157
Q

What does the ACS do?

A

It bleeds air from the engine, cools it, mixes it with warm air and delivers it to the cabin air distribution system. It is basically a pack.

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158
Q

What are the different stages of the ACS?

A
  1. Control venturi (bleed air collector)
  2. Heat exchanger (using ram air as coolant)
  3. Cooling turbine
  4. Temperature Control Valve (TCV)
  5. Water separator
  6. High pressure shutoff valve
  7. Firewall shutoff valve
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159
Q

What is the TCV for?

A

To mix cold and warm air and control the A/C temperature.

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160
Q

What is the high pressure shutoff valve for?

A

To maintain proper cabin pressurization schedule based on the phase of flight by selecting from which stage of the compressor the air will be bled (P3 or P2.5).
P2.5 is used in “normal” phases of flight.
P.3 is used when Ng drops below a certain value (when the engine is idling for example).

161
Q

How does the firewall shutoff valve operate?

A

It isolates the system ico engine fire and opens a ram air scoop on the right fuselage underside.

162
Q

How does the TCV control the air temperautre?

A

By controlling the amount of air passing through the heat exchanger or bypassing it.

163
Q

Why are there non-return valves downstream of the firewall shutoff valve?

A

To prevent depressurization in the event of a loss of the cabin air supply.

164
Q

Can you inhibit bleed on T-O (when departing from an elevated airport with high temperatures for example)?

A

Yes, by selecting INHIBIT on the ACS bleed air switch.

165
Q

What is the auxiliary heating system?

A

It is comprised of two fans and two resistances.
One is dedicated to healing the cabin and the other heats the avionics bay.
Both of them are located under the cabin floor.

166
Q

What’s the operating range of the auxiliary heating system?

A

+5°C to +11°C

167
Q

What is the VCCS and how does it operate?

A

It is a cooling A/C system using a regrigerant gas to absorb the heat from the cabin air which is then cycled back into the cabin via the flood fans.
The VCCS is automatically activated by the ECS when a cooler temperature is selected by the pilot.

168
Q

What does the INHIBIT function of the FLOOD switch do?

A

It reduces airflow and noise generated by the VCCS.
The same effect can be obtain by switching FANS to LOW.

169
Q

During normal operation, what should be the position of the ECS switches?

A

AUTO

170
Q

What maximum temperature variation between the cockpit and the cabin can the ECS support?

A

+/- 5°C

171
Q

What does it mean when the cockpit temperature increases during descent?

A

It is a normal tendency of the system to overheat in descent.
It can be mitigated by using the overhead recirculation fans outlet.
If depiste the use of the recirculation fans the cockpit remains warm, it might be caused by an OAT ISA deviation or it could mean one of the elements of the system may have failed.

172
Q

Can the auxiliary heaters / VCCS be operated without the engine running?

A

Yes, but only with external power plugged in.

173
Q

What’s the CPCS and what does it comprise?

A

Cabin Presurisation Control System, it is composed of:
1. An electrically driven Outflow Valve (OFV)
2. A pneumatic safety Pressur Relief Valve (PRV)
3. Two Negative Pressure Relief Valves (NPRVs)
4. A dual channel Cabin Pressure Control Unit (CPCU) OR a dual channel Cabin Pressure Electronic Control and Monitoring Unit (ECMU) depending on the system that is fitted on the airplane.

174
Q

What do the CPCU / ECMU do?

A

They control cabin pressure by controling the rate of exhaust of the cabin air (it is the “computer” that will CONTROL the pressurization system).

175
Q

What is the mode of the CPCSfor normal operations?

A

Fully automatic.

176
Q

What is the “Low Cabin” mode of the CPCS?

A

It is a mode that is used for shorter / low altitude flights and will set the cabin altitude to within +/- 5.75 psi of the Landing Field Elevation (LFE).

177
Q

What’s the main difference between a CPCU and the EMCU?

A

In case of a fault, they will react differently:
1. ico a fault of one of the CPCU channels, it will automatically switch to activate the other channel.
2. ico a fault of one of the EMCU channels, the pilot will have to switch manually to the other channel.

In both cases, the secondary channels are powered via the EPS bus.

178
Q

What is the OFV (Outflow Valve) and how does it work?

A

It is the valve that allows the CPCS to modulate the pressure in the cabin and to set it to the pre-determined value. It is operated by two electric motors (one for each channel).

179
Q

What is the PRV (Pressure Relief Valve) and how does it work?

A
  1. It is a valve that is used only to equalize the pressure differential when it becomes excessive.
    2.It will equalize both an over-pressure and an under-pressure. 3. It is actuated pneumatically.
  2. Although it is a part of the global CPCS, it is a completely independant system that is not operated by the CPCU.
180
Q

What are the NPRVs (Negative Pressure Relief Valves?

A

They are non-return valves that provide a second means to relieve cabin pressure.
They supplement the PRV but only for negative pressure differentials.

181
Q

What is the default altitude of the LFE (Landing Field Elevation) for the CPCS?

A

10.000 ft

182
Q

Which altitude datum does the CPCS use to modulate pressure during a descent / climb?

A
  1. Descent = LFE
  2. Climb = Actual altitude
183
Q

When will the CPCS activate and start modulating the cabin pressure?

A

When climbing or descending 1.300 ft.

184
Q

What is the OFV setting on the ground?

A

Fully open.

185
Q

What’s the maximum cabin altitude that can be reached?

A

Theoretically, 14.500 - 14.800 ft depending on which system is fitted.
Above this limit, the CPCS will automatically close the OFV (unless the CPCS is being operated manually).

186
Q

Which differential pressure will trigger the caution alert on the CAS?

A

+6 psi / -0.15 psi

187
Q

What’s the ESIS?

A
  1. Electronic Standby Instrument System.
  2. It is directly connected to the right wing pitot tube and both static ports without passing by the ADAHRS.
188
Q

How is the ADAHRS powered?

A
  1. Channel A via ESS BUS
  2. Channel B via MAIN BUS
189
Q

How many pitot tubes are there and where are they located?

A

2, one under each wing.

190
Q

What are the two types of stall protection systems available?

A
  1. AoA indicator
  2. Stick shaker/pusher
191
Q

What’s the Dynamic speed bug?

A

It provides an indication on the speed tape that corresponds to 1.3 Vs.
It is computed from the AoA indicator.

192
Q

What does the top of the red band on the speed tape indicate?

A

The speed at which the stick shaker will activate.

193
Q

Where are the AoA indicators located?

A

One on the LE of each wing.

194
Q

What happens if the stick shaker activates while the A/P is ON?

A

The A/P will disconnect.

195
Q

Can the pilot overpower the stick pusher?

A

Yes, but a significant amount of force must be applied on the yoke.

196
Q

When will the stick pusher activate?

A

When both computers sense that a stall is imminent but not before 5 sec have elapsed since lift-off.

197
Q

What controls the stick shaker / pusher systems?

A

2 computers are computing various data from the plane such as AoA, PCL position, flaps position, etc… and will send a signal to the stick mechanism if it senses that the aircraft is approaching stall conditions.

198
Q

How many computers are needed to activate the stick shaker?

A

1

199
Q

How is energy provided to the stick pusher / shaker computers?

A
  1. LH computer from ESS BUS
  2. RH computer from MAIN BUS
200
Q

How do you conduct the stick pusher test?

A
  1. Flaps 15°
  2. Torque > 5 psi
  3. Press the stick pusher test button one the overhead panel.
201
Q

What’s the pusher ice mode?

A
  1. It’s a more conservative mode that the stick shaker / pusher computers enter when icing conditions are met.
  2. In this mode, the shaker / pusher will activate at AoA = 8° and the dynamic speed but will be set to the flaps 15° LDG position.
202
Q

Can you reset the Flaps Interrupt switch to NORM once you’ve set it to INTR in flight?

A

No, even if there is no flap fault detected.

203
Q

What type of PT6 engines are fitted on the different PC-12 variants?

A
  1. Legacy = PT6A-67B
  2. NG = PT6A-67P
  3. NGX = PT6A-67XP (+ FADEC)
204
Q

What’s the Nf?

A

The rotation speed of the power turbine.
It is not provided to nor controlled by the pilot but rather by internal engine systems.

205
Q

What is T1?

A

It is the temperature of the air at the intake.
The probe is located in the air intake.
In case of failure of the probe, the underwing OAT probes will be used instead.

206
Q

What’s an engine surge?

A

It happens at low PWR when the axial compressor stages produce more air than the centrifugal compressor can handle.
This will result in air flow reversing in the compressor, increasing the pressure and potentially damaging the components.
A compressor bleed valve is installed to bleed the excess air when the pressure rises too high.

207
Q

How much of the total power is produced by the exhaust?

A

About 6%

208
Q

How many blades does the NGX prop have?

A

5 (composite)

209
Q

What’s the Electronic Propeller and Engine Control System (EPECS) and what does it comprise?

A

It is the electronic system that manages the prop and engine (FADEC).
It comprises:
1. The Electronic Engine Controller (EEC)
2. The Data Collection and Transmission Unit (DCTU, connected to P&W)
3. The Propeller Control Unit (PCU = prop regulator)

210
Q

What is the prop speed in ground idle?

A

1060 RPM

211
Q

What’s the prop speed in reverse operations?

A

1650 RPM

212
Q

What’s the prop speed in low speed mode?

A

1550 RPM

213
Q

When is it prohibited to use the Prop Low Speed mode?

A

In icing conditions or when YD is inop.

214
Q

How long can the PCL remain in the same position in the beta range?

A

30 sec afterwards, the EPECS will enter a degraded mode.

215
Q

How do you correct the EPECS degraded mode?

A

You have to initiate a full power reset of the aircraft.

216
Q

How does the PCU maintain control the speed of the propeller?

A
  1. It will automatically modify the speed of the propeller when the engine speed varies to maintain 1700 RPM.
  2. When in the low speed mode, ground idle or the beta range, the EEC will send a signal to the PCU to modify the pitch accordingly.
  3. The lower the speed of the engine, the more the PCU will increase the oil pressure in the knob to counteract the effects of the counterweight and the spring and the finer the pitch will become.
    In cruise, the engine will spin rapidly and the PCU will set a coarser blade pitch to maintain 1700 RPM.
217
Q

What’s the minimum pitch that the blades can have without entering the beta range?

A

6°, below this value, a “Prop Low Pitch” warning will appear on the MFD.

218
Q

Is there a redundancy for the EPECS?

A

No but the EPECS uses 2 independant channels to communicate with the EEC or the PCU.
In case one channel fails, an advisory “EPECS fault” will appear.

219
Q

What does a “Prop de-ice” caution message indicate?

A

That the electrical elenergy supplied to the heating system is either too high or too low.

220
Q

Can AVGAS be used in the PC-12?

A

Yes, in the limit of 150 hrs between overhauls, so it should only be used in emergency situations.

221
Q

What’s the maximum fuel mass that can be carried in the PC-12?

A

2736.5 lbs / 2703.6 (usable)

222
Q

What does the fuel delivery system look like?

A

Main tank > Jet pump 1 > Collector tank > Jet pump 2 > Engine delivery system

223
Q

When are the booster pumps located in the collector tanks put to use?

A
  1. During start up
  2. When low fuel pressure is detected
  3. When fuel imbalance is detected
224
Q

What must be done after connecting the batteries for start up?

A

Wait for the auto pilot pre-start servo calibration and the CAS advisory messages (A/P, YD and FD) to extinguish before taking further actions towards engine start.

225
Q

What’s the maximum fuel imbalance allowed on T-O?

A

3 LCD segments or about 135 lbs.

226
Q

Should you add Prist to the fuel of the NGX?

A

No. However, the use of additive in the fuel is allowed and will not degrade engine performance (as long as the proportions are in balance).

227
Q

In case a low pressure situation has been detected and successfully mitigated, when would the booster pumps stop operating?

A

10 sec after fuel pressure has returned to normal.

228
Q

What is the maximum amount of fuel that the booster pumps can balance before disengaging?

A

6 LCD segments or about 270 lbs.

229
Q

When should you suspect a low fuel pressure?

A

When you see the fuel pump indicator lights cycling on and off.

230
Q

When will a “LH/RH fuel low” indication appear on the MFD?

A

When there is less than 133 lbs left in each tank or about 20 USG.

231
Q

What should you do in case of a “Fuel quantity fault” caution message?

A

Disconnect the A/P every 20 min to check for a possible fuel imbalance.

232
Q

What should you do if you suspect a fuel leakage in the RH tank?

A
  1. RH booster pump > ON
  2. LH fuel pump CB > Pull
  3. Monitor fuel imbalance closely and consider landing ASAP if fuel imbalance approaching max allowed LDG fuel imbalance (5 LCD segments or about 225 lbs)
233
Q

What should you do in case of a “Fuel imbalance fault” caution indication?

A

Reset the CB on the affected side.

234
Q

What does the “Fuel IMPending bypass” caution message indicate?

A

The fuel filter might be obstructed and the fuel is bypassing the filter.
In this case, a fuel temperature consideration should be observed.
Keep in mind that:
1. The more power you use, the colder the fuel will get so you should reduce PWR as much as possible.
2. Extending the LDG gear will additionally cool the oil which will reduce the effect of the fuel/oil heat exchanger and might reduce the temperature of the fuel.
3. Maintain your gliding capabilities ico engine failure.

235
Q

What happens when you switch the windshield ice protection on “Light” / “Heavy”?

A
  1. Light = 28V heating across the whole windshield.
  2. Heavy = 26V heating across the middle section.
236
Q

What’s the maximum temperature that the windshield can reach?

A

60 °C. Above that, the temperature controller will de-activate the windshield heater.

237
Q

What should you do ico failure of the windshield heater?

A

Open the DV window BUT!!! be sure that the aircraft is fully de-pressurized before you do so!

238
Q

What happens when you switch the boots de-ice to 1 min?

A
  1. Horizontal stabilizer 8’’
  2. Wings bottom inboard 8”
  3. Wings top inboard 8”
  4. Wings bottom outboard 8”
  5. Wings top outboard 8”
  6. 20 sec pause before next cycle (140 sec for 3 min mode).
239
Q

Which boot mode is the most efficient?

A

1 min mode

240
Q

When should you activate the boots?

A

At the first sight of ice accretion.

241
Q

What’s the max flap configuration that you can use with boots ON?

A

15°

242
Q

What the boot operating temperature range?

A

-40 °C / +40 °C

243
Q

When is the “Pusher ice mode” activated?

A
  1. Prop de-ice = ON
  2. Inert sep = ON
    The systems don’t actually need to be operational for the pusher ice mode to activate.
244
Q

There are 3 temperature sensors under the right wing. What are they for?

A

From inboard to outboard:
1. ADHRS
2. Propeller De-Icing Controller (PDIC) / OAT (secondary)
3. ADHRS

245
Q

What are the prop heating cycles for 4-bladed props?

A
  1. Above 0 °C = nothing
  2. From 0 to -16 °C:
    2.1. Blades 1+3 45’’ ON
    2.2. Blades 2+4 45” ON
    2.3. 90” OFF
  3. Below -16 °C:
    3.1. Blades 1+3 90” ON
    3.2. Blades 2+4 90” ON
246
Q

What are the prop heating cycles for 5-bladed props?

A
  1. Above 0 °C = nothing
  2. From 0 to -16 °C:
    2.1. Inner prop 45’’ ON
    2.2. Outer prop 45” ON
    2.3. 90” OFF
  3. Below -16 °C:
    3.1. Inner prop 90” ON
    3.2. Outer prop 90” ON
247
Q

How long does it take to open the inert sep door?

A

About 30 sec.

248
Q

What should you do ico boot system failure?

A

Try to restaure it according to the QRH and if unsuccessful, leave icing conditions ASAP.

249
Q

How do you drain the pitot probes for water?

A

By using the drain valves located respectively under the left and right wing root.

250
Q

Which probes feed the Electrical Standby Instrument System (ESIS)?

A

The right pitot + static probes.

251
Q

When will the “Probes OFF” caution message be displayed in the CAS?

A

When probe heat is OFF and OAT < 10 °C.

252
Q

What is the danger of stalling with the PC-12?

A

Developing into a deep stall.

253
Q

When will the stick shaker / pusher activate?

A
  1. Stick shaker = VS + 5/10 KIAS
  2. Stick pusher = VS + 2/5 KIAS
254
Q

How does the aircraft calculate its Vs?

A

The MAU calculates it from:
1. AoA
2. Torque
3. Flaps
4. Test

255
Q

When is the stick pusher inhibited?

A

When on the ground.

256
Q

When is the stick pusher inhibited?

A
  1. On the ground
  2. Up to 5 sec after T-O
  3. When -0.5 G
257
Q

What is the pusher safe mode?

A

In this mode, the stick pusher will consider that the flaps are set to 0°.
This is used ico flaps assymetry.

258
Q

What does a “Pusher” caution message in the CAS indicate?

A
  1. Pusher test has not been performed.
  2. Discrepancy between computers and icing conditions are detected.
259
Q

What is the tension in the aircraft electrical cuircuit?

A

The generators produce 28 V DC
The batteries produce 24 V DC

260
Q

What does the “Reset” position on the generator switches do?

A

It resets the generator’s internal circuit in case of a generator failure.

261
Q

What do the Generator Control Units (GCUs) do?

A

They are used to manage the generators’ output and protect them against high/low voltage or reverse current.

262
Q

Which components of the electrical system provide power for engine start?

A

Gen 2 + Bat 2

263
Q

What type of systems are connected to the Hot bat bus?

A

The systems that must always be available even when the aircraft is OFF such as cockpit dome lights and the cargo door motor.

264
Q

In normal operation, what should be the position of the Gen and Bus switches?

A

ON at all times.

265
Q

Which external lights will not be available during pre-flight?

A

The wing inspection lights and the recog lights.

266
Q

Which external lights will remain available ico failure of Gen 1 + 2?

A

The landing lights.

267
Q

How many wing inspection lights are fitted on the PC-12?

A

1 on the left side of the forward fuselage.

268
Q

What happens to the ACS if Ng < 62%?

A

It shuts down automatically.

269
Q

Where does the ACS bleed the air from?

A

P2.5, between the axial and centrifugal compressors (in normal operations)
OR
P3, between the centrifugal compressor and the combustion chamber (when Ng < 80%)

270
Q

How is the ACS air temperature controlled?

A

Via the Temperature Control Valve, that will regulate how much bleed air will pass through the heat exchanger and how much air will bypass it.

271
Q

Why doesn’t the ACS comprise a compressor as most large aircrafts packs do?

A

Because the heat exchanger is really close to the bleed air in the PC-12, so there is no need to re-energize the air flow.

272
Q

How can you provide air to the cockpit / cabin ico engine fire?

A

By using the emergency ram air inlet located on the bottom right fuselage.
It opens automatically when the ACS emergency shut off valve is pulled.

273
Q

What are the auxiliary heaters systems installed on the PC-12?

A

Because due to the distance from the engine to the cabin, the cabin air tends to be a bit colder than in the cockpit. So booster heaters have been installed.

274
Q

Ico emergency, at what cabin altitude will the CPCU close the Out Flow Valve (OFV)?

A

14.500 ft

275
Q

What are the limits at which the Pressure Relief Valve (PRV) will operate?

A

0 < pressure differntial < 6.35 psi

276
Q

When is the Low Cab Mode recommended for use?

A
  1. When flying at low altitude with lots of small level changes (VFR flights), to maintain a constant cabin pressure.
  2. When flying with elderly or sick passengers to provide them with more O2.
277
Q

In which conditions would you need to depressurize the cabin?

A
  1. Ico engine fire.
  2. Ico ditching.
278
Q

Where are the OFV, PRV and NPRV located?

A
  1. OFV = right fuselage foreward bulkhead
  2. PRV = left fuselage foreward bulkhead
  3. NPRV = aft cabin bulkhead (x2)
279
Q

Where is supplemental O2 stored?

A
  1. Foreward RH fuselage if a small O2 tank is fitted.
  2. In the rear battery compartment if a large O2 tank is fitted (roughly 3 times bigger)
280
Q

How is the O2 tank protected against over-pressure?

A

By a pressure relief valve.
A green seal is visible on the LH rear fuselage and should be checked before each flight.

281
Q

What type of maks are used in the cockpit?

A

Quick donning diluter masks.
1. In normal mode, they will deliver O2 mixed with ambient air according to the aircraft’s altitude.
2. In 100% mode they will deliver 100% O2 regardless of altitude.
3. In the emergency mode, they will release 100% O2 with a slight overpressure.

282
Q

What are the different modes of the O2 cabin switch mode?

A
  1. OFF when no PAX in the cabin to preserve O2.
  2. AUTO in normal operations.
    It will release O2 automatically when:
    2.1. Cabine Z > 13.500 ft (+/- 500 ft)
    2.2. In “High field” mode, cabin Z > 14.500 ft (+/- 500 ft) OR 2000 ft above field elevation
  3. ON ico smoke in the cabin or to test the system. WARNING! In the PC-12 NG/X, switching to ON will cause the drop-down masks to drop which will result in a 3 hour maintenance to re-store the masks!!!
283
Q

What type of O2 masks are provided in the cabin?

A
  1. Constant flow drop-down masks.
  2. They are available for each pax seat + toilet.
  3. The O2 flow will automatically trigger when the pax pull the mask towards their face.
284
Q

What is the use of the O2 shutoff lever?

A

It should be switched OFF after the last flight of each day to preserve O2 and ON before the first flight of each day.

285
Q

What’s an ADAHRS?

A

Air Data Attitude and Heading Reference System.
It is an ADC and an AHRS rolled into one.
It comprises two channels and computes attitude, HDG and air data (TAS, GS, etc…) among other things.

286
Q

Which probes feed the ADAHRS channel A?

A
  1. Pitot 1
  2. Static 1
  3. Magnetometer 1
  4. OAT probe 1

It’s the secondary system that will feed channel B.

287
Q

How does the ADAHRS compute its data?

A

It compares the data from channel A to the data from channel B and if acceptable, sends it to the MAU.
Channel A will feed the captain’s PFD.
Channel B will feed the co-pilot’s PFD.

288
Q

What are the components of the AHRS part of the ADAHRS?

A

GPS 1 & 2 will feed channel A & B respectively and compare the position with 3 rate sensors + 3 accelerometers for each channel.

289
Q

What does a AHRS fail caution message mean?

A

Data discrepancy.

290
Q

When will the HDG computed by the ADAHRS start to be unreliable?

A

When about 82° lat North or South.
The system will the revert to True Track mode or Magnetic Heading mode.

291
Q

What is the RWY Awareness and Advisory System (RAAS)?

A

It is an EGPWS enhancement that uses GPS coordinates to give aural indications about the RWY environment (during taxi for example).

292
Q

What are the conditions for the RAAS “Approaching” advisory to activate?

A
  1. Aircraft on a RWY not FMS selected.
  2. Aircraft on the ground below 40 kts.
293
Q

What are the conditions for the RAAS “On RWY” advisory to activate?

A
  1. Aircraft on a RWY not FMS selected.
  2. Within 20° of RWY HDG.
294
Q

What are the conditions for the RAAS “Taxiway T-O” caution to activate?

A
  1. Not on a RWY.
  2. GS > 40 kts.
295
Q

Can the RAAS be inhibited?

A

Yes.

296
Q

What does an “Aural Warning fail” caution message mean?

A

Aural warnings are INOP except for TAWS & TCAS.

297
Q

Can the Aural Warning System be inhibited?

A

Yes, using the Aural WARN INHIB button on the cockpit rear left switch panel.

298
Q

What is the Aircraft Condition Monitoring System (ACMS)?

A

It records ADAHRS & engine parameters (including exceedences).

299
Q

What does the Aircraft Diagnostic and Maintenance System (ADMS) do?

A

It records system faults and failures.

300
Q

Is there a CVR in the PC-12?

A

Yes. It is installed in the battery bay (2 hours voice capacity and 25 hours data capacity).

301
Q

Can you erase the CVR data?

A

The communications can be deleted using the switch on the RH side of the copilot seat.
The flight data cannot be erased.

302
Q

What’s the OAT limitations for boot operations?

A

-40°C to +40°C

303
Q

When will the Pusher Ice Mode activate (PIM)?

A
  1. Inert Sep > Open
  2. Propeller De-icing > ON
304
Q

What’s the prop de-ice cycle for a 4-bladed propeller?

A

Mode 1 (OAT>0°C) = Nothing

Mode 2 (-16°<OAT<0°):
Blades 1&3 for 45 sec
Blades 2&4 for 45 sec
OFF for 90 sec

Mode 3 (OAT<-16°)
Blades 1&3 for 90 sec
Blades 2&4 for 90 sec

305
Q

What’s the prop de-ice cycle for a 5-bladed propeller?

A

Mode 1 (OAT>0°C) = Nothing

Mode 2 (-16°<OAT<0°):
Inner zones for 45 sec
Outer zones for 45 sec
OFF for 90 sec

Mode 3 (OAT<-16°)
Inner zones for 90 sec
Outer zones for 90 sec

306
Q

How can you detect a fuel filter clough from the cockpit of the NG?

A

The CAS will display a low fuel pressure caution message.

307
Q

How long does the landing gear nonrmally take to fully extend and lock down?

A

About 20 seconds.

308
Q

How do you assess the wear of the brake pads on the PC-12?

A

During the preflight, check the brake wear indicator pin with the brakes under pressure.

If the piston housing completely covers the pin, the brakes need an overhaul.

309
Q

When landing with a flaps setting smaller than 40°, what shall be the increase in landing distance?

A

Flaps 30°, x 1,22
Flaps 15°, x 1,31
Flaps 0°, x 1,83

310
Q

How long will the ELT transmition last after a crash ?

A
  1. On 121,5 MHz at least 100 hours and until the batteru is depleted.
  2. On 406 MHz for 48 hours. On this frequency, a message containing the position and ID of the plane will be emitted every 50 sec for this duration.
311
Q

What is the recommended tire pressure?

A

60 PSI (4.1 bars)

311
Q

What colour is de-icing fluid?

A

Type I is orange

Type II is straw/clear

Types III and IV are green

311
Q

In case of ditching, when should the passengers inflate their life jackets?

A

Only once outside the plane, EXCEPT for infants.
They should inflate their life jackets before evacuating the plane.

311
Q

What’s an Emergency Medical Kit (EMK)?

A

It’s a First Aid Kit (FAK) but more furnished.

312
Q

If the FLAP INTR switch is pressed, what will happen?

A

It will interrupt any movement of the flaps and a “Flaps” caution message will be displayed on the CAS.

However, if it is switched to the NORM position again, normal flap operation will NOT resume.

313
Q

When is it forbbiden to move the PCL aft of the idle detent?

A

Only when in flight.

314
Q

In cruise, what is the torque setting for maximum speed?

A

MCP or 40.6 PSI, whichever is less.

315
Q

What kind of fuel types are approved for the PC12?

A
  1. Jet-A
  2. Jet-A1
  3. Jet-B
  4. 100LL ico emergency only (Engine overhauls will have to be conducted every 150h)
316
Q

Which fuel pumps are controlled by the “Fuel Pump” switches on the overhead panel?

A

The electric booster pumps

317
Q

When will the fuel pumps turn ON/OFF when set to AUTO?

A
  1. ON when fuel pressure drops below 2 PSI OR 60 sec after an imbalance of 2 or more LCD segments has been detected.
  2. OFF 10 sec after fuel pressure has reached 3.5 PSI OR when fuel imbalance has been corrected.
318
Q

Where is the fuel temperature probe located?

A

After the fuel filter and before the fuel/oil heat exchanger.

319
Q

What should be the fuel temperature for take-off and normal operations?

A

Somewhere between 12°C and 105°C

320
Q

Can you start / taxi the aircraft with a fuel temperature below 12°C?

A

Yes

321
Q

What constitutes a fuel imbalance?

A

A difference of 2 or more LCD segments.

322
Q

What is the maximum allowed fuel imbalance?

A

3 LCD segments.

Which means that at 4 LCD segments difference you are out of the allowed fuel imbalance limit.

323
Q

How much fuel corresponds to 1 LCD segment?

A

About 45 lbs.

324
Q

How does the aircraft resolve a fuel imbalance?

A

It activates the booster pump on the fuller side of the aircraft to “force” the aircraft to use the fuller tank in priority.

325
Q

In case of fuel imbalance with the booster pump on the fuller tank ON, will fuel from the emptier tank still be consumed?

A

No because the flow pressure delivered by the booster pump of the fuller tank will block the low pressure of the emptier tank.

326
Q

During a normal fuel imbalance, is it possible for the emptier fuel tank to regain fuel?

A

Yes, because with the booster pump activated on the fuller side, no fuel will be consumed on the emptier side and the return line might bring back more fuel to the emptier side.

327
Q

Can you complete a fuel balancing on the ground?

A

Yes but you will need to have the engine running.

328
Q

To which quantity of fuel does 1 litre of Prist correspond to?

A

Approximately 660L.
So 500mL of Prist per wing should be used with AT LEAST 330L per wing.

329
Q

How can you mechanically help the aircraft to reduce fuel/oil temperature?

A
  1. Extend landing gear
  2. Reduce engine power
330
Q

How can you mechanically help the aircraft to increase fuel/oil temperature?

A
  1. Retract the landing gear
  2. Increase engine power if possible
331
Q

When will a “Fuel Low” caution message appear?

A

When one of the fuel tanks will have less than 133 lbs of fuel left.

332
Q

How will a “Fuel Quantity Fault” appear in the EFIS?

A

One of the fuel gauge will be barred by a red X.

333
Q

What should a pilot do ico “Fuel Quantity Fault”?

A

Disconnect the AP every 20 min to check for a possible fuel imbalance.

334
Q

What should you do when you suspect a fuel leak in one of the fuel tanks?

A

Use as much fuel as possible from the leaking tank and try to land with a fuel imbalance not greater than 5 LCD segments.

335
Q

How should you remember the LCD fuel segment limits?

A

1-2-3-4-5 rule

1 segment = All good
2 segments = Minimum fuel imbalance
3 segments = Maximum allowed fuel imbalance
4 segments = Outside of balancing range, DO NOT TAKEOFF!
5 segments = Maximum recommended imbalance for landing ico fuel leak

336
Q

When will a red “Passenger door” CAS message appear?

A

When one of the 2 micro-switches in the door is not in the correct position.

337
Q

What type of materials is the PC12 made out of?

A

Full metal

338
Q

What are the 2 uses for the DV window?

A
  1. To remove smoke from the cockpit
  2. To provide forward vision when the windshields are obstructed
339
Q

What are the 2 different ways to open the DV window?

A
  1. You can push the grey knob at the top of the DV to rotate it open. It can be closed again by the pilot.
  2. It can be removed completely by pulling the redd handle but a MX action will be necessary to seal it shut again.
340
Q

How is the main passenger door secured shut?

A

It is locked by 6 shoot bolts all around the door plus 1 locking pin located in the frame of the door behind the outside door handle.

341
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature required to perform an engine start?

A

-40°C

342
Q

Where are the 2 micro-switches that confirm the locked door position located in the main passenger door?

A

One is located in the door locking pin behind the exterior door handle.

The other one is installed in the top rear shoot bolt receptacle.

343
Q

What are the dimensions of the main passenger door?

A

1,35m X 0.61m

344
Q

How is the cargo door kept closed?

A

By 2 shoot bolts plus 3 latch hooks.

345
Q

How is the cargo door locking mechanism powered?

A

By the Hot Battery Bus
(ref: PC12 app&raquo_space; General)

346
Q

What are the diemnsions of the cargo door?

A

1,35m X 1,32m
(ref: PC12 app&raquo_space; General)

347
Q

How many layers compose the windhsields?

A

2 glass layers with electrical resistances between them.
(ref: PC12 app&raquo_space; General)
(ref: POH&raquo_space; 7.2.2)

348
Q

How many heating areas are there on the windhield?

A

3
(ref: PC12 app&raquo_space; General)

349
Q

What is the preferred way to clean the windshields?

A

By bare hand (no cloth!) with clear water and mild soap.
(ref: PC12 app&raquo_space; General)

350
Q

What is the Np when the Prop Low Speed mode is active?

A

1550 RPM

351
Q

What type of LDG gear is fitted on the PC12?

A

The LDG gear mechanism can be either hydraulic or electric.

352
Q

What are the specificities of the hydraulic LDG gear?

A
  1. It has no locking mechanism, the gear is maintained retracted by the hydraulic pressure alone.
  2. Electrical pumps are fitted to provide the pressure necessary to retract and lock the gear.
  3. Ico hydraulic failure, the LDG gear can be extended either by free-fall OR by a hand pump.
353
Q

What are the specificities of the electrical LDG gear?

A
  1. It is operated by electro-mechanical actuators and has no up-locking mechanism.
  2. Ico electrical failure, the LDG gear can be extended by free-fall only.
354
Q

Ico hydraulic failure, how long will the LDG gear remain UP?

A

About 200 minutes, thanks to the nitrogen accumulator that will maintain the pressure in the system.

355
Q

How are the electric pumps of the hydraulic landing gear system powered?

A

By the secondary power line but the controller is powered via the essential bus.

356
Q

What is the bottle fitted in the frame of the cargo door?

A

It is a bottle of nitrogen used to maintain pressure in the hydraulic fluid reservoir to prevent cavitation.

357
Q

What are the 3 elements of the nitrogen tank that should be inspected during the pre-flight?

A
  1. The yellow knob to the top indicates the nitrogen pressure in the bottle. It should be compared to the chart to assess if the nitrogen level is sufficient for dispatch.
  2. The visual gauge in the bottom left corner indicates the hydraulic fluid level. A bubble will indicate there is sufficient fluid in the system.
  3. In the bottom right corner is the bypass indicator, you must ensure it hasn’t popped.
358
Q

What does an amber “Hydraulics” message in the CAS indicate?

A

The pressure in the LDG gear hydraulic system has fallen below 1800 PSI.

359
Q

What is the range of operations of the hydraulics pump in the hydraulic LDG gear system?

A

It will turn ON at 2450 PSI and will turn off when the pressure reaches 2725 PSI.

360
Q

When will the hydraulic system be inhibited?

A

When the AC is on the ground with the engine NOT running.

361
Q

What is the normal LDG gear cycle time?

A

12 seconds

362
Q

What is the LDG gear extension time using free-fall?

A

About 25 seconds

363
Q

How is the LDG gear maintained down?

A

By a drag link (contrefiche) and an over-center spring (ressort de rappel) coiled around the drag link.

364
Q

When will the “GEAR, GEAR” aural warning sound?

A

When the gear is not locked down and one of the following conditions exist:

  1. KIAS < 130 kts AND PCL idle*
  2. Flaps are extended beyond 15°
  3. Radar altitude < 200 ft AND PCL < 10 PSI

*Note that in the newest APEX builds the aural warning will only sound if RA is < 800 ft. This was done to prevent unwanted aural warnings during stall / IFSD exercises.

365
Q

What is the basic operating system of the air/ground system?

A

The aircraft is fitted with several air/ground switches which send signals to the MAU which will compare these signals to determine wether the airccraft is in the air.

366
Q

What are the different information that are fed to the MAU air/ground system?

A
  1. LH / RH main LDG gear WoW switches
  2. Radar altimeter
  3. Calibrated airspeed
367
Q

Which systems will be inhibited by the air/ground system once the aircraft is on the ground?

A
  1. The LDG gear lever
  2. The stick pusher
  3. The TCAS (?)

(ref: April 2024 refresher&raquo_space; AIR/GROUND System)

368
Q

When becoming airborne, when will the stick pusher system become operative again?

A

5 seconds after lift-off.

369
Q

What constitutes a heavy brake usage?

A
  1. An RTO at Vr-20kts
  2. A full-stop LDG with flaps 0°
370
Q

How many fusable plugs are fitted on the main LDG gear?

A

3 per wheel

371
Q

What’s the normal tyre pressure?

A

60 PSI

372
Q

How many strokes does it take to fully extend the hydraulic landing gear manually?

A

Up to 80 strokes

373
Q

Which levels are displayed on the gauges of the pressure tank located in the left wing root?

A
  1. The level of hydraulic fluid level
  2. The nitrogen pressure level (normally 56 PSI)
374
Q

How long can the accumulator of the landing gear hydraulic fluid maintain the gear up ico failure of the hydraulic pump?

A

200 minutes

375
Q

In a hydraulic landing gear how are the different landing gears maintained retracted?

A

They are all maintained retracted by hydraulic pressure alone.

Which means that ico loss of pressure the landing gear will eventually end up fully extended.

376
Q

Can you open the overwing exit from the outside?

A

Yes!

This is why we install the locking pin on exit before we leave the airplane.

It can be opened by pressing the red button at the top of the door (exterior).

377
Q

What will happen if the overwing exit is not properly sealed?

A

Nothing.

There’s no CAS indication for this exit.

378
Q

What are the side windows made of in the cockpit and the cabin?

A

Stretched acrylic.

379
Q

How many windows are there in the cabin?

A

9 (4 left + 5 right)

380
Q

Where is the taxi light located?

A

On the nose wheel landing gear.

381
Q

How many landing lights are there and where are they located?

A

There are two landing lights located on each main landing gear.

382
Q

What happens when you press the lighting button located at the top of the stairs of the passenger door?

A

It will illuminate the dome light and the entry door light for 45 seconds.

383
Q

Which bus powers the cockpit lights?

A

The HOT battery bus (it powers the systems that must remain usable even when the aircraft has been shut down).

384
Q

What will happen when you press the lighting switch in the cargo hold?

A

It will illuminate the cargo hold and the cargo door for 5 minutes.

385
Q

How are the flight controls operated?

A

Mechanically via a combination of cables, bell cranks and push/pull rods.

386
Q

What does the diamond indicate on the MFD pitch trim indicator?

A

It indicates the aft CG setting for take-off.

387
Q

How is the nosewheel steering operated?

A

Mechanically by the rudder pedals via springs.

388
Q

Where is the autopilot yaw servo located?

A

In the tail beneath the fin.

It is used both as the autopilot rudder trim and yaw damper.

389
Q

What are the different aileron tabs and where are they located?

A

The first one is called a Flettner tab and is mechanically linked to the wing to reduce the control forces and cannot be trimmed by the pilot.
It is located on the right aileron.

The second tab is a trim tab connected to the electric trim motor by a push rod.
This tab is located on the left aileron.

390
Q

What is the aileron rudder interconnect system?

A

It is a spring system that links the aileron inputs to the rudder so that when the pilot moves the ailerons, it will move the rudder jointly.

391
Q

How many electrical motors are used for AP yaw/pitch control?

A

1 for the yaw.

2 for the pitch.
The first motor is used by the pilot to manually trim.
The second motor is used primarily by the autopilot but can also be used by the pilot as an alternate trim by using the alternate trim switch located on the central console.

392
Q

How many trim motors are there?

A

4 total

1 for roll
1 for yaw
2 for pitch

393
Q

What happens when you press the trim interrupt switch?

A

It will interrupt the 4 trim motors

394
Q

How many CBs are used to protect the trim motors?

A

4, one for each motor.

395
Q

Which bus powers each of the stabilizer trim motors?

A
  1. The manual stabilizer trim motor is always powered via the ESSENTIAL bus.
  2. The alternate stabilizer trim motor is powered via:
    2.1. The MAIN bus when AP is OFF
    2.2. The ESSENTIAL bus when AP is ON
396
Q
A

PC-12 Training (18 decks)

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